Deck 22: Therapeutic Agents for the Gastrointestinal System

Question 1

Risk factors for GERD include:

A) Obesity
B) Smoking
C) Pregnancy
D) All of the above

Answer 1

All of the above

Question 2

The gallbladder releases:

A) Insulin to reduce glucose levels
B) Bile to aid in the dispersion of fats
C) Glycogen to increase glucose levels
D) None of the above

Answer 2

Bile to aid in the dispersion of fats

Question 3

The acidity of the stomach is an important consideration in medication administration because:

A) Acid deactivates some medications
B) Acid-reducing medications may affect the absorption of other medications
C) Some medications require an acidic environment for proper absorption
D) All of the above are important considerations

Answer 3

All of the above are important considerations

Question 4

Proteins in food are broken down in the GI system to:

A) Glucose
B) Fatty acids
C) Amino acids
D) Nucleic acids

Question 5

Peristalsis occurs in the:

A) Esophagus alone
B) Esophagus and stomach
C) Stomach and small intestines
D) Esophagus, stomach, and intestines

Question 6

Helicobacter pylori is usually treated with:

A) Antibiotics and PPIs
B) Antibiotics alone
C) Antacids
D) PPIs alone

Question 7

Agents that decrease the production of acid in the stomach include:

A) PPIs
B) Antacids
C) Histamine₂ (H₂)-antagonists
D) A and C

Question 8

Use of which of the following medications can contribute to the development of ulcers?

A) NSAIDs
B) Alcohol
C) Diuretics
D) Laxatives

Question 9

Conditions of the GI that can be attributed to or exacerbated by hyperacidity include all of the following except:

A) Peptic ulcers
B) Duodenal ulcers
C) GI reflux disease (GERD)
D) Constipation

Question 10

OTC antiemetics that do not affect the chemoreceptor trigger zone are commonly used for:

A) Chemotherapy related nausea and vomiting
B) Postoperative nausea and vomiting
C) Motion sickness
D) All of the above

Question 11

Which of the following side effects of Lotronex warrants a boxed warning?

A) Abdominal pain
B) Drowsiness
C) Headache
D) Ischemic colitis

Question 12

Helicobacter pylori is one cause of:

A) Constipation
B) Peptic ulcers
C) Crohn disease
D) Flatulence

Question 13

Bile is produced by the:

A) Liver
B) Pancreas
C) Small intestine
D) Appendix

Question 14

All of the following are functions of the GI system except:

A) Absorption
B) Digestion
C) Distribution
D) Excretion

Question 15

Lotronex is only indicated for use in:

A) Women
B) Long-term diarrhea as a result of irritable bowel syndrome (IBS)
C) Short-term relief of acute diarrhea
D) A and B

Question 16

Auxiliary organs of the digestive system include all except the:

A) Pancreas
B) Liver
C) Gallbladder
D) Appendix

Question 17

One difference between Crohn disease and ulcerative colitis is:

A) Crohn disease involves inflammation
B) Crohn disease can affect the entire GI system
C) Symptoms of Crohn disease include cramping and diarrhea
D) Crohn disease may require dietary changes

Question 18

Which of the following is an antidiarrheal medication?

A) Cephulac
B) Lomotil
C) Antivert
D) Colace

Question 19

The organs most involved in the absorption of nutrients are:

A) Mouth and salivary glands
B) Stomach and small intestines
C) Large intestine
D) Anus

Question 20

Which of the following is considered to be a type of inflammatory bowel disease (IBD)?

A) GERD
B) Ulcerative colitis
C) Peptic ulcers
D) Constipation

Question 21

Which of the following medications is a Schedule V (C-V) controlled substance medication?

A) Ranitidine (Zantac)
B) Pantoprazole (Protonix)
C) Diphenoxylate/atropine (Lomotil)
D) Dicyclomine (Bentyl)

Question 22

Which of the following medications is classified as an opioid antagonist and is indicated for constipation?

A) Docusate/senna
B) Lubiprostone
C) Movantik
D) Polyethylene glycol

Question 23

What is the primary danger of untreated diarrhea?

A) Feeling uncomfortable
B) Developing an infection
C) Dehydration from fluid and electrolyte loss
D) Giving it to someone else

Question 24

The generic name for Pepcid is:

A) Cimetidine
B) Famotidine
C) Nizatidine
D) Ranitidine

Question 25

The chemoreceptor trigger zone (CTZ) can be activated by:

A) Smell, pain, and motion
B) Emotions
C) Chemotherapeutic agents
D) All of the above

Question 26

Calcium carbonate is the active ingredient in:

A) Gaviscon
B) Milk of Magnesia
C) Mylanta
D) Tums

Question 27

Lansoprazole is generic for:

A) Nexium
B) Pepcid
C) Prevacid
D) Zantac

Question 28

An adverse effect of __________ may darken the stools or discolor the tongue.

A) atropine/diphenoxylate
B) bismuth subsalicylate
C) loperamide
D) psyllium

Question 29

Which of the following laxatives may cause an individual to experience tolerance or dependency?

A) Docusate
B) Loperamide
C) Psyllium
D) Senna

Question 30

Which of the following agents indicated for constipation may cause a patient to experience flatulence?

A) Bisacodyl
B) Docusate
C) Methylcellulose
D) Senna

Question 31

Bulk-forming agents are used for:

A) Constipation
B) Nausea
C) Diarrhea
D) A and C

Question 32

Because metoclopramide (Reglan) for nausea and vomiting antagonizes dopamine receptors, it:

A) Cannot be used in patients with Parkinson disease
B) Carries a risk of tardive dyskinesias
C) Has few side effects
D) A and B

Question 33

Which of the following medications indicated for GERD is a combination product?

A) Aciphex
B) Colazal
C) Dexilant
D) Zegerid

Question 34

A patient is being treated for a Helicobacter pylori infection. How should they be treated IF they are not allergic to penicillin and have not previously received a macrolide antibiotic?

A) The patient should receive a 10- to 14-day course consisting of a standard-dose PPI twice daily, clarithromycin 500 mg twice daily and metronidazole 500 mg twice daily.
B) The patient should receive a 10- to 14-day course consisting of a standard-dose PPI twice daily, clarithromycin 500 mg twice daily and amoxicillin 1000 mg twice daily.
C) The patient should receive a 10- to 14-day course consisting of a standard-dose PPI twice daily, bismuth subsalicylate 525 mg four times daily, metronidazole 250 mg four times daily and tetracycline 500 mg four times daily.
D) The patient should receive a 10- to 14-day course consisting of a standard-dose PPI twice daily, bismuth subsalicylate 420 mg four times daily, metronidazole 375 mg four times daily and tetracycline 375 mg four times daily.

Question 35

-prazole is the common generic ending for:

A) H₂-antagonists
B) PPIs
C) 5-aminosalicylates
D) None of the above

Question 36

A patient receiving a prescription of ________ is at a higher risk of experiencing a fracture?

A) cimetidine
B) esomeprazole
C) infliximab
D) mesalamine

Question 37

Adalimumab (Humira) for the treatment of Crohn disease is a(an):

A) Tumor necrosis factor-alpha (TNF- $\alpha$ ) inhibitor
B) Alpha-4 integrin antagonist
C) 5-Aminosalicylate
D) Antispasmodic medication

Question 38

Which type of laxative can lead to physical dependence?

A) Stool softeners
B) Bulk forming
C) Hyperosmotic
D) Stimulant

Question 39

Which ingredient helps control flatulence?

A) Aluminum hydroxide
B) Bismuth subsalicylate
C) Psyllium
D) Simethicone