Deck 3: The Prenatal Period, Birth, and the Newborn

Question 1

Renee, pregnant for the first time, wonders how the developing organism receives nutrients and oxygen and rids itself of waste. Her obstetrician tells her that this exchange will occur through the ______.

A) placenta
B) amnion
C) umbilicus
D) mesoderm

Answer 1

A

Question 2

Cell differentiation occurs roughly how many hours after fertilization?

A) 6
B) 12
C) 24
D) 72

Answer 2

D

Question 3

About 30 hours after conception, the zygote splits and ______.

A) forms three embryos
B) reconnects into a larger cell
C) forms two identical cells
D) attaches to different parts of the uterus

Answer 3

C

Question 4

Approximately how long can sperm live if they complete their journey up the fallopian tube?

A) 6 hours
B) 10 hours
C) 3 days
D) 6 days

Question 5

Tasha has agreed to be a surrogate for Michael and Terrell who are ready to start their family. The fertility specialist tells Tasha that for optimal chances of fertilization, artificial insemination should occur within how many hours of ovulation?

A) 24
B) 30
C) 36
D) 40

Question 6

Sperm contain genetic material on how many chromosomes?

A) 8
B) 23
C) 46
D) 62

Question 7

A zygote is also called a ______.

A) neonate
B) fetus
C) developing embryo
D) fertilized ovum

Question 8

Ovulation occurs approximately every how many days?

A) 15
B) 22
C) 28
D) 34

Question 9

Cleavage refers to the process in which the ______.

A) zygote divides into 32 cells
B) hollow ball called a blastocyst forms
C) blastocyst begins to develop into part of the placenta
D) zygote splits down the middle, forming two identical cells

Question 10

What develops from a cluster of cells inside the blastocyst?

A) fetus
B) zygote
C) embryo
D) placenta

Question 11

The placenta allows the exchange of nutrients, oxygen, and wastes through the ______.

A) mesoderm
B) endoderm
C) umbilical cord
D) amniotic fluid

Question 12

Which structure is the largest cell in the human body?

A) zygote
B) ovum
C) sperm
D) embryo

Question 13

The most rapid stage of prenatal development occurs during the which period?

A) germinal
B) embryonic
C) fetal
D) neonatal

Question 14

The human zygote contains how many chromosomes?

A) 13
B) 23
C) 46
D) 64

Question 15

A neonate is also called a ______.

A) fetus
B) newborn baby
C) baby in utero
D) zygote

Question 16

The germinal period is also known as the period of the ______.

A) zygote
B) embryo
C) blastocyst
D) fetus

Question 17

The blastocyst is a ______.

A) flat organ that provides nutrient and waste exchange between the mother and fetus
B) a fluid-filled sphere around a cluster of cells from which the embryo will develop
C) neural tube that will develop into the central nervous system of the body
D) cellular disk that develops into layers that form all of the major organs of the body

Question 18

What occurs as soon as a single sperm penetrates the ovum?

A) sperm dies
B) embryo is formed
C) sperm's tail falls off
D) ovum collapses

Question 19

What happens during the embryonic period?

A) Fertilization of an ovum by a sperm occurs.
B) The blastocyst forms the placenta.
C) All organs and major body systems form.
D) Labor and delivery occur.

Question 20

What begins at about day 6 and is complete by about day 11?

A) embryonic period
B) implantation
C) fetal period
D) conception

Question 21

Diane has been a neonatal nurse for over 30 years. She is often asked questions about the age of viability. Her response is that the period begins at about how many weeks after conception?

A) 12
B) 18
C) 22
D) 27

Question 22

In the United States, about 1 in every how many babies is born premature?

A) 5
B) 8
C) 10
D) 20

Question 23

In a recent groundbreaking study, new mothers experienced reductions in the brain's gray matter which signified ______.

A) decreased ability to bond with their partners
B) increased ability to interpret their infants' mental states
C) interference with attachment to their infants
D) delay of cognitive functions with their partners

Question 24

The indifferent gonad develops into the ______.

