Deck 3: Dispute Settlement
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Deck 3: Dispute Settlement
1
Immunity is available when it is waived by the state.
False
2
The ability of a defendant to escape the jurisdiction of a court is known as delict.
False
3
A state party includes the state itself, its agencies, and its subdivisions.
True
4
The doctrine of absolute sovereign immunity states that domestic courts must decline to hear cases against foreign sovereigns out of deference to their role as sovereigns.
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5
The governmental interest doctrine states that a state is immune from suit in cases involving injuries that are the result of its governmental actions.
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6
Mediation involves the use of a third party who transmits and interprets the proposals of the principal parties and sometimes advances independent proposals.
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7
The International Court of Justice is the principal judicial organ of the United Nations.
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8
When mediators provide a channel of communications only, it is said that they are involved in conciliation.
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9
All the member states of the United Nations are automatically parties to the Statute of the International Court of Justice.
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10
The act of state doctrine is the traditional device used by courts to determine the choice of law.
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11
Contentious jurisdiction is the power of the ICJ to give opinions about issues of international law at the request of the United Nations or one of its specialized agencies.
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12
The vested rights doctrine states that courts should apply the law of the state where the rights of the parties legally became effective.
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13
A juridical person is a human being.
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14
The Permanent Court of International Justice replaced the International Court of Justice.
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15
The protective nexus provides for jurisdiction when a national or international interest of the forum is injured by the offender.
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16
In personam jurisdiction is the power of a court to decide matters relating to a natural or juridical person physically present within the forum state.
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17
The WTO's dispute settlement process is governed by an agreement known as the General Agreement on Tariffs and Trade.
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18
Diplomacy is also known as alternative dispute resolution.
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19
Courts that apply the governmental interest doctrine will make no choice of law unless asked to do so by the parties.
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20
The Rome Statute is binding only on those states that formally express their consent to be bound by its provisions.
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21
Forum non conveniens is a court order directing a person not to proceed with litigation in a foreign court.
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22
The doctrine used by common law courts to refuse jurisdiction is called forum non conveniens.
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23
________ is bringing about a peaceful settlement or compromise between parties to a dispute through the benevolent intervention of an impartial third party.
A) Mediation
B) Inquiry
C) Litigation
D) Negotiation
A) Mediation
B) Inquiry
C) Litigation
D) Negotiation
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24
The process by which an impartial third party makes an investigation to determine the facts underlying a dispute without resolving the dispute itself is called ________.
A) mediation
B) negotiation
C) inquiry
D) conciliation
A) mediation
B) negotiation
C) inquiry
D) conciliation
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25
Which of the following is true of the composition of the International Court of Justice?
A) It is composed of 15 judges.
B) Its judges are elected to fifteen-year terms of office.
C) Its members represent their governments.
D) Its judges are elected by the European Commission.
A) It is composed of 15 judges.
B) Its judges are elected to fifteen-year terms of office.
C) Its members represent their governments.
D) Its judges are elected by the European Commission.
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26
Optional clause jurisdiction differs from contentious jurisdiction in that, optional clause jurisdiction is ________.
A) the requirement that a tribunal must have power over the parties before it may hear a dispute
B) the power of the ICJ to give opinions about issues of international law at the request of the United Nations or one of its specialized agencies
C) the power of a court to hear a matter that involves a dispute between two or more parties
D) a unilateral grant of jurisdiction by a state to the ICJ that allows the Court to resolve disputes involving that state
A) the requirement that a tribunal must have power over the parties before it may hear a dispute
B) the power of the ICJ to give opinions about issues of international law at the request of the United Nations or one of its specialized agencies
C) the power of a court to hear a matter that involves a dispute between two or more parties
D) a unilateral grant of jurisdiction by a state to the ICJ that allows the Court to resolve disputes involving that state
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27
Which of the following is true of inquiry?
A) It focuses only on a particular incident.
B) It tries to resolve an entire dispute.
C) It involves mediators who offer good offices.
D) It involves conciliation among mediators.
A) It focuses only on a particular incident.
B) It tries to resolve an entire dispute.
