Deck 14: Communication and Interpersonal Skills

Question 1

__________ takes place through such things as hand movements, body posture, eye contact, and the use of interpersonal space.

A) Nonverbal communication
B) Verbal communication
C) Mixed messages
D) Oral communication
E) Status effects

Answer 1

A

Question 2

The medium through which a message is conveyed from sender to receiver is called a(n):

A) office network.
B) communication channel.
C) newswire.
D) grapevine.
E) nerve centre.

Answer 2

B

Question 3

When present, __________ reverses the communication process and conveys the receiver's response to the sender.

A) encoding
B) efficiency
C) noise
D) decoding
E) feedback

Answer 3

E

Question 4

Status effects on communication:

A) often cause subordinates to bias their communication with higher level managers.
B) are seldom serious.
C) are fewer in hierarchical organisations where managers and employees know their places.
D) are deliberate distortions by employees.
E) result from managers having to listen too much to employees.

Question 5

A manager reaches a large number of employees with a minimum of cost and effort by posting instructions on a bulletin board. Not all the employees understand the directions. This communication process would most likely be described as:

A) a typical failure of leadership.
B) both effective and efficient communication.
C) efficient but not effective communication.
D) neither effective nor efficient communication.
E) effective but not efficient communication.

Question 6

Nancy, a plant manager, received a directive from corporate headquarters to examine possible ways for redesigning work processes to improve plant productivity. Knowing this would be a 'hot button' issue with plants workers, Nancy needs to communicate this news to them as effectively as possible. Which communication approach should Nancy use?

A) Oral communication
B) Nonverbal then written communication
C) Delegate the task to a lower level manager
D) Written communication
E) Nonverbal communication

Question 7

A mixed message occurs when:

A) a person uses both written and oral communication channels at the same time.
B) the person sending the message uses two languages.
C) the person sending the message is from a different culture than the person receiving the message.
D) a person gives the original message in written form and receives the feedback orally.
E) a person's words communicate one message while actions, body language or appearance communicate something else.

Question 8

Which of the following statements about nonverbal communication is FALSE?

A) It can be transmitted without the sender knowing or desiring it.
B) When it communicates something different from the person's words, a mixed message is possible.
C) It does not involve people's use of inanimate objects.
D) It includes body posture and eye contact as well as facial expressions and gestures.
E) It can be used intentionally to enhance oral communication.

Question 9

In the communication process, __________ is sent through a communication channel to a __________, who then decodes or interprets its meaning.

A) the message; receiver
B) feedback; receiver
C) noise; person
D) an attribution; a leader
E) a decision; work team

Question 10

In the communication process, the _________ is the person who is responsible for encoding an intended message into meaningful verbal and nonverbal symbols.

A) messenger
B) receiver
C) channel
D) sender
E) manager

Question 11

Guidelines for making a successful oral presentation include all of the following EXCEPT:

A) use good visual aids.
B) know what you want to say.
C) be on time.
D) be flashy in dress and gestures.
E) be audience-centred and make eye contact.

Question 12

Communication barriers can be overcome, perceptual distortions can be minimised, and the communication process can be improved by doing all of the following EXCEPT:

A) providing constructive feedback.
B) discounting diversity.
C) using space and technology.
D) opening communication channels.
E) engaging in active listening.

Question 13

Which of the following statements accurately describes communication effectiveness?

A) Effective communication occurs when the sender's intended message and the receiver's interpreted meaning of that message are identical.
B) Effective communication occurs when the receiver (subordinate) does exactly what the sender (supervisor) wants.
C) Effective communication means there are no wasted words or gestures.
D) Effective communication occurs when minimal time is spent in the communication process.
E) Effective communication is the same as efficient communication.

Question 14

Becoming effective in written and oral communications:

A) takes practice and hard work.
B) is essential for managers.
C) requires skill.
D) All of the options listed
E) None of the options listed

Question 15

__________ is an interpersonal process of sending and receiving symbols with messages attached to them.

A) Organisation design
B) Communication
C) Teamwork
D) Conflict resolution
E) Decision making

Question 16

Managers spend a majority of their time:

A) resolving conflicts among subordinates.
B) making decisions on resource allocation.
C) communicating and relating with others.
D) monitoring employee performance.
E) developing strategy and planning ways to fulfil it.

Question 17

Status effects on communication:

A) reflect the impact of managerial titles.
B) result from managers listening to employees too much.
C) are seldom serious.
D) can result in corporate cover-ups.
E) are fewer in hierarchical organisations where managers and employees know their places.

Question 18

Common sources of noise in the communication process include all of the following EXCEPT:

A) failure to recognise nonverbal signals.
B) poor choice of channels.
C) status effects.
D) physical distractions.
E) feedback.

Question 19

Which of the following statements accurately describes communication efficiency?