A) cardiovascular system
B) ovaries and testes
C) central nervous system
D) male or female genitals

Question 25

What does the mesoderm become?

A) muscles, skeleton, digestive system, skin, sensory organs, and nervous system
B) digestive system, liver, lungs, pancreas, salivary glands, and respiratory system
C) skin, nails, hair, teeth, sensory organs, and nervous system
D) muscles, skeleton, circulatory system, and internal organs

Question 26

Which group of women experience low birthweight and mortality rates below national averages, despite inadequate health care, due to strong cultural support for maternity?

A) Greek
B) Latino
C) African American
D) Native American

Question 27

During the fifth week of development, what grows faster than other parts of the body?

A) head
B) torso
C) feet
D) skin

Question 28

Felipe and Karla are pregnant with their first baby. Felipe is anxious to have a boy and wants to know when he will be able to see the external genital organs on an ultrasound. Their obstetrician should tell them the genital organs will become apparent at about how many weeks?

A) 6
B) 8
C) 12
D) 16

Question 29

What is the most common reason women delay or avoid seeking prenatal care?

A) lack of health insurance
B) difficulty finding a doctor
C) lack of transportation
D) ambivalence about the pregnancy

Question 30

When serious defects occur during the embryonic period, they often result in ______.

A) the need for fetal surgery
B) spontaneous abortion
C) life-threatening illness in the mother
D) effects on the developing sex organs

Question 31

What percentage of all conceptions abort spontaneously, with most occurring before the pregnancy is detected?

A) 10%
B) 25%
C) 45%
D) 60%

Question 32

When does the neural tube form?

A) during the germinal period
B) about 3 weeks after conception
C) toward the end of the second trimester
D) at the beginning of the fetal period

Question 33

Which factor can be involved in the Latino paradox of healthy babies despite a tendency to avoid prenatal care?

A) nontraditional dietary practices
B) small social support network
C) lack of extended family involvement
D) strong cultural support for maternity

Question 34

What is a greasy material that protects the fetal skin from abrasions, chapping, and hardening?

A) vernix caseosa
B) lanugo
C) amniotic fluid
D) mesoderm

Question 35

What does the ectoderm become?

A) digestive system, liver, lungs, and pancreas
B) skin, nails, hair, teeth, sensory organs, and nervous system
C) muscles, skeleton, circulatory system, and internal organs
D) salivary glands, respiratory system, and muscles

Question 36

Eileen is pregnant with her first child. She wonders when she will be able to feel the fetus moving. Her obstetrician should tell the fetal movements can be felt in how many weeks?

A) 5-10
B) 8-13
C) 10-15
D) 17-20

Question 37

The neural tube develops into the ______.

A) brain and spinal cord
B) head and neck
C) heart and respiratory tract
D) head and torso

Question 38

Which term means a fine, down-like hair that covers the fetus's body?

A) vernix caseosa
B) lanugo
C) amniotic sac
D) mesoderm

Question 39

During the last 3 months of pregnancy, the fetus grows how many inches?

A) 4
B) 9
C) 7
D) 10

Question 40

During the last 3 months of pregnancy, the fetus gains over how many pounds?

A) 2
B) 4
C) 5
D) 7

Question 41

A statement that describes evidence on the effects of marijuana on prenatal development is that they ______.

A) have yet to be completely understood
B) show similar outcomes as cocaine and heroin use
C) conclusively show few long, negative consequences
D) show long-lasting effects of physical and cognitive development

Question 42

Which statement describes teratogens?

A) During the last few months of pregnancy, teratogens have minimal impact on the fetus.
B) Teratogens usually result in observable birth defects, such as facial or limb deformities.
C) The effects of exposure to teratogens are universal.
D) A variety of birth defects can result from the same teratogen.

Question 43

Bianca recently found out that she's pregnant. Prior to confirming the pregnancy, Bianca was a heavy smoker. However, she plans to cut back to no more than five cigarettes a day. The most likely outcome is that Bianca ______.

A) will have a healthy, full-term infant
B) is at risk for having a low-birth-weight baby
C) will likely have a baby with subtle physical defects
D) is likely consuming other teratogens that can harm her baby

Question 44

Research on the effects of caffeine use during pregnancy indicate that ______.

