Deck 17: The Immune System

Question 1

What is another term for macrophages found in the liver?

A) Kupffer cells
B) histiocytes
C) wandering macrophages
D) hepatocytes
E) Langerhans cells

Answer 1

A

Question 2

What would happen if there was no thymus in the human body?

A) erythrocyte production would be defective
B) pre-T cells would not be produced
C) inflammation would not be an allergic reaction
D) phagocytosis would not take place
E) aging would be a faster process

Answer 2

E

Question 3

Which of the following cells' function is to process and present foreign substances to initiate an immune response?

A) eosinophils
B) helper T cells
C) fixed macrophages
D) mast cells
E) dendritic cells

Answer 3

E

Question 4

Which of the following is a similarity between dermicidin and defensin?

A) both are produced by sweat glands
B) both are antimicrobial proteins
C) both are involved in reducing the amount of available iron in the blood
D) both are involved in the formation of the membrane attack complex
E) both are part of the adaptive immune responses

Question 5

Which of the following changes related to the immune system is likely to occur in a girl who has begun menstruating?

A) the concentration of dendritic cells in the body will gradually decrease
B) the spleen will function primarily as a hormone-producing organ
C) the lymph nodes will contain a high concentration of T cells
D) the thymus's function as a primary lymphoid organ will gradually decline
E) the bone marrow will produce large amounts of mature B lymphocytes

Question 6

Which components of the skin contains cells that engage in phagocytosis?

A) sebaceous gland
B) sweat gland
C) epidermis
D) dermis
E) fat tissue

Question 7

Why is the thymus categorized as a primary lymphoid organ?

A) it is the production site for leukotrienes
B) it is the production site for monocytes
C) it is the maturation site for pre-T cells
D) it is the proliferation site for mature B cells
E) it is the antigen-presenting site

Question 8

Which of the following is a function of the spleen?

A) it filters foreign materials in the human body from the lymph
B) it filters foreign materials in the human body from the blood
C) it produces hormones that speed up the human body's aging process
D) it produces hormones that cause the maturation of B cells
E) it produces substances involved in allergic reactions

Question 9

Which of the following is a difference between the thymus and the spleen?

A) one is bilobed, and the other is bean shaped
B) one is surrounded by connective tissue, and the other is not
C) one produces hormones to hasten aging, and the other does not
D) one is located above the heart, and the other is located near the neck
E) one is the site for lymphocyte degradation, and the other is the site for lymphocyte production

Question 10

Why is the skin classified as a component of innate immunity?

A) It is a physical, not a chemical, barrier to antigens invading the human body.
B) It does not initiate specific immune responses against antigens based on recognition.
C) It has a high concentration of monocytes that convert to wandering macrophages.
D) It is the primary location for the actual lysis of infected cells.
E) It allows the entry of selective microorganisms and foreign bodies.

Question 11

Which of the following is a function of keratinocytes?

A) protecting from harmful ultraviolet radiation
B) preventing the entry of water-borne microbes
C) producing collagen fibers and glycoproteins
D) detecting the presence of foreign materials
E) initiating the breakdown of infected cells

Question 12

Which of the following acts as a trigger for interferon production?

A) viral translation
B) nuclear wall lysis
C) plasma membrane perforation
D) viral replication
E) lysozyme production

Question 13

Which of the following is the function of the blue-colored cell in the image?

A) signaling the immune system about the presence of an invading microbe
B) facilitating the production of T and B lymphocytes
C) secreting an oily substance to coat the skin's surface
D) producing a dark pigment that protects the skin from ultraviolet rays
E) triggering primary lymphoid organs to produce anti-inflammatory hormones

Question 14

Which of the following cells of the immune system are similar in their primary function?

A) helper T cells and dendritic cells
B) monocytes and B cells
C) dendritic cells and eosinophils
D) basophils and B cells
E) mast cells and basophils

Question 15

Which of the following is a consequence of the interaction seen in the image?

A) activation of the classical complement pathway
B) breakdown of the membrane attack complex
C) rupture of a microbial cell
D) suppressed histamine release
E) increased opsonin production

Question 16

Why is the alternative complement pathway known as an innate immune response?

A) The pathway does not require antibodies to be activated.
B) The pathway enhances immune reactions.
C) The pathway proceeds with an interaction of carbohydrate molecules.
D) The pathway is activated when mannan-binding lectins bind to carbohydrates.
E) The pathway is a cascade of immune reactions,

Question 17

Which of the following functions is exclusively performed by a B lymphocyte?

