Deck 27: The Blood
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Deck 27: The Blood
1
Parasitic infections can be controlled by which of these WBCs?
A) Eosinophils
B) Neutrophils
C) Basophils
D) Lymphocytes
E) Monocytes
A) Eosinophils
B) Neutrophils
C) Basophils
D) Lymphocytes
E) Monocytes
Eosinophils
2
You will recognize that a patient's infection has existed for about 2 weeks if the WBC differential shows ____.
A) elevated eosinophils
B) elevated monocytes
C) elevated neutrophils
D) decreased basophils
E) decreased neutrophils
A) elevated eosinophils
B) elevated monocytes
C) elevated neutrophils
D) decreased basophils
E) decreased neutrophils
elevated monocytes
3
Some WBCs leave the blood vessels by a mechanism called ____.
A) osmosis
B) diffusion
C) diapedesis
D) osmotic pressure
E) filtration
A) osmosis
B) diffusion
C) diapedesis
D) osmotic pressure
E) filtration
diapedesis
4
An embolus is dangerous because it can eventually become lodged in a small artery in the ____.
A) liver
B) lungs
C) intestines
D) stomach
E) kidneys
A) liver
B) lungs
C) intestines
D) stomach
E) kidneys
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5
When a part of a thrombus breaks off, it is referred to as ____.
A) an embolus
B) hemostasis
C) a clot
D) a thrombus
E) agglutination
A) an embolus
B) hemostasis
C) a clot
D) a thrombus
E) agglutination
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6
Plasma makes up what percentage of the blood?
A) 25%
B) 35%
C) 45%
D) 55%
E) 65%
A) 25%
B) 35%
C) 45%
D) 55%
E) 65%
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7
You would expect a patient with AIDS to have ____.
A) decreased granulocytes
B) decreased monocytes
C) increased erythrocytes
D) decreased lymphocytes
E) decreased erythrocytes
A) decreased granulocytes
B) decreased monocytes
C) increased erythrocytes
D) decreased lymphocytes
E) decreased erythrocytes
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8
A woman of childbearing age should know her Rh type because if she is Rh-negative and conceives a child that is Rh-positive, ____.
A) her first pregnancy could prove fatal to her
B) her first infant will have erythroblastosis fetalis
C) her second baby will have erythroblastosis fetalis
D) she will need blood transfusions after delivery
E) her second pregnancy could prove fatal to her
A) her first pregnancy could prove fatal to her
B) her first infant will have erythroblastosis fetalis
C) her second baby will have erythroblastosis fetalis
D) she will need blood transfusions after delivery
E) her second pregnancy could prove fatal to her
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9
People with which blood type are universal donors?
A) Rh-positive
B) Rh-negative
C) B
D) AB
E) O
A) Rh-positive
B) Rh-negative
C) B
D) AB
E) O
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10
People with which blood type can receive only one type of blood?
A) A
B) B
C) AB
D) O
E) Rh-positive
A) A
B) B
C) AB
D) O
E) Rh-positive
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11
Which of the following occurs when mismatched blood is given to a patient?
A) The patient will die.
B) The blood received will be destroyed.
C) The blood will turn yellow.
D) The blood will fail to circulate properly.
E) No major problem will result.
A) The patient will die.
B) The blood received will be destroyed.
C) The blood will turn yellow.
D) The blood will fail to circulate properly.
E) No major problem will result.
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12
Blood platelets are essential for ____.
A) carrying oxygen
B) maintaining blood volume
C) clotting
D) maintaining blood pressure
E) reducing inflammation
A) carrying oxygen
B) maintaining blood volume
C) clotting
D) maintaining blood pressure
E) reducing inflammation
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13
Globulins are plasma proteins that ____.
A) pull water into the blood
B) transport lipids and some vitamins
C) aid in blood clotting
D) maintain the blood pressure
E) help control bleeding
A) pull water into the blood
B) transport lipids and some vitamins
C) aid in blood clotting
D) maintain the blood pressure
E) help control bleeding
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14
Red blood cells live for approximately ____.