A) caffeine appears to be safe in a low amount
B) even one cup of caffeinated coffee can cause permanent damage
C) moderate doses of caffeine cause low birth weight and prematurity
D) caffeine supports cardiovascular development

Question 45

Each year, what percentage of infants are born without defects?

A) 50%
B) 75%
C) 88%
D) 97%

Question 46

Maecy was prenatally exposed to marijuana and cocaine. Both of her parents continue to struggle with substance abuse. At age 5, Maecy is at risk for which potentially harmful situation?

A) nonmaternal child care
B) overly controlling parenting
C) bullying from obesity
D) overly harsh discipline

Question 47

Which contextual factor often co-occur with prenatal substance abuse?

A) poverty
B) single parenthood
C) enablement by loved ones
D) controlling partner

Question 48

Karen would drink over six cups of coffee per day before she was pregnant. Her doctor recommended that she reduce her caffeine intake to one cup per day because of the risk of miscarriage. Which principle of teratology does this address?

A) individual differences in susceptibility to particular teratogens
B) amount of exposure to teratogens influence its effects
C) complicated effects of teratogens on development
D) sleeper effects of particular teratogens

Question 49

Which statement describes children with fetal alcohol syndrome?

A) generally recover with intense home-based early intervention
B) have a distinct pattern of facial characteristics and deficits in intellectual development
C) have a distinct pattern of facial characteristics but generally have average to above-average intelligence
D) score slightly lower on cognitive assessments than their unexposed age-mates

Question 50

One-month-old Nolan has difficulty regulating his arousal states, shows poor movement skills, poor reflexes, and greater excitability than most infants his age. Nolan was likely exposed to which substance during his mother's pregnancy?

A) aspirin
B) caffeine
C) marijuana
D) cocaine

Question 51

During the embryonic period, the effect teratogens can have ______.

A) is minimal
B) primarily affects limb growth
C) can be quite significant
D) primarily affects brain growth

Question 52

Why is it difficult to determine the effects of prenatal exposure to cocaine and heroin?

A) Most of these babies cannot be identified by health-care workers.
B) Many of these babies were exposed in the first trimester, making it difficult to determine its effects on older fetuses.
C) Most of these babies were exposed to other substances, making it difficult to isolate the effect of each factor.
D) Drug-abusing mothers often refuse to have their babies tested for illegal drugs.

Question 53

Sleeper effects of teratogens means effects that ______.

A) appear while the person is asleep
B) cause drowsiness at various times during the day
C) are difficult to determine
D) appear years later

Question 54

What percentage of the world's birth defects occur in developing countries?

A) 25%
B) 40%
C) 62%
D) 85%

Question 55

Use of which substance during pregnancy has been identified as the leading cause of developmental disabilities?

A) caffeine
B) tobacco
C) alcohol
D) aspirin

Question 56

Which statement describes fetal alcohol spectrum disorders?

A) affect between 10% and 15% of American school-age children
B) have been mostly eradicated due to public health campaigns
C) have a more negative impact on girls than boys
D) refer to the continuum of effects of exposure to drinking

Question 57

In the 1950s and early 1960s, many women were prescribed thalidomide to prevent morning sickness. This drug, often taken in early pregnancy, was associated with ______.

A) juvenile diabetes
B) high birth weight
C) arm and leg deformities
D) stomach cancer

Question 58

Which medication does the U.S. Federal Drug Administration require physician administered pregnancy tests prior to beginning treatment?

A) thalidomide
B) isotretinoin
C) diet pills
D) cold medicine

Question 59

The safest level of smoking during pregnancy is how many cigarettes per day?

A) 10
B) 8
C) 4
D) 0

Question 60

Prenatal exposure to marijuana is associated with ______.

A) motor disorders
B) personality disorders
C) cognitive effects
D) hormonal effects

Question 61

The second stage of childbirth involves ______.