A) cytolysis
B) antigen presentation
C) phagocytosis
D) antibody production
E) prostaglandin release

Question 18

Identify the true statement about the complement system?

A) this system represents the first line of innate defense
B) complement proteins are synthesized in the spleen and the thymus
C) complement proteins are activated in the presence of microbial agents
D) this system can be activated in four ways
E) complement proteins circulate in the lymph

Question 19

Which cell of the immune system would you MOST want to protect from bacterial infections that cause tissue damage?

A) eosinophils
B) basophils
C) neutrophils
D) mast cells
E) natural killer cells

Question 20

Why is gastric juice effective against bacterial toxins?

A) due to its acidic nature
B) due to its antigen-binding ability
C) due to its high specific gravity
D) due to the rise in blood pH level that accompanies its release
E) due to the feedback mechanisms controlling its production

Question 21

Which of the following procedures involves clonal selection of a lymphocyte in response to an antigen?

A) chemotaxis and diapedesis
B) adhesion and opsonization
C) transcription and margination
D) replication and translation
E) proliferation and division

Question 22

Identify the true statement about memory cells that are produced during clonal selection of lymphocytes.

A) they require a costimulator to elicit a secondary immune response
B) they are also known as plasma cells
C) they are inactive participants in the primary immune response to an antigen
D) they die immediately after the completion of an immune response
E) they are found exclusively among helper T cells

Question 23

Identify the process depicted by this image.

A) replication
B) activation
C) leukocytosis
D) extravasation
E) phagocytosis

Question 24

CD4 cells are also known as

A) mast cells
B) dendritic cells
C) helper T cells
D) cytotoxic T cells
E) B cells

Question 25

Which of these is a feature specific to the ingestion phase of phagocytosis?

A) opsonin
B) pseudopod
C) phagolysosome
D) perforin
E) residual body

Question 26

Which of the following enhances the adhesion process during phagocytosis?

A) fibrinogen and kininogen
B) histamine and chemotaxin
C) leukotriene and prostaglandin
D) opsonin and bradykinin
E) selectin and integrin

Question 27

Why is humoral immunity likely to be ineffective against cancer cells?

A) this form of immunity involves antigen-antibody reactions in body fluids
B) killing cancer cells requires memory of previous encounters with cancerous cells
C) this form of immunity is known for its nonspecificity
D) cancer cells are a result of invading agents that are viral in nature
E) this form of immunity is cell mediated

Question 28

What property distinguishes adaptive immunity from innate immunity?

A) flexibility
B) specificity
C) susceptibility
D) reversibility
E) immunogenicity

Question 29

A location where cytotoxic T cells and B cells get activated to undergo clonal selection is

A) spleen
B) thymus
C) blood
D) lymph
E) bone marrow

Question 30

Which of the following is likely to occur in the absence of the complement protein C3b during phagocytosis?

A) phagocytosis will be suppressed
B) monocytes will not convert to macrophages
C) antibodies will help to initiate phagocytosis
D) B cell proliferation will increase
E) pre-T cells will not mature to T cells

Question 31

What is a likely consequence of capillary impermeability at the site of tissue injury?

A) antibodies will not be able to repair the injured tissue
B) the amount of blood flowing to the injured site will increase
C) dead blood cells will get accumulated in the blood stream
D) the effectiveness of leukotrienes is reduced
E) the classical complement pathway will not be activated

Question 32

What is likely to happen if lymphocytes do not undergo clonal selection in response to a particular antigen?

A) Lymphocytes are likely to increase in number through other procedures.
B) A decrease in the rate of production of cytotoxic T cells is likely in case of another encounter with the same antigen.
C) Lymphocytes are unlikely to be available to respond to another encounter with the same antigen.
D) A second encounter with the same antigen is highly unlikely because of a primary lymphocyte response.
E) Production of B cells in the bone marrow is likely to reduce significantly.

Question 33

Identify the second stage in an inflammatory response.

A) synthesis of bradykinin
B) increase in blood vessel permeability
C) conversion of soluble fibrinogen into insoluble fibrin
D) migration of phagocytes into the interstitial fluid
E) decrease in blood vessel permeability

Question 34

Which of the processes is common to natural killer cells and the alternative complement pathway?

A) microbial cell cytolysis
B) host cell phagocytosis
C) membrane complex formation
D) granzyme production
E) blood vessel perforation

Question 35

Which of these is a disadvantage of apoptosis of microbial cells initiated by natural killer cells?

A) effective only for bacterial infections
B) involves nonspecific antibodies
C) not as effective as cytolysis
D) requires an additional procedure of phagocytosis
E) induces rapid viral replication and translation

Question 36

Which of the following is a similarity between cell-mediated immunity and antibody-mediated immunity?

