Deck 18: Diagnostic Coding

Question 1

Jenni is a healthy 24-year-old patient who is in the office today for routine obstetric care. The ICD-9 code for routine obstetric care will be found in which of the following series of codes?

A) 760-779
B) 800-999
C) 580-629
D) V01-V83
E) 320-389

Answer 1

V01-V83

Question 2

ICD codes are updated ____.

A) weekly
B) monthly
C) yearly
D) every two years
E) every five years

Answer 2

yearly

Question 3

When you encounter the word see in the Alphabetic Index, you know that ____.

A) the term you found is the correct one for the patient's condition
B) you must look in another category to find the correct term
C) there is more information about the patient's condition somewhere else
D) you need to turn to another research source
E) the term is considered "not otherwise specified"

Answer 3

you must look in another category to find the correct term

Question 4

The use of ICD codes is mandated by ____.

A) HIPAA
B) HMOs
C) CDC
D) NIH
E) AMA

Question 5

The Tabular List is mainly organized by ____.

A) the patient's condition
B) the codes found in the Alphabetic Index
C) the patient's symptoms
D) the body system involved
E) the severity of the disease or condition

Question 6

Eight-year-old Geri climbed the oak tree in her back yard to rescue her cat, who had climbed the tree but could not get back down. Unfortunately, Geri slipped and fell out of the tree and hurt her arm. The lower arm is bent at an odd angle and the bone is visible. The physician diagnoses an open fracture and orders X-rays of the lower arm. Where will you locate the ICD-10 code for this?

A) C00-D49
B) E00-E89
C) H60-H95
D) M00-M99
E) S00-T88

Question 7

Which of the following ICD-9-CM conventions is used around synonyms, alternative wordings, or explanations?

A) ( )
B) [ ]
C) : :
D) { }
E) ; ;

Question 8

Jeremy is a 44-year-old patient who has been diagnosed with mitral regurgitation. He has been having some shortness of breath lately, so today he is having an echocardiogram to evaluate whether the condition has worsened. The ICD-9 code for Jeremy's procedure today is found in which of the following series of codes?

A) 390-459
B) 460-519
C) 760-779
D) 800-999
E) E800-E999

Question 9

Kevin is a 63-year-old patient who was diagnosed with congestive heart failure two years ago. He is having an echocardiogram today so his physician can monitor the progression of the disease. The ICD-10 code for Kevin's procedure today is found in which of the following series of codes?

A) A00-B99
B) E00-E89
C) G00-G99
D) H00-H59
E) I00-I99

Question 10

In both ICD-9 and ICD-10, the convention code first underlying disease means ____.

A) the code may not be used as the first code
B) the disease is not otherwise specified.
C) alternative wording must be used
D) two codes are required separately to code the diagnosis
E) ICD does not provide a code specific enough for the patient's condition

Question 11

The Alphabetic Index is organized by ____.

A) the part of the body involved
B) the symptoms displayed by the patient
C) codes found in the Tabular List
D) diagnosis or condition description
E) the severity of the disease or condition

Question 12

Which of the following ICD-9-CM conventions is used in the Tabular List after an incomplete term that needs one of the terms that follow to make it assignable to a given category?

A) Includes
B) Excludes
C) }
D) :
E) NOS

Question 13

What does the ICD convention NEC indicate?

A) May not be used as the first code
B) Not otherwise specified
C) Not elsewhere classified
D) Alternative wording
E) Two codes must be used together

Question 14

Ellie was playing softball with some friends and was accidentally hit on the nose with a baseball bat when a player on the other team swung at a wild pitch. After examining her nose, the physician tells her that her nose is broken and ordered a complete radiologic examination of the nasal bones. Where will you locate the ICD-9 code for this?

A) 390-459
B) 460-519
C) 580-629
D) 760-779
E) 800-999

Question 15

A patient's diagnosis as established by the physician ____.

A) includes all of the conditions the patient is treated for
B) describes the primary condition for which the patient is receiving treatment
C) is the chief complaint of the patient
D) must comply with WHO terminology guidelines to be accepted by third-party payers
E) can be coded directly from the Alphabetic Index

Question 16

Which convention is used in ICD-9 and ICD-10 to set off nonessential or supplementary terms that do not affect the code?