C) It involves mediators who offer good offices.
D) It involves conciliation among mediators.
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28
Which of the following is true of the International Criminal Court?
A) It is the principal judicial organ of the United Nations.
B) Its judges are elected by the United Nations General Assembly.
C) Its jurisdiction and functioning are governed by the Rome Statute.
D) The court's jurisdiction is limited to events taking place since Jan 1, 2012.
A) It is the principal judicial organ of the United Nations.
B) Its judges are elected by the United Nations General Assembly.
C) Its jurisdiction and functioning are governed by the Rome Statute.
D) The court's jurisdiction is limited to events taking place since Jan 1, 2012.
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29
In states that are signatories to the United Nations Convention on the Recognition and Enforcement of Foreign Arbitral Awards, foreign arbitral awards can be enforced only if they are first converted into a judicial judgment in the state where the arbitration was heard.
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30
Which of the following is the principal judicial organ of the United Nations?
A) the Permanent Court of International Justice
B) the International Center for the Settlement of Investment Disputes
C) the International Court of Justice
D) the International Criminal Court
A) the Permanent Court of International Justice
B) the International Center for the Settlement of Investment Disputes
C) the International Court of Justice
D) the International Criminal Court
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31
The ________ holds that a state has to respond to a suit brought against it before the ICJ only to the extent to which the state bringing the suit has also accepted the jurisdiction of this court.
A) vested rights doctrine
B) rule of reciprocity
C) public trust doctrine
D) choice of law clause
A) vested rights doctrine
B) rule of reciprocity
C) public trust doctrine
D) choice of law clause
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32
Which of the following is true of the World Trade Organization (WTO)?
A) Its dispute settlement process is governed by an agreement known as the General Agreement on Tariffs and Trade.
B) It is the trade-dispute settlement body of the United Nations.
C) Its functions are governed by the Rome Statute.
D) It is responsible for implementing and enforcing the rules of international trade between nations.
A) Its dispute settlement process is governed by an agreement known as the General Agreement on Tariffs and Trade.
B) It is the trade-dispute settlement body of the United Nations.
C) Its functions are governed by the Rome Statute.
D) It is responsible for implementing and enforcing the rules of international trade between nations.
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33
________ is a form of international dispute settlement that attempts to reconcile parties to a disagreement by use of negotiation, mediation, or inquiry.
A) Litigation
B) Petition
C) Arraignment
D) Diplomacy
A) Litigation
B) Petition
C) Arraignment
D) Diplomacy
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34
________ is the power of the ICJ to give opinions about issues of international law at the request of the United Nations or one of its specialized agencies.
A) In personam jurisdiction
B) Personal jurisdiction
C) Advisory jurisdiction
D) In rem jurisdiction
A) In personam jurisdiction
B) Personal jurisdiction
C) Advisory jurisdiction
D) In rem jurisdiction
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35
________ jurisdiction is the power of a court to hear a matter that involves a dispute between two or more parties.
A) Contentious
B) Adjudicative
C) Optional clause
D) Advisory
A) Contentious
B) Adjudicative
C) Optional clause
D) Advisory
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36
In Germany, foreign law is regarded as a factual issue that the parties must prove in the same way they prove any fact.
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37
________ is the process of reaching an agreement through discussion between two parties to a dispute.
A) Inquiry
B) Mediation
C) Negotiation
D) Conciliation
A) Inquiry
B) Mediation
C) Negotiation
D) Conciliation
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38
Forum non conveniens originated from Scottish Common Law.
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39
The process by which an impartial third party makes an independent investigation and suggests a solution to a dispute is called ________.
A) negotiation
B) conciliation
C) arbitration
D) inquiry
A) negotiation
B) conciliation
C) arbitration
D) inquiry
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40
The authority or power of a court or tribunal to hear a particular case or dispute is called ________.
A) arbitration
B) jurisdiction
C) diplomacy
D) mediation
A) arbitration
B) jurisdiction
C) diplomacy
D) mediation
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41
The ________ consists of the criteria that allow a court to assume criminal jurisdiction over an offense that was committed within the forum state.