A) both immunities are types of innate, or nonspecific, immunity
B) neither of the processes takes place in body fluids such as blood and lymph
C) both involve the production of protein molecules by cytotoxic T cells for an immunological response
D) both involve the assistance of helper T cells
E) neither of the processes is triggered by the presence of an unprocessed antigen

Question 37

During the process of inflammation, what would occur if there is inadequate production of adhesion molecules?

A) chemotaxin production will increase significantly
B) fibrinogen will undergo rapid conversion to fibrin
C) phagocytes will continue to circulate in the blood stream
D) defensive proteins will migrate back to their production sites
E) antibodies will migrate into the lymph instead of the interstitial space

Question 38

Identify the true statement about adaptive immunity.

A) It is exclusive of the specific recognition of invading microbes.
B) It is exclusive of the property of differentiating between foreign substances and its own components.
C) The skin is the most important component of adaptive immunity.
D) Eosinophils, neutrophils, and basophils are the only cells of the immune system involved in adaptive immunity.
E) It involves remembering the invading agents encountered earlier to initiate a response on consecutive encounters.

Question 39

Clonal selection of lymphocytes involves the production of

A) eosinophils and basophils
B) effector cells and memory cells
C) cytotoxic T cells and helper T cells
D) macrophages and residual bodies
E) antigens and antibodies

Question 40

What is a common characteristic of maturing B cells and T cells?

A) immunocompetence
B) memory
C) antibody production
D) degranulation
E) positive selection

Question 41

Antigen-antibody reactions facilitate the cross-linking of pathogens to one another via

A) agglutination
B) precipitation
C) activation
D) opsonization
E) margination

Question 42

Immunogenicity is defined as

A) an antigen's ability to react with an antibody
B) an antigen's ability to initiate an immune response
C) an antigen's ability to interrupt clonal selection
D) an antibody's ability to differentiate between different molecules
E) an antibody's ability to execute adaptive immune responses

Question 43

To which class of antibodies does the structure in the image belong?

A) immunoglobulin A
B) immunoglobulin M
C) immunoglobulin G
D) immunoglobulin E
E) immunoglobulin D

Question 44

Which of the following types of immunity develops when a person receives a vaccination for hepatitis B?

A) active natural immunity
B) active artificial immunity
C) passive natural immunity
D) passive artificial immunity

Question 45

What is a difference between the processing of an endogenous antigen and an exogenous antigen?

A) one uses major histocompatibility complex I (MHC-I) proteins, and the other uses major histocompatibility complex II (MHC-II) proteins
B) one involves fragmentation of antigenic proteins, and the other involves fusion of peptide fragments to form antigenic proteins
C) one takes place exclusively in the lymph nodes, and the other takes place exclusively inside a body cell
D) one involves synthesis of major histocompatibility complex (MHC) proteins at the endoplasmic reticulum, and the other involves synthesis of major histocompatibility complex (MHC) proteins in the cytoplasm
E) one involves exocytosis of the antigen-major histocompatibility complex (MHC) protein compound, and the other involves diapedesis of the antigen-MHC compound

Question 46

Which of the following are important characteristics of an antigen?

A) specificity and selectivity
B) proliferation and differentiation
C) immunocompetence and clonal selection
D) recognition and memory
E) immunogenicity and reactivity

Question 47

A 45-year-old man undergoes a liver transplant. Three months after the surgery, he is diagnosed with cancer due to a chronic hepatitis B infection. If the patient was on drugs to prevent graft rejection, what process has failed to take place in the patient's immune system?

A) self-tolerance
B) self-recognition
C) immunogenicity development
D) chemotaxis
E) immunological surveillance

Question 48

What is unlikely to happen if a T cell recognizes an antigen but does not undergo costimulation?

A) clonal selection
B) anergy
C) negative selection
D) T cell deletion
E) self-tolerance

Question 49

If you have an identical twin, you and your twin are likely to have

A) an identical number of B cells, helper T cells, and cytotoxic T cells
B) identical major histocompatibility complex (MHC) proteins
C) identical antigens with similar immunogenicity and reactivity
D) identical antigen presenting cells (APCs)
E) an identical number of effector and memory cells

Question 50

Why are some people allergic to penicillin?

A) Penicillin is a hapten that combines with proteins in the body to stimulate antibody production.
B) Penicillin's composition allows it to act as an antibody for most invading microbes.
C) Compromised immune systems often perceive penicillin as an antigen.
D) The antigenic determinants on penicillin cause it to repel body proteins that prevent an immune attack.
E) Penicillin's composition is similar to that of an invading microbe or antigen.

