Deck 2: Prenatal Development and the Newborn Period

Question 1

Which concept is consistent with Aristotle's beliefs about prenatal development?

A)The effects of thalidomide on prenatal development vary depending on when during the pregnancy the mother took the drug.
B)Infants born prematurely already have all the correct structures but in miniature.
C)Female eggs contain minuscule preformed human beings.
D)None of these concepts is consistent with Aristotle's beliefs.

Answer 1

A

Question 2

Which statement(s) about cultural goals regarding childbirth is/are TRUE? Statement A: All cultures aim to protect the survival and health of both mother and baby.
Statement B: All cultures want to ensure the social integration of the new person.
Statement C: All cultures have similar childbirth practices.

A)statements A and C only
B)statement C only
C)statements A and B only
D)statements B and C only

Answer 2

C

Question 3

It is difficult to isolate the effects of malnutrition on prenatal development because malnutrition often coincides with

A)poverty.
B)older mothers.
C)rubella.
D)mercury consumption.

Answer 3

A

Question 4

Direct evidence for fetal learning comes from studies of

A)habituation.
B)phylogenetic continuity.
C)apoptosis.
D)fetal programming.

Question 5

Regarding the flexibility of a cell's function during the embryonic and fetal periods, cells are

A)initially flexible and then become inflexible.
B)initially inflexible and then become more flexible.
C)flexible throughout the embryonic and fetal periods.
D)inflexible throughout the embryonic and fetal periods.

Question 6

Zora and Jenny are twins. Zora is born weighing 2,000 grams, and Jenny is born weighing 3,000 grams. Which statement BEST characterizes Zora and Jenny's chances of completing high school, based on the research on low-birth-weight children?

A)Zora and Jenny are equally likely to complete high school.
B)Zora is more likely to complete high school than is Jenny.
C)Jenny is more likely to complete high school than is Zora.
D)The likelihood of Zora and Jenny completing high school cannot be predicted based on research on low-birth-weight children.

Question 7

Which statement about sensitive periods in prenatal development is TRUE?

A)All major organ systems share the same sensitive period.
B)Teratogens have the most serious effect on prenatal development immediately before a system's sensitive period.
C)A sensitive period is the time when a system's basic structures are being formed.
D)The sensitive period of limb development occurs several weeks before the limbs begin to form.

Question 8

In terms of newborns' ability to learn from auditory stimulation while asleep, research has shown that newborns

A)cannot learn from auditory stimulation while asleep.
B)can learn from auditory stimulation while asleep because they spend proportionately more time in REM sleep than do adults.
C)can learn from auditory stimulation while asleep because they spend proportionately more time in non-REM sleep than do adults.
D)seem to be able to learn from auditory stimulation while asleep because their brains do not become disconnected from external stimulation to the extent that adult brains do.

Question 9

The idea that humans share some developmental processes with other animals because of their shared evolutionary history is referred to as

A)FASD.
B)developmental resilience.
C)fetal programming.
D)phylogenetic continuity.

Question 10

The study in which cells located in the eye region of a frog embryo were moved to its belly demonstrated which property of cell functions?

A)The location of a given cell before migration determines its function.
B)The location of a given cell after migration determines its function.
C)The genetic makeup of a given cell before migration determines its function.
D)The genetic makeup of a given cell after migration determines its function.

Question 11

Premature babies are those who are born at _____ weeks after conception or earlier.

A)25
B)30
C)35
D)38

Question 12

The belated emergence of effects of prenatal experience that inform the physiological set points that will govern physiology in adulthood is called

A)habituation.
B)phylogenetic continuity.
C)apoptosis.
D)fetal programming.

Question 13

Gametes form through the process of

A)mitosis.
B)conception.
C)meiosis.
D)germinalization.

Question 14

For teratogens that show a dose-response relation

A)any level of exposure to the teratogen causes an equivalent likelihood of a defect.
B)the greater the exposure to the teratogen, the greater the likelihood of a defect.
C)the greater the exposure to the teratogen, the lesser the likelihood of a defect.
D)detrimental effects are seen only at very high exposure levels.

