Deck 23: Therapeutic Agents for the Renal System
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Deck 23: Therapeutic Agents for the Renal System
1
Patients with kidney disease should limit their dietary intake of:
A) Phosphate
B) Dairy products
C) Sodium
D) All of the above
A) Phosphate
B) Dairy products
C) Sodium
D) All of the above
All of the above
2
What is a possible side effect of all diuretics?
A) Hypokalemia
B) Hypotension
C) Photosensitivity
D) Nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea
A) Hypokalemia
B) Hypotension
C) Photosensitivity
D) Nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea
Hypotension
3
Dialysis is used to aid ____________ by the kidneys.
A) filtration
B) secretion
C) absorption
D) A and B
A) filtration
B) secretion
C) absorption
D) A and B
filtration
4
Agents to treat anemia associated with kidney failure include:
A) Ferrous sulfate to increase the production of red blood cells
B) Erythropoietin to increase the production of red blood cells
C) Ferrous sulfate to increase the oxygen-carrying capacity of the hemoglobin in red blood cells
D) All of the above
A) Ferrous sulfate to increase the production of red blood cells
B) Erythropoietin to increase the production of red blood cells
C) Ferrous sulfate to increase the oxygen-carrying capacity of the hemoglobin in red blood cells
D) All of the above
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5
Osmosis is the:
A) Exchange of Na+ and Cl - ions
B) Movement of H+ from an area of higher concentration to an area of lower concentration
C) Exchange of carbon dioxide (CO2) and oxygen (O2)
D) Diffusion of water molecules across a semipermeable membrane
A) Exchange of Na+ and Cl - ions
B) Movement of H+ from an area of higher concentration to an area of lower concentration
C) Exchange of carbon dioxide (CO2) and oxygen (O2)
D) Diffusion of water molecules across a semipermeable membrane
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6
The functional unit of the kidney is the:
A) Nephron
B) Loop of Henle
C) Collecting duct
D) Bowman capsule
A) Nephron
B) Loop of Henle
C) Collecting duct
D) Bowman capsule
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7
Where in the body can the kidneys be found?
A) Lower right abdominal cavity
B) Lower left abdominal cavity
C) Lower abdominal cavity on either side of the vertebrae
D) Upper abdominal cavity on either side of the vertebrae
A) Lower right abdominal cavity
B) Lower left abdominal cavity
C) Lower abdominal cavity on either side of the vertebrae
D) Upper abdominal cavity on either side of the vertebrae
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8
HCO3 - is a buffer in the body that:
A) Binds H+
B) Balances the pH of the blood
C) Releases hydroxide (OH - )
D) A and B
A) Binds H+
B) Balances the pH of the blood
C) Releases hydroxide (OH - )
D) A and B
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9
One of the most common causes of chronic kidney disease (CKD) in the United States is:
A) Diabetes
B) Age
C) Glomerulonephritis
D) Pyelonephritis
A) Diabetes
B) Age
C) Glomerulonephritis
D) Pyelonephritis
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10
Which of the following is not a proper treatment for UTIs?
A) Septra for bacterial infections
B) Fluconazole for fungal infections
C) Tetracycline for Chlamydia infections
D) Zyloprim for gonorrheal infections
A) Septra for bacterial infections
B) Fluconazole for fungal infections
C) Tetracycline for Chlamydia infections
D) Zyloprim for gonorrheal infections
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11
Nocturia is a(an):
A) Form of insomnia
B) Inability to completely evacuate the bladder
C) Nighttime urination
D) A and C
A) Form of insomnia
B) Inability to completely evacuate the bladder
C) Nighttime urination
D) A and C
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12
Which of the following is not a loop diuretic?