A) territoriality nexus
B) nationality nexus
C) protective nexus
D) universality nexus
A) territoriality nexus
B) nationality nexus
C) protective nexus
D) universality nexus
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42
________ is the process by which parties to a dispute submit their differences to the binding judgment of an impartial third person or group selected by mutual consent.
A) Conciliation
B) Diplomacy
C) Arbitration
D) Mediation
A) Conciliation
B) Diplomacy
C) Arbitration
D) Mediation
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43
Which of the following is a dispute settlement organ of the WTO that is charged with administering and carrying out the Dispute Settlement Understanding?
A) International Court of Justice
B) International Criminal Court
C) International Center for the Settlement of Investment Disputes
D) Appellate Body
A) International Court of Justice
B) International Criminal Court
C) International Center for the Settlement of Investment Disputes
D) Appellate Body
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44
The ________ holds that a foreign state is immune from all types of suits.
A) act of state doctrine
B) doctrine of sovereign or state immunity
C) rule of absolute sovereign immunity
D) theory of restrictive sovereign immunity
A) act of state doctrine
B) doctrine of sovereign or state immunity
C) rule of absolute sovereign immunity
D) theory of restrictive sovereign immunity
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45
The ________ consists of the criteria that allow a court to assume criminal jurisdiction if the offense is one recognized by the international community as being of world-wide concern, including piracy, slave trade, attacks on or the hijacking of aircraft, genocide, war crimes, and crimes against humanity.
A) territoriality nexus
B) nationality nexus
C) protective nexus
D) universality nexus
A) territoriality nexus
B) nationality nexus
C) protective nexus
D) universality nexus
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46
The ________ consists of the criteria that allow a court to assume criminal jurisdiction when the defendant is a national of the forum state.
A) territoriality nexus
B) nationality nexus
C) protective nexus
D) universality nexus
A) territoriality nexus
B) nationality nexus
C) protective nexus
D) universality nexus
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47
The ________ doctrine states that courts should apply the law of the state where the rights of the parties legally became effective.
A) act of state
B) vested rights
C) most significant relationship
D) governmental interest
A) act of state
B) vested rights
C) most significant relationship
D) governmental interest
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48
The ________ consists of the criteria that allow a court to assume criminal jurisdiction in cases in which a national interest of the forum state was injured.
A) territoriality nexus
B) nationality nexus
C) protective nexus
D) universality nexus
A) territoriality nexus
B) nationality nexus
C) protective nexus
D) universality nexus
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49
The ability of a defendant to escape the jurisdiction of a court is known as ________.
A) jus commune
B) diplomacy
C) delict
D) immunity
A) jus commune
B) diplomacy
C) delict
D) immunity
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50
The ________ holds that municipal courts must decline to hear suits against foreign sovereigns.
A) governmental interest doctrine
B) doctrine of sovereign or state immunity
C) rule of absolute sovereign immunity
D) theory of restrictive sovereign immunity
A) governmental interest doctrine
B) doctrine of sovereign or state immunity
C) rule of absolute sovereign immunity
D) theory of restrictive sovereign immunity
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51
________ jurisdiction is the power of a court or tribunal to determine the rights of a party who appears before it.
A) Contentious
B) In personam
C) Advisory
D) In rem
A) Contentious
B) In personam
C) Advisory
D) In rem
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52
The ________ is a provision in a contract designating a particular court or tribunal to resolve any dispute that may arise concerning the contract.
A) forum selection clause
B) choice of law clause
C) supremacy clause
D) due process clause
A) forum selection clause
B) choice of law clause
C) supremacy clause
D) due process clause
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53
The ________ doctrine states that the act of a government within the boundaries of its own territory is not subject to judicial scrutiny in a foreign municipal court.
A) vested rights
B) most significant relationship
C) act of state
D) governmental interest
A) vested rights
B) most significant relationship
C) act of state
D) governmental interest
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54
The ________ holds that a foreign state is not immune when the cause of action for a suit is based on conduct unrelated to the state's governmental activities.