Question 15

David and Dwayne are identical twins. What does this mean in terms of their genetic makeup?

A)The DNA from their mother is the same but differs in terms of what they received from their father.
B)The DNA from their father is the same but differs in terms of what they received from their mother.
C)They have inherited different DNA from both of their parents.
D)They have exactly the same DNA.

Question 16

Cell differentiation refers to the _____ of cells.

A)relocation
B)specialization
C)migration
D)death

Question 17

Claire is pregnant and smokes cigarettes daily. Which statement about the effects of cigarette smoke on her fetus is TRUE?

A)Exposure to secondhand smoke is unlikely to affect her fetus.
B)Her fetus gets less oxygen when she smokes.
C)The amniotic sac prevents her fetus from being exposed to cancer-causing agents in tobacco.
D)None of these statements is true.

Question 18

If the theory presented in the text about newborn sleep states is accurate, in which newborn would a decrease in REM sleep be MOST likely to be seen?

A)Baby Emma, who is deprived of visual stimulation during the day
B)Baby Elijah, who is provided with a high level of extra visual stimulation during the day
C)Baby Sofia, who is deprived of auditory stimulation during the day
D)Baby Manny, who is provided with a high level of extra auditory stimulation during the day

Question 19

Which organ acts as a defensive barrier against toxins and infections?

A)umbilical cord
B)amniotic sac
C)placenta
D)amniotic fluid

Question 20

Jacquelyne is a new parent and is having a hard time soothing her newborn when he cries. Which action is LEAST likely to soothe her crying baby?

A)giving the infant a taste of sugar
B)showing the infant a colourful picture
C)patting the infant repetitively on the back
D)swaddling the infant in a blanket

Question 21

Habituation indicates that a fetus _____ a stimulus.

A)likes
B)dislikes
C)has learned to recognize
D)has failed to perceive

Question 22

Which item is an example of the active participation of the fetus in its own development?

A)fetal alcohol syndrome
B)hormonal influence on development of sex organs
C)placental defence against toxins and infections
D)cephalocaudal development

Question 23

Embryonic cells are also known as

A)stem cells.
B)divided cells.
C)fertilized eggs.
D)zygotic cells.

Question 24

In terms of REM versus non-REM sleep, newborns spend

A)a greater amount of time in REM sleep than in non-REM sleep.
B)a greater amount of time in non-REM sleep than in REM sleep.
C)equal amounts of time in REM sleep and in non-REM sleep.
D)proportionately more time in non-REM sleep than do adults.

Question 25

The effects of thalidomide BEST demonstrate

A)sensitive periods of development.
B)the cumulative effect.
C)the dose-response relation.
D)the sleeper effect.

Question 26

Identical twins most often originate when

A)two eggs are fertilized by two sperm.
B)an egg splits and is fertilized by two sperm.
C)an inner cell mass splits in half.
D)an embryo splits in half.

Question 27

The information in which statement would be considered evidence that infant crying and adult aversion to it have adaptive significance?

A)Babies who cry more are more likely to be abandoned than are those who cry less.
B)The peak time for crying is in the evening.
C)Babies who are with their mothers throughout the day and night cry more frequently than do other babies.
D)Babies who cry more are more likely to survive times of severe hardship, such as famine.

Question 28

The fetus experiences tactile stimulation in the womb as a result of

A)the mother's digestive system.
B)the mother touching her abdomen.
C)other people interacting with the mother.
D)the fetus's own activity.

Question 29

Gina and Margaret are pregnant at the same time. Gina's fetus is quite active throughout the day, whereas Margaret's fetus is rather inactive. Which explanation would be the BEST guess as to how active their infants will be?

A)Gina's infant is likely to be more active than is Margaret's infant.
B)Margaret's infant is likely to be more active than is Gina's infant.
C)Gina's infant and Margaret's infant will probably be similar in activity level, as all infants have similar levels of activity.
D)There is no way to predict postnatal activity level from prenatal activity level, so no guess can be made about the infants' activity levels.