A) one month
B) two months
C) four months
D) six months
E) one year
A) one month
B) two months
C) four months
D) six months
E) one year
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15
Which of these WBCs release histamine and heparin and promote inflammation?
A) Eosinophils
B) Neutrophils
C) Basophils
D) Lymphocytes
E) Monocytes
A) Eosinophils
B) Neutrophils
C) Basophils
D) Lymphocytes
E) Monocytes
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16
Bacteria and viruses are destroyed by white blood cells called ____.
A) eosinophils
B) neutrophils
C) basophils
D) lymphocytes
E) erythrocytes
A) eosinophils
B) neutrophils
C) basophils
D) lymphocytes
E) erythrocytes
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17
Albumins are plasma proteins that ____.
A) pull water into the bloodstream
B) transport lipids
C) aid in blood clotting
D) transport some vitamins
E) remove wastes from blood
A) pull water into the bloodstream
B) transport lipids
C) aid in blood clotting
D) transport some vitamins
E) remove wastes from blood
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18
The percentage of red blood cells in a sample of blood is the ____.
A) WBC
B) RBC
C) hematocrit
D) differential
E) serum
A) WBC
B) RBC
C) hematocrit
D) differential
E) serum
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19
When blood coagulates on a vessel wall in the absence of a known injury, it is correctly referred to as ____.
A) an embolus
B) hemostasis
C) a clot
D) a thrombus
E) agglutination
A) an embolus
B) hemostasis
C) a clot
D) a thrombus
E) agglutination
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20
The production of RBCs in the blood is controlled by which hormone?
A) Thyroxin
B) Oxyhemoglobin
C) Cortisol
D) Erythropoietin
E) Oxytocin
A) Thyroxin
B) Oxyhemoglobin
C) Cortisol
D) Erythropoietin
E) Oxytocin
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21
Which of the following is a sign or symptom of sickle cell anemia?
A) Reddened skin
B) Headache
C) Nausea
D) Delayed growth
E) Enlarged spleen
A) Reddened skin
B) Headache
C) Nausea
D) Delayed growth
E) Enlarged spleen
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22
About how much blood does the average adult body contain?
A) 1 to 2 liters
B) 2 to 4 liters
C) 4 to 6 liters
D) 6 to 8 liters
E) 8 to 10 liters
A) 1 to 2 liters
B) 2 to 4 liters
C) 4 to 6 liters
D) 6 to 8 liters
E) 8 to 10 liters
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23
Which of the following populations is most affected by sickle cell anemia?
A) Caucasians
B) Asians
C) African Americans
D) Latino Americans
E) Native Americans
A) Caucasians
B) Asians
C) African Americans
D) Latino Americans
E) Native Americans
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24
If an embolus lodges in a coronary artery, it may cause ____.
A) a stroke
B) pulmonary embolism
C) high blood pressure
D) pericarditis
E) myocardial infarction
A) a stroke
B) pulmonary embolism
C) high blood pressure
D) pericarditis
E) myocardial infarction
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25
If a fetus develops erythroblastosis fetalis, what medical intervention is often required at birth?
A) Multiple blood transfusions
B) Supplemental oxygen
C) Intravenous antibiotics
D) UV light therapy
E) RhoGAM injections
A) Multiple blood transfusions
B) Supplemental oxygen
C) Intravenous antibiotics
D) UV light therapy
E) RhoGAM injections
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26
The formation of a blood clot is called ____.
A) agglutination
B) hemostasis
C) coagulation
D) diapedesis
E) hemolysis
A) agglutination
B) hemostasis
C) coagulation
D) diapedesis
E) hemolysis
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27
Beth is a 16-year-old patient whose mother has brought her to the office because Beth is always complaining of being tired. Beth tells you that she has frequent headaches, and her feet are always cold. Her blood pressure is 100/64, and her heart rate is 84. When you ask if her menstrual periods are normal, she says she bleeds heavily for 7 or 8 days each month. Which of the following conditions might you suspect?
A) Polycythemia vera
B) Iron-deficient anemia
C) Thalassemia
D) Leukemia
E) Sickle-cell anemia
A) Polycythemia vera
B) Iron-deficient anemia
C) Thalassemia
D) Leukemia
E) Sickle-cell anemia
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28
Blood clots are formed from ____, which sticks to the damaged area of the blood vessel, creating a mesh that entraps blood cells and platelets.