A) [ ]
B) ( )
C) { }
D) : :
E) ; ;

Question 17

Mary was excited at her last visit to find that she is pregnant. She came in for a prenatal checkup today because she wants to take excellent care of herself and her baby. Everything seems fine, and the physician told her to keep up the good work. The ICD-10 code for routine obstetric care will be found in which of the following series of codes?

A) C00-D49
B) H00-H59
C) O00-O9A
D) P00-P96
E) Z00-Z99

Question 18

Which convention is used in ICD-9 and ICD-10 to indicate that an entry is not classified as part of the preceding code?

A) NOS
B) Includes
C) Excludes
D) NEC
E) Code Also

Question 19

Which of the following conventions is used in ICD-9 and ICD-10 to indicate that the entries following it further define the content of a preceding entry?

A) NOS
B) Includes
C) Excludes
D) NEC
E) Code Also

Question 20

Which of the following ICD-9 and ICD-10 conventions encloses a series of terms, each of which is modified by the statement that appears to the right of it?

A) ( ] )
B) ( ) )
C) ( } )
D) ( : )
E) ( ( )

Question 21

Diagnosis-related groups, or DRGs, are based on all of the following except ____.

A) significant procedures performed
B) principal diagnosis
C) secondary diagnoses
D) length of hospital stay
E) age, sex, and discharge status of the patient

Question 22

How many E codes can be used with a single diagnosis code?

A) 1
B) 2
C) 5
D) 7
E) As many as necessary

Question 23

Which of these is used only in the hospital inpatient setting?

A) CPT codes
B) HCPCS codes
C) ICD-10-CM
D) ICD-10-PCS
E) ICD-9-CM Volume I

Question 24

To find the ICD-9 code for anesthesia for surgery to correct a benign prostatic hypertrophy (BPH), you will look in which series?

A) 580-629
B) 630-679
C) 760-799
D) 800-999
E) V01-V83

Question 25

Phillip is in the office today for a pre-employment physical that includes a drug test. In which ICD-9 series will you locate the code for this?

A) 390-459
B) 460-519
C) 760-779
D) 800-999
E) V01-V83

Question 26

Which of the following statements is not true about E codes?

A) They are generally used only for the initial treatment of an acute illness or injury.
B) All accidents involving motor vehicles require an E code describing the vehicle.
C) E codes are always the primary or first diagnosis listed.
D) E codes associated with poisonings can be found in the Table of Drugs and Chemicals.
E) Burns require an E code to describe how the burn occurred.

Question 27

An easy way to remember when an E code is required is ____.

A) by noting "see" by a diagnosis code
B) if the diagnosis makes you ask "How did that happen?"
C) if the diagnosis makes you ask "Why did that occur?"
D) by checking for any modifiers to the diagnosis
E) when the patient does not have an illness or injury

Question 28

Teresa is being seen today in the urgent care center after spilling a pot of boiling water over her stomach and legs, which resulted in second-degree burns. In which ICD-10 series will you locate the code for her treatment?

A) C00-D49
B) G00-G99
C) L00-L99
D) S00-T88
E) V01-Y99

Question 29

In ICD-9, the common term for the Supplementary Classification of Factors Influencing Health Status and Contact with Health Services is ____.

A) Dx codes
B) V codes
C) E codes
D) E/M codes
E) DRG codes

Question 30

A condition that is long-standing is considered a(n) ____.

A) chronic condition
B) subchronic condition
C) acute condition
D) intermittent condition
E) erratic condition

Question 31

The purpose of the appendixes of the ICD-9 manual is to ____.

A) provide helpful research and technical information
B) specify the V codes and E codes
C) describe congenital defects in more detail
D) supplement listings in the Alphabetic Index
E) provide helpful hints for code linkage

Question 32

A code in which two diagnoses are included in one code is known as a(n) ____.

A) preliminary code
B) mixed code
C) multiple code
D) dual code
E) combination code

Question 33

Because the codes found in Appendix A of ICD-9 always begin with the same letter, they are often referred to as ____.