Question 30

Which sequence lists the periods of prenatal development in the CORRECT developmental progression from earliest to latest?

A)embryo, fetus, zygote
B)zygote, fetus, embryo
C)fetus, zygote, embryo
D)zygote, embryo, fetus

Question 31

Infants whose mothers are _____ are 3 to 4 times more likely to die before their first birthday than those whose mothers are _____.

A)30 years or older; between the ages of 20 and 29
B)15 years or younger; between the ages of 23 and 29
C)35 years or older; 15 years or younger
D)20 years or younger; 30 years or older

Question 32

The neural tube is a groove formed in the top layer of differentiated cells in the embryo that eventually becomes the

A)internal organs.
B)brain and spinal cord.
C)digestive system.
D)inner layers of skin.

Question 33

Which maternal disease during pregnancy is LEAST likely to have a direct negative effect on the health of the baby?

A)HIV
B)genital herpes
C)rubella
D)cytomegalovirus

Question 34

By the _____ week of prenatal development, the external genitalia are developed.

A)4th
B)6th
C)8th
D)16th

Question 35

Once sperm have entered the vagina, how many typically get close to the egg?

A)one or two
B)approximately 200
C)hundreds of thousands
D)millions

Question 36

Which statement about the rate of prenatal development is TRUE?

A)Earlier development takes place at a more rapid pace than later development.
B)Later development takes place at a more rapid pace than earlier development.
C)The pace of development remains relatively continuous.
D)Development begins slowly, speeds up, and then slows down again.

Question 37

Which statement about the "survival of the fittest" principle and conception is TRUE?

A)This principle applies only to the process of egg release from the fallopian tube, not to the other processes involved in conception.
B)The eggs that manage to reach the sperm are likely to be healthy, as eggs with serious defects tend to be unable to reach the sperm.
C)The sperm that manage to reach the egg are likely to be healthy, as sperm with serious defects tend to be unable to reach the egg.
D)This principle does not come into play until a child is born.

Question 38

_____ can be used as an intervention for low-birth-weight infants.

A)Physical contact
B)Auditory stimulation
C)Visual stimulation
D)Olfactory stimulation

Question 39

The small sacs of the newborn's lungs are forced open by the

A)squeezing of the fetus's body as it moves through the birth canal.
B)birth cry after the fetus exits the birth canal.
C)squeezing of the fetus's head as it passes through the mother's pelvic bones.
D)vigorous rubbing of the newborn's body by the medical staff immediately following birth.

Question 40

The term "fetal programming" refers to

A)individual differences in teratogenic effects that occur as a result of genetic differences.
B)prenatal learning of sounds, tastes, and smells.
C)genetic differences in ability to learn prenatally.
D)the later emergence of effects of the prenatal period.

Question 41

A belief in phylogenic continuity is necessary for developmentalists to

A)understand that prenatal experiences can affect adult development.
B)predict rates of infant mortality.
C)test hypotheses about human development on chimpanzees.
D)comprehend how stem cells function.

Question 42

Infants in what geographic part of Canada are more likely to die before their first birthday than are infants in other parts of the country?

A)the North
B)Ontario
C)Quebec
D)the Prairies

Question 43

Mitosis is another term for

A)cell migration.
B)apoptosis.
C)cell division.
D)cell differentiation.

Question 44

Marcy is learning about maternal influences on fetal health. Which maternal characteristic does NOT tend to have a negative impact on the health of the fetus?

A)low socioeconomic status
B)malnutrition
C)genital herpes
D)immature eggs

Question 45

Habituation involves a(n) _____ heart rate response.

A)increased
B)decreased
C)unpredictable
D)variable

Question 46

What advice should be given to expectant parents who are interested in educating their child in a foreign language and classical literature before birth?

A)Fetuses have no ability to learn anything while in the womb; thus, any talking, singing, or reading you do will not be remembered by the fetus after birth.
B)Although your child may come to recognize and even prefer the patterns of the language and literature he or she is exposed to while in the womb, babies are unable to hear specific words or learn any kind of factual knowledge while in the womb.
C)You will give your child a sufficient head start if you pipe foreign language and classical literature recordings into the womb.
D)If you want your child to become fluent in a foreign language and appreciate literature, you must start before the child is born.