A) Bumetanide (Bumex)
B) Torsemide (Demadex)
C) Furosemide (Lasix)
D) Spironolactone (Aldactone)
A) Bumetanide (Bumex)
B) Torsemide (Demadex)
C) Furosemide (Lasix)
D) Spironolactone (Aldactone)
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13
Acidosis is a condition in which:
A) Too many free hydrogen ions (H+) are present in the blood
B) Retention of HCO3 - is present
C) The loss of H+ is excessive
D) All of the above are present
A) Too many free hydrogen ions (H+) are present in the blood
B) Retention of HCO3 - is present
C) The loss of H+ is excessive
D) All of the above are present
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14
Allopurinol (Zyloprim) is indicated for the prevention of:
A) Kidney stones
B) Gout
C) UTIs
D) A and B
A) Kidney stones
B) Gout
C) UTIs
D) A and B
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15
The most common cause of UTIs is:
A) Chlamydia
B) Escherichia coli
C) Staphylococcus aureus
D) Streptococcus pyogenes
A) Chlamydia
B) Escherichia coli
C) Staphylococcus aureus
D) Streptococcus pyogenes
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16
Stage ____ is considered end-stage renal disease (ESRD).
A) 1
B) 2
C) 4
D) 5
A) 1
B) 2
C) 4
D) 5
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17
Rocaltrol is the brand name for:
A) Calcitriol
B) Darbepoetin alfa
C) Darifenacin
D) Solifenacin succinate
A) Calcitriol
B) Darbepoetin alfa
C) Darifenacin
D) Solifenacin succinate
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18
Hyperphosphatemia, a major issue with renal failure, can be treated with:
A) calcium acetate (PhosLo)
B) Sevelamer (Renagel)
C) Tums
D) All of the above
A) calcium acetate (PhosLo)
B) Sevelamer (Renagel)
C) Tums
D) All of the above
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19
Cations include ______________, and anions include ______________.
A) positively charged ions; negatively charged ions
B) negatively charged ions; positively charged ions
C) sodium (Na+) and potassium (K+); chloride (Cl - ) and bicarbonate (HCO3 - )
D) A and C
A) positively charged ions; negatively charged ions
B) negatively charged ions; positively charged ions
C) sodium (Na+) and potassium (K+); chloride (Cl - ) and bicarbonate (HCO3 - )
D) A and C
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20
The kidneys are involved in the synthesis of all of the following except:
A) Renin
B) Erythropoietin
C) Vitamin D
D) Vitamin K
A) Renin
B) Erythropoietin
C) Vitamin D
D) Vitamin K
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21
An adverse effect of Diamox (acetazolamide) is:
A) Hyperglycemia
B) Hyperkalemia
C) Hypernatremia
D) Metabolic alkalosis
A) Hyperglycemia
B) Hyperkalemia
C) Hypernatremia
D) Metabolic alkalosis
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22
An adverse effect of Aldactone (spironolactone) is:
A) Constipation
B) Gynecomastia
C) Hypertension
D) Increased libido
A) Constipation
B) Gynecomastia
C) Hypertension
D) Increased libido
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23
What is the generic name for Aldactone?
A) Spironolactone
B) Triamterene
C) Metolazone
D) Chlorthalidone
A) Spironolactone
B) Triamterene
C) Metolazone
D) Chlorthalidone
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24
Which of the following is not true regarding Mannitol?
A) Mannitol is only available as an injection
B) Mannitol is a supersaturated sugar solution at room temperature
C) Mannitol must be refrigerated
D) Mannitol may need to be warmed and shaken before administration
A) Mannitol is only available as an injection
B) Mannitol is a supersaturated sugar solution at room temperature
C) Mannitol must be refrigerated
D) Mannitol may need to be warmed and shaken before administration
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25
Urinary urge incontinence can be caused or exacerbated by:
A) Infection or irritation
B) Sneezing
C) Coughing
D) Weight gain
A) Infection or irritation
B) Sneezing
C) Coughing
D) Weight gain
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26
A commonly prescribed thiazide diuretic is:
A) Lasix
B) Aldactone
C) Dyrenium
D) Microzide
A) Lasix
B) Aldactone
C) Dyrenium
D) Microzide
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27
Which of the following treatments for an overactive bladder (OAB) is available in an OTC patch?