A) most significant relationship doctrine
B) doctrine of sovereign or state immunity
C) rule of absolute sovereign immunity
D) theory of restrictive sovereign immunity
A) most significant relationship doctrine
B) doctrine of sovereign or state immunity
C) rule of absolute sovereign immunity
D) theory of restrictive sovereign immunity
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55
Rules used by municipal courts to determine which state's law they should apply in hearing a civil dispute are called ________.
A) the rules of reciprocity
B) choice of law rules
C) the rules of absolute sovereign immunity
D) vested rights rules
A) the rules of reciprocity
B) choice of law rules
C) the rules of absolute sovereign immunity
D) vested rights rules
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56
________ is the power of a court to determine the ownership rights of persons as to property located within the forum state.
A) Advisory jurisdiction
B) Personal jurisdiction
C) In personam jurisdiction
D) In rem jurisdiction
A) Advisory jurisdiction
B) Personal jurisdiction
C) In personam jurisdiction
D) In rem jurisdiction
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57
Which of the following is true of a juridical person?
A) It is a human being.
B) It makes decisions through agents.
C) It is an illegal entity.
D) It can neither sue nor be sued.
A) It is a human being.
B) It makes decisions through agents.
C) It is an illegal entity.
D) It can neither sue nor be sued.
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58
The ________ is a provision in a contract designating the state whose law will govern disputes relating to the contract.
A) escape clause
B) omnibus clause
C) choice of law clause
D) forum selection clause
A) escape clause
B) omnibus clause
C) choice of law clause
D) forum selection clause
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59
________ is the requirement that a tribunal must have power over the parties before it may hear a dispute.
A) Advisory jurisdiction
B) Personal jurisdiction
C) In personam jurisdiction
D) In rem jurisdiction
A) Advisory jurisdiction
B) Personal jurisdiction
C) In personam jurisdiction
D) In rem jurisdiction
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60
________ is a suit in which the parties are not at odds but instead cooperate to obtain a judgment.
A) Collusive action
B) Arbitration
C) Delict
D) Anti-suit injunction
A) Collusive action
B) Arbitration
C) Delict
D) Anti-suit injunction
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61
What are the three dispute settlement organs carrying out the Dispute Settlement Understanding?
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62
Briefly describe the most significant relationship doctrine.
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63
Differentiate between good offices and conciliation.
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64
Differentiate between in personam jurisdiction and in rem jurisdiction.
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65
Write a short note on the International Criminal Court.
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66
The ________ doctrine holds that courts should apply the law of the state that has the most interest in determining the outcome of the dispute.
A) act of state
B) vested rights
C) most significant relationship
D) governmental interest
A) act of state
B) vested rights
C) most significant relationship
D) governmental interest
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67
Write a short note on the functions and composition of the International Court of Justice.
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68
The ________ doctrine states that courts should apply the law of the state that has the closest and most real connection with the dispute.
A) act of state
B) vested rights
C) most significant relationship
D) governmental interest
A) act of state
B) vested rights
C) most significant relationship
D) governmental interest
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69
In civil law countries, a(n) ________ is any private wrong or injury, or a minor public wrong or injury.
A) delict
B) certiorari
C) writ
D) estoppel
A) delict
B) certiorari
C) writ
D) estoppel
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70
The ________ is a court order directing a person not to proceed with litigation in a foreign court.
A) self-judging reservation
B) forum non conveniens
C) Corpus Juris Civilis
D) anti-suit injunction
A) self-judging reservation
B) forum non conveniens
C) Corpus Juris Civilis
D) anti-suit injunction
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71
Distinguish between a natural person and juridical person.
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72
The ________ states that a municipal court will decline to hear a dispute when it can be better or more conveniently heard in a foreign court.
A) forum non conveniens
B) anti-suit injunction
C) vested rights doctrine
D) choice of law clause
A) forum non conveniens
B) anti-suit injunction
C) vested rights doctrine
D) choice of law clause
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73
Explain the act of state doctrine.
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74
Which doctrine is used by common law courts to refuse jurisdiction? Explain.
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75
Explain self-judging reservations.
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