Deck 8: Planning

Question 1

__________ is the management function that establishes the platform for further managerial efforts.

A) Leading
B) Optimisation
C) Planning
D) Organising
E) Controlling

Answer 1

C

Question 2

__________ is the process of deciding exactly what one wants to accomplish and how to do it.

A) Sales forecasting
B) Program development
C) Demand estimation
D) Planning
E) Needs analysis

Answer 2

D

Question 3

__________ is a statement of action steps to be taken in order to accomplish objectives.

A) A solution
B) A guideline
C) A goal
D) An alternative
E) A plan

Answer 3

E

Question 4

All of the following are examples of operational plans except:

A) strategic plans.
B) facilities plans.
C) human resources plans.
D) logistics plans.
E) financial plans.

Question 5

Which of the following statements about the SMART model is correct?

A) It has five characteristics.
B) Objectives have to be specific and measurable.
C) Objectives have to be actionable and reasonable and bale to be timetabled.
D) None of the options listed
E) All of the options listed

Question 6

The __________ and __________ processes work best if objectives are well stated in the first place.

A) planning; problem-solving
B) planning; goal-setting
C) planning; control
D) planning; leading
E) planning; organising

Question 7

__________ identifies alternative future scenarios and makes plans to deal with each.

A) Plan orientation
B) Scenario planning
C) Advantage planning
D) Task planning
E) Change management

Question 8

Setting objectives and determining what should be done to accomplish them is the essence of the management function of:

A) planning.
B) controlling.
C) leading.
D) productivity improvement.
E) organising.

Question 9

Which of the following is NOT correct regarding the importance of planning?

A) Planning is important for staying ahead of the competition.
B) Planning helps an organisation become better at what it does.
C) Planning eliminates the need for effective leadership.
D) Planning is central to the management process.
E) Planning helps an organisation to be action oriented.

Question 10

Without __________, __________ lacks a framework for measuring how well things are going and what could be done to improve things.

A) problem solving; organising
B) planning; decision making
C) controlling; goal setting
D) planning; controlling
E) planning; leading

Question 11

Using mathematical and statistical analyses of historical data and surveys to predict future events is called:

A) quantitative forecasting.
B) guesswork.
C) qualitative forecasting.
D) expert planning.
E) contingency planning.

Question 12

Which of the following statements about time horizons is correct?

A) Intermediate plans cover one to two years while long term plans look over three years.
B) An organisation requires plans that cover different time horizons.
C) An organisations short term plan covers one year or less.
D) None of the options listed
E) All of the options listed

Question 13

In the planning process, __________ refer to the specific or desired results that one wishes to achieve.

A) alternatives
B) outcomes
C) objectives
D) end states
E) guidelines

Question 14

A __________ budget is defined as one that allocates resources to activities based on a single estimate of costs.

A) flexible
B) zero-based
C) comprehensive
D) contingency
E) fixed

Question 15

Setting objectives and determining what should be done to accomplish them is the essence of the management function of:

A) controlling.
B) leading.
C) productivity improvement.
D) organising.
E) planning.

Question 16

__________ keeps making long-range planning shorter and shorter.

A) International time
B) Daylight Savings Time
C) Eastern Standard Time
D) Strategic time
E) Internet time

Question 17

__________ refer to the specific results or desired outcomes that one intends to achieve.

A) Alternatives
B) Policies
C) Objectives
D) Procedures
E) Guidelines

Question 18

The role of the planning function in the management process is:

A) to ensure results.
B) to create structures.
C) to set direction.
D) to inspire effort.
E) All of the options listed

Question 19

Without __________, __________ lacks the follow-through needed to ensure that things work as planned.

A) controlling; organising
B) controlling; planning
C) planning; controlling
D) controlling; leading
E) planning; problem solving

Question 20

Which one of the following alternatives lists the planning steps in proper order?

A) Define objectives; develop planning premises; determine current standing relative to objectives; identify and choose among alternatives; implement the plan and evaluate results.
B) Define objectives; determine current standing relative to objectives; evaluate current accomplishments; identify and choose among alternatives; implement the plan and evaluate results.
C) Define objectives; determine current standing relative to objectives; develop planning premises; analyse possible action alternatives and choose among them; implement the plan and evaluate results.
D) Develop planning premises; define objectives; determine current standing relative to objectives; identify and choose among alternatives; implement the plan and evaluate results.
E) Determine current standing relative to objectives; define objectives; develop planning premises; identify and choose among alternatives; implement the plan and evaluate results.

Question 21

Plans that define what needs to be done in specific functions or work units in order to implement strategic plans and achieve strategic objectives are called:

A) implementing plans.
B) company plans.
C) business plans.
D) tactical plans.
E) operational plans.

Question 22

A _________ is an example of a single-use plan.