A) Oxybutynin
B) Tolterodine
C) Trospium chloride
D) Darifenacin
A) Oxybutynin
B) Tolterodine
C) Trospium chloride
D) Darifenacin
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28
Urolithiasis is the medical term for:
A) Kidney stones
B) Treatment to break up kidney stones
C) Urinary blockage
D) A and C
A) Kidney stones
B) Treatment to break up kidney stones
C) Urinary blockage
D) A and C
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29
Plasma is mostly composed of:
A) Red blood cells
B) White blood cells
C) Water
D) A and B
A) Red blood cells
B) White blood cells
C) Water
D) A and B
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30
Thiazide diuretics are used in the treatment of:
A) Edema associated with congestive heart failure (CHF)
B) Hypertension
C) Prevention of calcium kidney stones
D) All of the above
A) Edema associated with congestive heart failure (CHF)
B) Hypertension
C) Prevention of calcium kidney stones
D) All of the above
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31
Which part of the renal and urologic system carries waste from the kidneys to the bladder?
A) Ureters
B) Urethra
C) Renal vein
D) Nephron
A) Ureters
B) Urethra
C) Renal vein
D) Nephron
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32
Detrol (tolterodine) is indicated in the treatment of:
A) Anemia
B) Chronic Kidney Failure
C) Urinary incontinence
D) Urinary tract infection
A) Anemia
B) Chronic Kidney Failure
C) Urinary incontinence
D) Urinary tract infection
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33
A side effect common to all diuretic medications is:
A) Hypertension
B) Urinary frequency
C) Hypokalemia
D) Hyperkalemia
A) Hypertension
B) Urinary frequency
C) Hypokalemia
D) Hyperkalemia
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34
Nitrofurantoin is indicated for the treatment of:
A) Urinary analgesic
B) Urinary antispasmodic
C) Urinary incontinence
D) Urinary tract infection
A) Urinary analgesic
B) Urinary antispasmodic
C) Urinary incontinence
D) Urinary tract infection
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35
All of the following are potassium-sparing diuretics except:
A) spironolactone (Aldactone)
B) triamterene (Dyrenium)
C) amiloride (Midamor)
D) furosemide (Lasix)
A) spironolactone (Aldactone)
B) triamterene (Dyrenium)
C) amiloride (Midamor)
D) furosemide (Lasix)
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36
Nitrofurantoin is prescribed:
A) 100 mg PO BID for 5 days
B) 100 mg PO QID for 10 days
C) 250 mg PO BID for 3 days
D) 250 mg PO QID for 10 days
A) 100 mg PO BID for 5 days
B) 100 mg PO QID for 10 days
C) 250 mg PO BID for 3 days
D) 250 mg PO QID for 10 days
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37
The generic name for Epogen is:
A) Darbepoetin alfa
B) Epoetin alfa
C) ethacrynic acid
D) Sevelamer
A) Darbepoetin alfa
B) Epoetin alfa
C) ethacrynic acid
D) Sevelamer
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38
Which of the following auxiliary labels would be appropriate for a prescription for Epogen?
A) Do not shake
B) Protect from light
C) Refrigerate
D) All of the above
A) Do not shake
B) Protect from light
C) Refrigerate
D) All of the above
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39
What is an unusual side effect of phenazopyridine (Pyridium)?
A) Relief of urinary pain
B) Orange or reddish urine
C) Drowsiness
D) Thirst
A) Relief of urinary pain
B) Orange or reddish urine
C) Drowsiness
D) Thirst
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40
A nosocomial infection is a(an):
A) Sinus infection
B) UTI
C) Upper respiratory infection (URI)
D) Infection contracted in a hospital or health care facility
A) Sinus infection
B) UTI
C) Upper respiratory infection (URI)
D) Infection contracted in a hospital or health care facility
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