A) V codes
B) E codes
C) M codes
D) P codes
E) G codes

Question 34

Denise is being seen today because of blurry vision and pain in both eyes. The physician documents that diabetes has damaged the blood vessels in Denise's eyes, resulting in diabetic retinopathy. How will this diagnosis be coded?

A) The retinopathy is coded first, followed by the diabetes.
B) The diabetes is coded first, followed by the retinopathy.
C) Only the diabetes should be coded.
D) Only the retinopathy should be coded.
E) The symptoms of blurry vision and pain should be coded.

Question 35

Barry is a healthy 32-year-old established patient who has come in for his annual physical exam. When asked if he has any current problems or complaints, he says no. The ICD-9 code for his visit will be found in which of the following code ranges?

A) 290-319
B) 460-519
C) 760-779
D) V01-V83
E) E800-E999

Question 36

A condition that is of sudden onset or that suddenly becomes much worse is considered a(n) ____.

A) chronic condition
B) subchronic condition
C) acute condition
D) intermittent condition
E) erratic condition

Question 37

To find the ICD-10 code for anesthesia for surgery to correct a benign prostatic hypertrophy (BPH), you will look in which series?

A) A00-B99
B) E00-E89
C) H00-H59
D) N00-N99
E) Q00-Q99

Question 38

In ICD-9, with which of the following code ranges can E codes be used?

A) 001-V84.4
B) 001-289
C) 280-459
D) 390-459
E) 710-V84.4

Question 39

Mrs. Evans has brought her child in for surgery to correct a cleft palate. Which code range in ICD-10 applies to this procedure?

A) A00-B99
B) D50-D89
C) Q00-Q99
D) V01-Y99
E) Z00-Z99

Question 40

The "extra" codes in ICD-9 that tell the third-party payer how an illness or injury came about are known as ____.

A) Dx codes
B) V codes
C) E codes
D) E/M codes
E) DRG codes

Question 41

Which of the following statements is not correct about coding HIV positivity?

A) Requesting a confirmatory serology or culture for HIV is sufficient to code HIV positivity.
B) When HIV symptoms are not present and serology is inconclusive, code R75 is assigned.
C) Patients who are HIV positive but are currently asymptomatic are assigned code Z21.
D) The provider must state "known HIV" or "positive HIV" in order to code HIV positivity.
E) Patients who have developed an HIV-related illness should be assigned code B20.

Question 42

In ICD-9, ________ codes identify encounters for reasons other than illness or injury and can be used either as a primary code for an encounter or as an additional code.

Question 43

The primary condition for which a patient is receiving care is communicated to the third-party payer through a(n) ________ code on the healthcare claim.

Question 44

Which appendix in ICD-9 contains a list of the 3-digit categories for occupational hazards divided into subcategories?

A) Appendix A
B) Appendix B
C) Appendix C
D) Appendix D
E) Appendix E

Question 45

About how many codes does the ICD-10-CM contain?

A) 14,200
B) 38,700
C) 56,900
D) 62,400
E) 68,000

Question 46

Which of the following is the first step for coding in ICD-10?

A) Assign the appropriate code using the highest degree of specificity
B) Read and follow the terms in the parentheses and brackets
C) Follow instructional terms to direct you to the appropriate code
D) Locate the term in the Alphabetic Index
E) Refer to the notes under the appropriate heading

Question 47

The ________ Index is organized by the condition, not by the body part in which it occurs.

Question 48

Which appendix in ICD-9 contains the Classification of Drugs by the American Hospital Formulary Service Number and the ICD-9 Equivalent?

A) Appendix A
B) Appendix B
C) Appendix C
D) Appendix D
E) Appendix E

Question 49

What character is used as a placeholder for a nonexistent digit in ICD-10 when a 6th or 7th digit is required for code specificity?

A) 0
B) 9
C) x
D) y
E) z

Question 50

In ICD-9, three-digit categories known as ________ are used for diseases, injuries, and symptoms.