Question 47

Maria just had a baby at 38 weeks after conception. Her newborn weighed 2200 grams and would be labelled as

A)premature.
B)small for gestational age.
C)small for prenatal age.
D)none of these.

Question 48

Which sound is a newborn MOST likely to prefer?

A)mother's voice
B)mother's voice, muffled
C)mother's voice, at a faster rate of speech
D)father's voice

Question 49

Which item would likely be MOST interesting to a scientist interested in embryos?

A)an X-ray of the internal organs of a 2-year-old child
B)ultrasound images of an unborn fetus 4 weeks following conception
C)a blood test of a pregnant woman
D)a picture of all of the members of a family

Question 50

For which fetal behaviour is there no clear explanation?

A)breathing movements
B)hiccups
C)swallowing
D)moving arms and legs

Question 51

Shelby is a Canadian woman expecting her first child. She is nervous about the birth and delivery. What is the likelihood that she will have a surgical delivery by cesarean?

A)15%
B)20%
C)28%
D)45%

Question 52

Which statement about the development of sex organs is TRUE?

A)If the mother produces testosterone, then the fetus will develop male organs; if the mother produces estrogen, then the fetus will develop female sex organs.
B)If the fetus produces testosterone, then it will develop male organs; if the fetus produces estrogen, then it will develop female sex organs.
C)If the fetus produces high levels of testosterone, then it will develop male organs; if the fetus produces moderate levels of testosterone, then it will develop female sex organs.
D)If the fetus produces androgens, then it will develop male organs; if the fetus produces no androgens, then it will develop female sex organs.

Question 53

Which condition is NOT associated with poverty?

A)poor nutrition
B)drug abuse
C)environmental hazards
D)improved prenatal care

Question 54

Which event is thought to be due to apoptosis?

A)splitting of the fertilized egg into two equal parts
B)loss of cells between the ridges on the hand plate
C)movement of new cells into the outer layer of the brain
D)specialization of eye cells

Question 55

When do most miscarriages occur?

A)prior to implantation
B)immediately following fertilization
C)before the pregnancy is clinically detectable
D)within the first 6 months of gestation

Question 56

Which pattern of maternal alcohol consumption is considered acceptable in terms of avoiding harmful effects?

A)drinking several drinks over a quick period of time, only a few times during pregnancy
B)drinking one and only one drink per day
C)drinking large amounts of alcohol on a frequent basis
D)There is no acceptable use of maternal alcohol consumption.

Question 57

How many chromosome pairs do gametes contain?

A)13
B)23
C)49
D)92

Question 58

Negative developmental outcomes are particularly likely when there are

A)genetic defects.
B)multiple risk factors.
C)psychiatric disorders.
D)educational disadvantages.

Question 59

Preterm infants whose mothers participated in an intervention that included all factors EXCEPT _____ showed fewer behaviour problems at age 5 in comparison with mothers who did not receive the intervention.

A)focus on increasing parental self-confidence
B)support sessions
C)teaching about parents' responsiveness
D)explaining disciplinary techniques

Question 60

Reproductive cells that contain only half the genetic material of all the other cells in the body are referred to as

A)gametes.
B)embryos.
C)zygotes.
D)genetic cells.

Question 61

Gloria recently gave birth and is learning about risks factors associated with sudden infant death syndrome (SIDS). Which factor is NOT currently thought to be a contributor?

A)smoking near the infant
B)putting baby to sleep on his tummy
C)dressing baby too warmly during sleep
D)putting baby to sleep on his back

Question 62

The placental membrane allows _____ to pass through it.