Question 51

Identify the process in the image.

A) CD4 cell maturation
B) CD8 cell activation
C) CD4 cell clonal selection
D) CD8 cell suppression
E) CD4 cell formation

Question 52

Identify the structure marked by the lines in the image.

A) epitopes
B) antigen receptors
C) haptens
D) antibody presenters
E) pseudopods

Question 53

Which of the following antibody actions is depicted in the image?

A) precipitation
B) complement activation
C) opsonization
D) agglutination
E) antigen neutralization

Question 54

Which is the first signal in the activation of a T cell?

A) the fusion of antigenic peptide fragments and major histocompatibility complex (MHC) proteins
B) a T cell receptor recognizing an antigen using the CD4 protein
C) a T cell undergoing clonal selection
D) the exocytosis of the antigen-major histocompatibility complex (MHC) protein compound into the plasma membrane
E) a T cell receptor recognizing a peptide fragment of a self-protein

Question 55

In the processing and presenting of an exogenous antigen, when do the class II major histocompatibility complex (MHC-II) molecules merge with the vesicles containing the antigen peptide fragments?

A) during the formation of a phagolysosome containing the antigen
B) after the MHC-II molecules are packed into vesicles
C) before the MHC-II molecules are packed into vesicles
D) before the antigenic protein is split into peptide fragments
E) during the fragmentation of the antigenic protein

Question 56

A process characteristic of the primary immune response is

A) decrease in immunoglobulin G
B) increase in immunoglobulin E
C) decrease in immunoglobulin A
D) increase in immunoglobulin M
E) decrease in immunoglobulin D

Question 57

What is the role of variable regions in an antibody molecule?

A) costimulating of other secreted antibodies
B) processing and presenting antigens
C) determining the type of antigen-antibody reaction
D) facilitating flexibility of the midregion of the two heavy chains
E) recognizing and binding to specific antigens

Question 58

Which of the following statements BEST describes antigen presentation?

A) the process of oxidant production by antigenic proteins
B) the process where antigens adhere to the walls of body cells using adhesion molecules such as integrins
C) the process of continuous proliferation and differentiation of antibodies in response to antigens
D) the process in which the antigen-major histocompatibility complex (MHC) protein compound is inserted into a body cell's plasma membrane
E) the process in which antigenic proteins break down into peptide fragments to bind with major histocompatibility complex (MHC) proteins

Question 59

In antibody-mediated immunity, antibodies are secreted by

A) active cytotoxic T cells
B) memory B cells
C) plasma cells
D) active helper T cells
E) memory CD8 cells

Question 60

Identify the true statement about the secondary response.

A) the antibody titer is lower during the secondary response
B) no antibodies are present after the initial contact with an antigen
C) the antibody titer mainly comprises immunoglobulin G
D) this response is initiated by effector cells
E) antibodies have a low affinity for an antigen on a second encounter

Question 61

Immunoglobulin D antibodies present in mother's milk provide protection to a breast feeding infant.

Question 62

How would you prevent the occurrence of myasthenia gravis?

A) by destroying acetylcholine receptor autoantibodies
B) by increasing the production of myelin sheaths on neurons
C) by activating CD8 cells to breakdown anergic cells in the lymph
D) by reducing the aggressive costimulant activity on antigenic fragments
E) by suppressing the self-major histocompatibility complex (MHC) proteins

Question 63

A toxin from poison ivy is likely to show a delayed hypersensitive reaction in an allergic individual.

Question 64

In the context of allergic reactions, when is a person likely to go into anaphylactic shock?

A) when large amounts of an allergen enters the person's blood stream
B) when the allergen is of an animal source
C) when the allergic reaction is delayed
D) when the person is desensitized to an allergen
E) when a rare allergen comes in contact with self-reactive antibodies

Question 65

Macrophages release interleukin-6 (IL-6) that acts on the hypothalamus and causes a fever.

Question 66

What happens during anergy?

A) T cells recognize self-major histocompatibility complex (MHC) proteins.
B) Self-reactive T cells that are unresponsive to antigenic stimulation remain in the body.
C) Self-reactive T cells that are weakly responsive to antigens are eliminated from the body.
D) T cells react with self-peptide fragments.
E) T cells undergo apoptosis and die.

Question 67

With which of the following do T cells interact to develop self-tolerance?

A) erythrocytes
B) splenocytes
C) eosinophils
D) mast cells
E) dendritic cells