Question 51

Which appendix in ICD-9 contained the Mental Disorders glossary until it was deleted in 2004?

A) Appendix A
B) Appendix B
C) Appendix C
D) Appendix D
E) Appendix E

Question 52

The diseases and injuries in the ________ List of the ICD are organized into chapters according to the source or body system.

Question 53

See is an example of a(n) ________. If it appears after a main term, you must look up the term that follows the word see in the index.

Question 54

Which ICD-10 convention describes a condition that is not part of the condition represented by the code, but if the patient actually has both conditions, both may be coded?

A) Includes
B) Excludes1
C) Excludes2
D) Code Also
E) See Also

Question 55

How many characters are present in ICD-10 codes?

A) 1 to 3
B) 3 to 5
C) 3 to 7
D) 5 to 7
E) 7 to 10

Question 56

In ICD-10, which chapter contains codes to identify who, what, when, and where an accident or injury occurred?

A) Chapter 17: Congenital malformations, deformations, and chromosomal abnormalities
B) Chapter 18: Symptoms, signs, and abnormal clinical and laboratory findings; not elsewhere classified
C) Chapter 19: Injury, poisoning, and certain other consequences of external causes
D) Chapter 20: External causes of morbidity
E) Chapter 21: Factors influencing health status and contact with health services

Question 57

________ codes are used for injuries resulting from various environmental events.

Question 58

The list of abbreviations, punctuation, symbols, typefaces, and instructional notes that appears at the beginning of the ICD and provides guidelines for using the code set are called ________.

Question 59

To begin the process of assigning a proper code for a neoplasm in ICD-10, you first consult ____.

A) Appendix C of ICD-10-CM
B) the Tabular List
C) the Table of Neoplasms
D) Chapter 2, "Neoplasms"
E) Chapter 20, "External causes of morbidity"

Question 60

In ICD-10, which has combination codes that include the type of diabetes, what should you code if the type of diabetes is not documented in the medical record and the physician cannot be queried?

A) Use the ICD-9 code for diabetes instead
B) Use the code for type 1 diabetes mellitus
C) Use the code for type 2 diabetes mellitus
D) Use a code that specifies insulin use
E) Use add-on codes to show unspecified diabetes

Question 61

ICD stands for "International ________ of Diseases."

Question 62

Unlike outpatient coding, which uses the patient's primary diagnosis, hospital coding uses the _____ diagnosis, which is the condition that was chiefly responsible for the patient's admission to the hospital.

Question 63

One of the original reasons for the ICD-9-CM was to classify patient morbidity (sickness) and ________ (death) statistics.

Question 64

Patients' descriptions of their medical problems is called their ________ complaint and are documented at each visit.

Question 65

ICD-10 contains many more ________ codes than ICD-9, which cuts down the need to use multiple codes for a single diagnosis.

Question 66

In ICD-10, each category in the Tabular List has 3 characters, and each ________ has 4 or 5 characters, with the final code consisting of up to 7 characters.

Question 67

When a physician does not document an exact diagnosis, outpatient coding rules require that unclear diagnosis be coded using the ________ that lead the patient to seek care, until an absolute diagnosis is made.

Question 68

After listening to the patient's statements, performing an examination, and evaluating the information received from these sources, the physician establishes a(n) ________ that describes the primary condition for which a patient is receiving care.

Question 69

Additional terms that are needed to select correct codes are indented after the main term in the Alphabetic Index. These terms are called ________.

Question 70

When hypertension is caused by an underlying condition, two codes are required. The first identifies the underlying ________, or cause, and the second codes the hypertension.

Question 71

Payment for inpatient claims are based on a system known as ________.

Question 72

A(n) ________ diagnosis is used in addition to the primary diagnosis to describe another condition that is also affecting the patient at the time of the visit.

Question 73

The ICD-9-CM was originally created for the classification of patient ________ (sickness) and mortality statistics and to provide access for medical research, education, and administration.

Question 74

To assign a proper code for a neoplasm in ICD-10, the documentation must state whether it is benign, ________, in situ, or of uncertain behavior.

Question 75

All ICD-10 codes begin with a(n) ________ character.