A) labor
B) delivery
C) contractions decreasing in intensity
D) elimination of the placenta

Question 62

Which disorder occurs when the top part of the neural tube fails to close?

A) spina bifida
B) cerebral palsy
C) anencephaly
D) sciatica

Question 63

A statement that describes the majority of women over the age of 35 who are pregnant is that they ______.

A) give birth to healthy babies
B) experience pregnancy complications
C) have infants with developmental disabilities
D) fail to seek out prenatal health care

Question 64

Which disorder occurs when the lower part of the neural tube fails to close?

A) spina bifida
B) cerebral palsy
C) anencephaly
D) sciatica

Question 65

Most children who are malnourished before birth ______.

A) grow up in enriched environments
B) catch up in physical and cognitive development
C) die within the first 6 months of life
D) continue to receive too little food

Question 66

Emily has delivered her baby and is now expelling the placenta. What stage of labor is she in?

A) first
B) second
C) third
D) fourth

Question 67

Which woman is most vulnerable to pregnancy-related illnesses, such as hypertension and diabetes, as well as an increased risk for miscarriage or stillbirth?

A) Mai, who is 19
B) Jaycee, who is 30
C) Gia, who is 35
D) London, who is 41

Question 68

Caroline is pregnant with her first child. She often feels hungry but worries about excessive weight gain during pregnancy. Caroline's doctor will likely tell her that she should consume between how many calories per day?

A) 1,500-1,800
B) 2,000-2,300
C) 2,200-2,900
D) 3,000-3,500

Question 69

Laws concerning maternal substance abuse are intended to ______.

A) threaten women with involuntary treatment
B) promote health and protect fetuses
C) ensure protective custody during pregnancy
D) funnel women toward state-sponsored rehabilitation

Question 70

Olivia chooses to have an epidural during labor and delivery. Which effect is Olivia most likely to experience?

A) general relaxation
B) unconsciousness
C) longer delivery time
D) stronger uterine contractions

Question 71

The first stage of childbirth, labor, typically lasts how many hours for a woman having her first child?

A) 2-4
B) 6-10
C) 8-14
D) 12-20

Question 72

Benji was prenatally exposed to mercury, which means that he will likely ______.

A) experience withdrawal symptoms similar to those of cocaine-exposed babies
B) be at high risk for childhood cancers, such as leukemia
C) score lower on tests of cognitive ability and intelligence and have higher rates of illness
D) be at risk for severe mental health problems, which persist into adulthood

Question 73

Catherine's baby is crowning. What stage of labor is she in?

A) first
B) second
C) third
D) fourth

Question 74

Exposure to chronic and severe stress during pregnancy is linked to ______.

A) spinal cord defects
B) premature birth
C) childhood obesity
D) diabetes

Question 75

The American College of Obstetricians and Gynecologists and the American Medical Association argue that criminal sanctions for maternal drug use are ineffective because ______.

A) most prosecutors refuse to take these cases to court
B) many of the drugs quickly wash out of the mother's system, making it impossible to establish regular use
C) they increase the risks of harm by discouraging prenatal and postnatal care
D) only three states view prenatal substance abuse as an illegal act

Question 76

Which supplement helps protect against spina bifida and anencephaly?

A) vitamin C
B) vitamin D
C) calcium
D) folic acid

Question 77

What happens in the third stage of childbirth?

A) The placenta is expelled by uterine contractions.
B) Contractions push the baby from the mother's body.
C) Uterine contractions are spaced at ten to fifteen-minute intervals.
D) The fetus's head is positioned toward the opening of the cervix.

Question 78

The risk of Down syndrome increases sharply, especially after age ______.

A) 30
B) 33
C) 35
D) 40

Question 79

Baby Dante was born blind and deaf and has undergone four surgeries on his heart, with more surgeries planned in the future. Dante was likely exposed to what teratogen within the first 10 weeks of his mother's pregnancy?

A) mumps
B) malnutrition
C) rubella
D) gonorrhea

Question 80

Chelsea is experiencing contractions that are 10 minutes apart and the amniotic sac just ruptured. What stage of labor is she in?

A) first
B) second
C) third
D) fourth