A) fibrin
B) albumin
C) globulin
D) serum
E) urea
A) fibrin
B) albumin
C) globulin
D) serum
E) urea
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29
Which of the following is considered a normal WBC count?
A) 2,600 cells
B) 3,800 cells
C) 6,700 cells
D) 11,200 cells
E) 12,300 cells
A) 2,600 cells
B) 3,800 cells
C) 6,700 cells
D) 11,200 cells
E) 12,300 cells
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30
The clumping of red blood cells following a blood transfusion is ________.
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31
The most common cause of anemia is ____.
A) vitamin deficiency
B) kidney failure
C) AIDS
D) iron deficiency
E) chronic illness
A) vitamin deficiency
B) kidney failure
C) AIDS
D) iron deficiency
E) chronic illness
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32
Tina is a 47-year-old patient who has recently begun experiencing dizziness and shortness of breath. She gets frequent headaches. After the initial exam, the physician orders several blood tests. The results of the tests indicate that Tina has polycythemia vera. Which of the following treatment courses would you expect the physician to pursue with Tina?
A) Blood transfusions
B) Bone marrow transplants
C) Radiation therapy
D) Stem cell transplant
E) Therapeutic phlebotomy
A) Blood transfusions
B) Bone marrow transplants
C) Radiation therapy
D) Stem cell transplant
E) Therapeutic phlebotomy
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33
Fibrinogen is a plasma protein that ____.
A) pulls water into the blood
B) transports lipids
C) aids in blood clotting
D) transports some vitamins
E) maintains the blood pressure
A) pulls water into the blood
B) transports lipids
C) aids in blood clotting
D) transports some vitamins
E) maintains the blood pressure
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34
Harold has A-positive blood. He is receiving a series of blood transfusions to treat anemia caused by AIDS. The local blood bank is running low on type A blood. If necessary, which other blood type can Harold receive?
A) A-negative
B) B-positive
C) AB-positive
D) AB-negative
E) O-positive
A) A-negative
B) B-positive
C) AB-positive
D) AB-negative
E) O-positive
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35
Which of the following individuals is most at risk for erythroblastosis fetalis?
A) An Rh-positive mother
B) An Rh-negative mother
C) An Rh-negative father
D) The first Rh-negative fetus born to an Rh-positive mother
E) The second Rh-positive fetus born to an Rh-negative mother
A) An Rh-positive mother
B) An Rh-negative mother
C) An Rh-negative father
D) The first Rh-negative fetus born to an Rh-positive mother
E) The second Rh-positive fetus born to an Rh-negative mother
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36
Jose is an 11-year-old child who was involved in a serious automobile accident. He will live, but he has lost a lot of blood. The emergency physician tells his mother that he will need a blood transfusion. The mother becomes frantic, saying that Jose has a "rare" blood type and she doesn't know if they will be able to match it. When you ask what type of blood he has, she answers "He has type AB blood." What is your best response to Jose's mother?
A) "That is a rare type, but we can probably match it."
B) "Most people with type AB blood can receive blood from any blood type."
C) "If necessary, we will have blood brought in from another hospital."
D) "Type AB is the most common type of blood."
E) "People with type AB blood are called universal donors."
A) "That is a rare type, but we can probably match it."
B) "Most people with type AB blood can receive blood from any blood type."
C) "If necessary, we will have blood brought in from another hospital."
D) "Type AB is the most common type of blood."
E) "People with type AB blood are called universal donors."
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37
Which of the following is not considered a formed element of human blood?
A) Red blood cell
B) Monocyte
C) Platelet
D) Serum
E) Eosinophil
A) Red blood cell
B) Monocyte
C) Platelet
D) Serum
E) Eosinophil
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38
Which of the following patients is most likely to have thalassemia?
A) A patient of Mediterranean descent
B) A native American
C) A Latino American
D) A Caucasian male
E) A Caucasian female
A) A patient of Mediterranean descent
B) A native American
C) A Latino American
D) A Caucasian male
E) A Caucasian female
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39
When a blood vessel is broken, what is the body's first response?