A) monthly operating budget
B) performance appraisal process
C) marketing strategy
D) sexual harassment policy
E) standard operating procedure

Question 23

Which of the following statements about forecasting is NOT true?

A) Highly sophisticated quantitative approaches to forecasting still require interpretation.
B) Forecasts are always subject to error and should be treated with caution.
C) Forecasting always relies on human judgement.
D) Forecasting is an effective and efficient substitute for planning.
E) Forecasting is a planning tool.

Question 24

Which one of the following statements does NOT accurately describe budgets?

A) Budgets are standing plans.
B) Budgets commit resources to activities, projects or programs.
C) Budgets can be fixed or flexible.
D) Budgets allocate scarce resources among competing uses.
E) Budgets are single-use plans.

Question 25

Which one of the following statements does NOT accurately describe a good project schedule?

A) Project schedules define specific task objectives.
B) Project schedules do not specify resource requirements.
C) Project schedules assign priorities.
D) Project schedules assign activities to be accomplished.
E) Project schedules specify dates and timetables for the activities.

Question 26

When a project or activity is budgeted in each new budget cycle as if it were brand new, a(n) __________ budgeting approach is being used.

A) flexible
B) operational
C) contingency
D) zero-based
E) fixed

Question 27

__________ plans address long-term needs and set comprehensive action directions for an organisation or subunit.

A) Operational
B) Tactical
C) Single-use
D) Strategic
E) Normal

Question 28

How are strategic plans and operational plans related?

A) Strategic plans define what needs to be done to implement operational plans.
B) Strategic plans set operational objectives; operational plans carry out those objectives.
C) Operational plans are developed to meet long-term organisational objectives; strategic plans implement operational plans.
D) Strategic plans are developed to address long-term organisational objectives; operational plans implement strategic plans.
E) Strategic plans and operational plans are unrelated.

Question 29

Company LMN, a toy manufacturer, has discovered that one of its suppliers has used lead-based paint on one of its products. It is the week before Christmas. The executive committee has assembled a team to devise a plan to mitigate the issue. LMN is using:

A) strategic planning.
B) functional planning.
C) mitigation planning.
D) production planning.
E) tactical planning.

Question 30

__________ communicate broad guidelines for making decisions and taking action in specific circumstances.

A) Regulations
B) Procedures
C) Policies
D) Rules
E) Guidelines

Question 31

Using the opinions of persons with special expertise to make predictions about the future is called:

A) guesswork.
B) expert planning.
C) contingency planning.
D) qualitative forecasting.
E) quantitative forecasting.

Question 32

A ______________ helps to implement all or parts of a strategic plan.

A) strategic plan
B) functional plan
C) tactical plan
D) long-range plan
E) short-range plan

Question 33

When a university issues a statement that it 'will not tolerate sexual harassment in relation to the evaluation of employee or student performance', a __________ plan in the form of an organisational __________ is being communicated.

A) standing; policy
B) standing-use; rule
C) standing; procedure
D) single-use; procedure
E) single-use; policy

Question 34

__________ are often found in employee manuals as standard operating procedures.

A) Rules
B) Goals
C) Budgets
D) Plans
E) Ethics

Question 35

__________ or __________ describe exactly what actions are to be taken in specific situations.

A) Objectives; strategies
B) Projects; project management
C) Rules; goals
D) Procedures; policies
E) Rules; procedures

Question 36

Which level of management spends more time with long-range planning?

A) Top-level managers
B) Middle-level managers
C) Lower-level and middle-level managers
D) Lower-level managers
E) All levels of management

Question 37

Which of the following statements BEST distinguishes between procedures and policies?

A) Procedures help obtain organisational objectives; policies do not.
B) A procedure is a standing-use plan; a policy is a single-use plan.
C) Procedures guide ethics; policies guide fair employment.
D) Procedures present a plan of action for specific situations; policies are broad guidelines.
E) A procedure is a single-use plan; a policy is a standing plan.

Question 38

Policies and procedures that are used repeatedly are called:

A) individual plans.
B) scheduling plans.
C) standing plans.
D) strategic plans.
E) single-use plans.

Question 39

__________ plans set broad, comprehensive and longer term action directions for the entire organisation.

A) Single-use
B) Tactical
C) Strategic
D) Normal
E) Operational

Question 40

_________ are single-use plans that identify a set of activities required to accomplish specific major task objectives.

A) Procedures
B) Zero-based budgets
C) Budgets
D) Rules
E) Project schedules

Question 41

__________ is a planning technique that makes use of external comparisons to determine practices used by best-in-class companies in an effort to improve performance and identify possible actions for the future.