A)oxygen and blood
B)blood, urea, and nutrients
C)all antibodies, urea, and oxygen
D)oxygen, nutrients, minerals, and some antibodies

Question 63

Laura and Mark are new parents whose baby cries for 3 to 4 hours a day for no apparent reason. They have had their baby examined by a pediatrician, who was unable to find any medical reason for the excessive crying. Laura and Mark's baby appears to be suffering from

A)cocaine withdrawal.
B)neglect.
C)colic.
D)fetal alcohol syndrome.

Question 64

Epigenetics can be considered the notion that

A)prenatal development begins with a new miniature individual already preformed.
B)new structures and functions emerge throughout prenatal development.
C)prenatal development begins in the centre of the body of the new individual.
D)Eve was created out of Adam's rib.

Question 65

Which statement about newborn sleep is TRUE?

A)Newborns continue to get visual stimulation through their closed eyelids.
B)Newborns spend more time than adults do in non-REM sleep.
C)Newborns may be able to learn while asleep.
D)All of these statements are true.

Question 66

Being _____ is NOT associated with an increased risk of being of low birth weight.

A)exposed to teratogens
B)a twin
C)exposed to high levels of airborne pollution
D)a first born

Question 67

After the implantation of the zygote, as the ball of cells begins to differentiate, the inner cell mass becomes the

A)fetus.
B)gamete.
C)embryo.
D)support system.

Question 68

Lenae is a newborn. She is likely to prefer to listen to

A)another woman's voice over her mother's voice.
B)her mother's language over another language.
C)novel stories rather than familiar stories.
D)Newborns show no auditory preferences.

Question 69

Colic may be associated with issues with the newborn's _____ system.

A)limbic
B)nervous
C)respiratory
D)digestive

Question 70

Research demonstrating that it is the scent of amniotic fluid that guides a newborn rat to its mother's nipple is evidence of

A)the similarity of rats and humans in their taste preferences.
B)fetal learning.
C)phylogenetic continuity.
D)rats' poor maternal instincts.

Question 71

Which effect is NOT a result of neonatal abstinence syndrome?

A)low birth weight
B)breathing problems
C)feeding difficulties
D)cardiac malformations

Question 72

Which adjective describes a characteristic of the placenta?

A)transparent
B)watery
C)watertight
D)semipermeable

Question 73

Recent research has demonstrated a link between the development of schizophrenia and maternal contraction of which disease in the first trimester?

A)cytomegalovirus
B)rubella
C)genital herpes
D)influenza

Question 74

Erin is a new mother and is concerned about her infant's crying. What can you tell Erin to help ease her concerns?

A)Infant crying peaks at about 6 weeks of age.
B)Infant crying tends to be worse in the morning.
C)All newborn crying is a result of discomfort.
D)None of these statements is true.

Question 75

Which statement about intervention programs aimed at helping low-birth-weight babies is TRUE?

A)The success of the intervention is unrelated to the initial health status of the infant.
B)The more risks the infant endures, the more successful the intervention will likely be.
C)The positive results are especially clear for children who were relatively heavier at birth.
D)Most intervention programs produce large gains.

Question 76

Cell migration occurs during which period?

A)apoptosis
B)fetal
C)germinal
D)embryonic

Question 77

Research conducted by Witt and colleagues (2015) found that amongst U.S. mothers who had a C-section, almost _____ did not appear to have any pregnancy complications.

A)10%
B)25%
C)50%
D)60%

Question 78

In Grassy Narrows First Nation in Ontario, mercury levels in fish remain above safe levels and people continue to develop symptoms of

A)fetal alcohol spectrum disorder.
B)sudden infant death syndrome.
C)Minamata disease.
D)abstinence syndrome.

Question 79

Which of these is NOT considered to be a teratogen?

A)poor nutrition
B)illegal drugs
C)environmental pollutants
D)cigarette smoke

Question 80

Which is the BEST advice for parents regarding how quickly they should respond to their infant's cries?

A)They should respond quickly to all the infant's cries, as immediate response will instill confidence in the infant.
B)They should respond slowly to all the infant's cries so that the infant will learn to regulate her or his crying.
C)They should respond quickly to severe distress, but less quickly to minor upset.
D)They should respond quickly to minor upset, but less quickly to severe distress.