A) Platelet plug formation
B) Vasodilation
C) Smooth muscle contraction
D) Blood coagulation
E) Blood clot formation
A) Platelet plug formation
B) Vasodilation
C) Smooth muscle contraction
D) Blood coagulation
E) Blood clot formation
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40
The most likely result of agglutination following a blood transfusion is ____.
A) cerebrovascular accident
B) severe anemia
C) pulmonary embolism
D) myocardial infarction
E) polycythemia vera
A) cerebrovascular accident
B) severe anemia
C) pulmonary embolism
D) myocardial infarction
E) polycythemia vera
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41
The danger of a thrombus is that a portion of it can break off and start moving through the bloodstream. The moving portion of the thrombus is called a(n) ________.
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42
White blood cells (WBCs), which are also called leukocytes, are divided into two categories: ________ and agranulocytes.
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43
Granulocytes have granules in their cytoplasm and include neutrophils, ________, and basophils.
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44
The different types of lipoproteins are ________, very low-density lipoproteins (VLDL), low-density lipoproteins (LDL), and high-density lipoproteins (HDL).
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45
Monocytes and lymphocytes do not have granules in their cytoplasm and are two types of ________.
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46
The white blood cells that provide immunity for the body are the ________.
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47
When there are not enough red blood cells or hemoglobin in the blood to carry an adequate amount of oxygen to the body's cells, the person has the condition called ________.
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48
If a patient has a white blood cell count above 10,000 cells per cubic millimeter of blood, the patient has ________ and probably has a bacterial infection.
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49
White blood cells (WBCs) are also called ________.
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50
When a red blood cell is destroyed, a pigment called ________ is released from the cell.
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51
A condition in which the bone marrow produces a large number of abnormal white blood cells is ________.
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52
The white blood cells called ________ release substances such as histamine, which promotes inflammation, and heparin, which is an anticoagulant.
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53
A white blood cell count that is below normal is called ________.
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54
When a blood clot replaces the platelet plug at the site of a blood vessel injury, the plasma protein, fibrinogen is converted to fibrin to form the blood clot. This process is called blood ________.
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55
Because lipids are not water-soluble and because plasma is mostly water, lipids must combine with molecules called ________ to be transported.
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56
Biliverdin is converted to ________, which the liver uses to make bile needed for the digestion of fats.
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57
Lipids and some fat-soluble vitamins are transported by the plasma proteins called ________.
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58
Hemoglobin that is not carrying oxygen is called deoxyhemoglobin, and because it may now carry carbon dioxide, it is also called ________.
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59
In ________ anemia, red blood cells are destroyed faster than they can be made.
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60
Most blood cells are produced in red bone marrow by cells called ________.
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61
The percentage of red blood cells in a sample of blood is called the ________.
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62
The inability to absorb vitamin B12 is called ________ anemia.
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63
The ________ antigen is a protein first discovered on red blood cells of the Rhesus monkey. It is important for women to know if they are positive or negative for this protein.
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64
Bloodletting for the purpose of reducing the thickness of a person's blood is known as ________ phlebotomy.
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65
The second Rh-positive child born to an Rh-negative mother may develop a condition called ________ if the mother is not given the drug RhoGAM to prevent her from making antibodies against the Rh antigen.
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66
The fluid that is left when all clotting factors are removed from plasma is called ________.
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67
Another name for red blood cells (RBCs) is ________.
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68
Erythroblastosis fetalis is prevented by giving an Rh-negative woman the drug ________, which prevents an Rh-negative mother from making antibodies against the Rh antigen.
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69
An inherited form of anemia in which a defective hemoglobin chain causes microcytic, hypochromic, short-lived red blood cells is ________.
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70
Platelets come from cells called ________ in red bone marrow.
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71
Approximately 55% of the blood in a healthy person consists of ________.
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72
The three major types of plasma proteins are ________, globulins, and fibrinogen.
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73
Hemoglobin that is carrying oxygen is called ________ and is bright red in color.
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74
Platelets are also called ________ and are important in the clotting process of blood.
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