A) Management by objectives
B) Forecasting
C) Benchmarking
D) Scenario planning
E) Contingency planning

Question 42

On those jobs where performance is difficult to quantify, performance objectives can be stated as:

A) deliverables.
B) measurable end products.
C) benchmarks.
D) verifiable work activities.
E) short-range plans.

Question 43

Identifying alternative future states of affairs that may occur and then developing plans to deal with each case should it actually occur is known as:

A) contingency planning.
B) participation.
C) scenario planning.
D) benchmarking.
E) forecasting.

Question 44

A __________ budget is defined as one that allocates a fixed amount of resources for a specific purpose.

A) zero-based
B) fixed
C) flexible
D) comprehensive
E) contingency

Question 45

Strategic planning begins with:

A) tactical planning.
B) forecasting.
C) vision.
D) time management.
E) None of the options listed

Question 46

Production plans, financial plans, facilities plans, marketing plans and human resource plans are all examples of __________ plans.

A) flexible
B) standing-use
C) operational
D) contingency
E) strategic

Question 47

Royal Dutch/Shell uses scenario planning to explore what the company would do if and when its oil supplies run out. For Royal Dutch/Shell, the benefits of scenario planning include which of the following?

A) It helps the organisation operate more flexibly in a dynamic environment.
B) It conditions the company's executives to think.
C) It enables the company to be better prepared than competitors for future shocks.
D) None of the options listed
E) All of the options listed

Question 48

__________ is a structured process of regular communication in which a supervisor/team leader and subordinates/team members jointly set performance objectives and review results accomplished.

A) Management by goals (MBG)
B) Performance Planning and Evaluations (PPE)
C) Objective setting and review (OSR)
D) Management by objectives (MBO)
E) Performance management system (PMS)

Question 49

Good planning creates __________ in which objectives at each organisational level are linked together in a means-ends fashion.

A) performance targets
B) a hierarchy of aims
C) interlinked hierarchies of responsibility
D) a hierarchy of authority
E) activity schedules

Question 50

__________ is a long-term version of contingency planning.

A) Benchmarking
B) Scenario planning
C) Participation
D) Forecasting
E) Flexible budgeting

Question 51

Typical operational plans in a business would include all of the following EXCEPT:

A) dealing with money required to support various operations.
B) dealing with company growth through mergers and acquisitions.
C) dealing with requirements of selling and distributing goods or services.
D) dealing with methods and technology needed by people in their work.
E) dealing with recruitment, selection, and placement of people into jobs.

Question 52

Which of the following statements accurately describes the benefits of planning?

A) Planning improves time management.
B) Planning improves action orientation.
C) Planning improves coordination.
D) All of the options listed
E) None of the options listed

Question 53

__________ refer to one-time activities that have clear beginning and end points.

A) Goals
B) Budgets
C) Rules
D) Projects
E) Procedures

Question 54

The job of a staff planner does NOT include:

A) assisting managers in implementing plans.
B) developing special plans at the request of managers.
C) assisting in communicating plans to organisation members.
D) assisting line managers in plan preparation.
E) gathering and maintaining planning information.

Question 55

__________ is the process of making assumptions about what will happen in the future and generating a specific vision of the future.

A) Foretelling
B) Identifying objectives
C) Forecasting
D) Visioning
E) Contingency planning

Question 56

In a chain of discount department stores, personnel needs are estimated in three different ways: (a) for a high demand season, (b) for a moderate demand season, and (c) for a slack season. By taking these three activity levels into account, managers are developing a:

A) policy.
B) standing-use plan.
C) flexible budget.
D) zero-based budget.
E) fixed budget.

Question 57

Scenario planning facilitates control by defining the objectives and:

A) creating specialisation among the workers.
B) motivating the workers.
C) developing the human resources.
D) improving organisational structures.
E) identifying the specific courses of action to be taken.

Question 58

Effective __________ involves choices about the allocation of time to the most important priorities.

A) time management
B) cash management
C) inventory management
D) strategic management
E) project budgeting

Question 59

A(n) __________ budget allows the allocation of resources to vary in proportion with various levels of activity.

A) flexible
B) strategic
C) operational
D) master
E) zero-based

Question 60

__________ is the process of predicting what will happen in the future.

A) Visioning
B) Forecasting
C) Identifying objectives
D) Contingency planning
E) Foretelling

Question 61

Scenario planning helps managers and organisations to be more proactive by all of the following EXCEPT:

A) creating a performance-oriented sense of direction.
B) anticipating problems and opportunities so they can be dealt with in the best way.
C) ensuring that all passive activity is eliminated.
D) making sure the most important things get attention first.
E) ensuring that all resources are used to best advantage.

Question 62

Planning that identifies alternative courses of action that can be implemented, if and when an original plan proves inadequate due to changing circumstances, is called:

A) just-in-time planning.
B) contingency planning.
C) formal planning.
D) just-in-case planning.
E) problem-solving.

Question 63

__________ are individuals who lead and coordinate the planning function for an organisation as a whole or for one of its major components.

A) Supervisory planners
B) Staff planners
C) Middle managers
D) Chief executive officers
E) Conference managers

Question 64

The purpose of __________ is to find out what others are doing very well and to incorporate these ideas into one's own operations.

A) participation
B) forecasting
C) scenario planning
D) benchmarking
E) contingency planning

Question 65

Which of the following is not one of the advantages of management by objectives (MBO)?

A) MBO encourages self-management rather than external supervisory control.
B) MBO contributes to relationship building.
C) MBO clearly focuses a person's work efforts on the activities that are likely to result in the greatest rewards.
D) MBO focuses a supervisor's work efforts on areas of support that can help subordinates meet agreed-upon objectives.
E) MBO clearly focuses a person's work efforts on the most important tasks and objectives.

Question 66

Assume that you and your professor use MBO to establish objectives for your performance in a course and to monitor your progress on achieving those objectives. Explain how the MBO process could work in this situation. What types of objectives would be set? How would objective attainment be assessed?

Question 67

Which of the following statements does NOT accurately describe a feature, characteristic or outcome of using participation in the planning process?

A) Participation is central to the planning process.
B) To create and implement the best plans, proper attention must always be given to genuinely involving others during all planning steps.
C) Participation in the planning process can improve results by improving implementation.
D) Participation in the planning process can increase the amount of time spent in planning.
E) Only a few key people should be involved in developing plans in order to keep the plans simple and to facilitate implementation.

Question 68

__________ is a technique that makes use of external comparisons to better evaluate one's current performance and identify possible actions for the future.

A) Benchmarking
B) Scenario planning
C) Forecasting
D) Contingency planning
E) Management by objectives

Question 69

In management by objectives (MBO), the objectives that are agreed on by the supervisor/team leader and the subordinates/team members can involve:

A) personal development.
B) maintenance.
C) improvement.
D) None of the options listed
E) All of the options listed

Question 70

Among the various time management tips offered to managers is the general advice to:

A) maintain an open-door policy.
B) return any telephone call at the earliest opportunity.
C) screen all calls and mail personally.
D) delegate routine details to other people.
E) be overly concerned with setting priorities.

Question 71

Which of the following is NOT a good way to avoid interruptions and preserve time for concentration?

A) Maintaining control of your time schedule
B) Prioritising tasks according to urgency
C) Learning to say no to diversions
D) Involving yourself in routine activity
E) Having someone screen your calls

Question 72

Discuss the benefits of scenario planning for individuals and organisations.

Question 73

Which of the following statements about contingency planning is FALSE?

A) Contingency planning anticipates events that may occur in the future.
B) Contingency planning contains trigger points that indicate when preselected alternative plans should be activated.
C) Contingency planning specifies different courses of action under different conditions.
D) Contingency planning occurs when planners decide the future will be identical to the past.
E) Contingency planning focuses on early identification of possible shifts in future events.

Question 74

In a management by objectives approach, the supervisor/team leader and subordinates/team members:

A) individually plan, individually act and jointly control.
B) jointly plan, jointly act and jointly control.
C) jointly plan, jointly act and individually control.
D) jointly plan, individually act and jointly control.
E) jointly plan, individually act and individually control.

Question 75

Describe the types of plans used by managers.

Question 76

In management by objectives (MBO), the supervisor/team leader and subordinates/team members formally agree on all of the following except:

A) procedures for reviewing performance results.
B) plans for accomplishing the performance objectives.
C) standards for measuring the accomplishment of objectives.
D) performance objectives for a specific time period.
E) procedures for distributing rewards based on performance results.

Question 77

Good time management includes all of the following except:

A) having a system for screening telephone calls, e-mails, and requests for meetings.
B) not letting drop-in visitors or instant messages use too much of your time
C) not leaving details for others to address or for later.
D) following priorities; working on the most important and urgent tasks first.
E) saying no to requests that divert you from what you really should be doing.

Question 78

The use of participatory planning can produce all of the following benefits EXCEPT:

A) increase commitment of people for planning.
B) increase conflict over scarce resources.
C) increase acceptance of chosen alternatives.
D) increase creativity in planning.
E) increase information available for planning.

Question 79

__________ requires that the planning process include people who will be affected by the resulting plans and/or will be asked to help implement them.

A) Scenario planning
B) Strategic planning
C) Participatory planning
D) Contingency planning
E) Benchmarking

Question 80

An important risk associated with the use of staff planners is the __________ that can develop between staff planners and line managers.

A) identity crisis
B) arguments
C) communication gap
D) skill discrepancies
E) resistance to assistance