A) Efficient communication is the same as effective communication.
B) Efficient communication means that all noise has been eliminated from the communication process.
C) Efficient communication occurs at minimum cost in terms of resources expended.
D) Efficient communication occurs in one-way, rather than two-way, communication.
E) Efficient communication occurs when the intended message of the sender and the perceived meaning of the receiver are one and the same.

Question 20

A manager describes how to perform a new task to a subordinate; the subordinate then repeats the instructions accurately and does the job flawlessly. The manager then follows the same procedures with several other employees, one at a time. This communication process would most likely be characterised as:

A) efficient but not effective communication.
B) effective but not efficient communication.
C) neither effective nor efficient communication.
D) a typical failure of leadership.
E) both effective and efficient communication.

Question 21

Fred is a department manager for a firm that develops computer-networking packages. This morning he held a staff meeting with his subordinates to inform them about some design changes. Several of them felt the changes might not work but were reluctant to bring it up in the meeting. Even though they did bring it up in the meeting, they diluted the impact of their objections and concerns. Fred didn't give them much chance anyway when he said, 'I've been around here a long time. The changes will work. Now I don't have time to discuss it. Just make the changes and get on with things.' This is a good example of how ______________ can become a barrier to effective communication.

A) semantic problems
B) physical distractions
C) filtering and status effects
D) mixed messages
E) nonverbal signals

Question 22

__________ is the intentional distortion of information to make it appear favourable to the recipient.

A) Stereotyping
B) Projection
C) Selective perception
D) Ethnocentrism
E) Filtering

Question 23

__________ is the capacity of a communication channel to carry information in an effective manner.

A) Channel effectiveness
B) Channel capacity
C) Channel richness
D) Channel opportunism
E) Channel carrying capacity

Question 24

Which of the following is NOT an approach that managers and leaders can take to keep communication channels open?

A) Closed-door policy
B) Suggestion boxes
C) Employee advisory councils
D) 360-degree feedback
E) Communication consultants

Question 25

The use of an in-house intranet provides all of the following communication benefits EXCEPT:

A) it eliminates any need for face-to-face meetings.
B) it encourages more freewheeling communication.
C) it facilitates employees helping each other solve problems.
D) it provides opportunities for increased collaboration.
E) it allows employees to easily share ideas and opinions.

Question 26

Guidelines for making a successful oral presentation include all of the following EXCEPT:

A) wing it for a more natural delivery.
B) support the points made in the presentation.
C) use good visual aids.
D) set the right tone.
E) check the technology to be used.

Question 27

Which of the following is NOT a guideline for the active listener?

A) Ignore nonverbal cues.
B) Try to identify how the speaker feels about the message content.
C) Let the source know that his or her feelings are being recognised.
D) Try to hear exactly what is being said in the message.
E) Restate what you think you are hearing.

Question 28

Telephone interruptions, drop-in visitors, and lack of privacy are examples of __________ that can interfere with the effectiveness of a communication attempt.

A) channels
B) mixed messages
C) physical distractions
D) filtering effects
E) status effects

Question 29

The process of helping the source of a message say what he or she really means is called:

A) reflective communication.
B) communication.
C) listening with an open ear.
D) active listening.
E) communicating with intent.

Question 30

__________ barriers to effective communication occur as encoding and decoding errors and as mixed messages.

A) Channel
B) Filtering
C) Semantic
D) Proxemics
E) Feedback

Question 31

Which statement about communication is CORRECT?

A) Communication is essential for gaining the information needed to create an inspirational workplace.
B) Communication is essential for handling conflict and negotiating successfully.
C) Communication is essential for all of the options listed activities.
D) Communication is essential for listening to others.
E) Communication is essential for leading successfully.

Question 32

'Management by wandering around':

A) involves walking around and talking with subordinates about a variety of work-related matters.
B) is a physical manifestation of the chain of command.
C) is personality-oriented rather than work-oriented.
D) reflects the actions of managers who do not have an adequate workload.
E) is a symbolic act with no clear business purpose.

Question 33

A __________ occurs when a person's words communicate one message while his/her actions, body language, appearance or situational use of interpersonal space communicate something else.

A) mixed message
B) cultural difference
C) physical distraction
D) halo effect
E) status effect

Question 34

Which of the following statements provides an INACCURATE description of the role and importance of communication in organisations?

A) Oral and written communication skills are critical for effective leadership.
B) Communication enables people to establish and maintain interpersonal relationships.
C) Communication permits people to influence one another's attitudes, behaviours and understandings.
D) Communication enables people to exchange and share information with each other.
E) Managers can succeed without being good communicators.

Question 35

The amount of interpersonal distance between people suggests varying intentions in terms of:

A) status.
B) intimacy.
C) openness.
D) All of the options listed
E) None of the options listed

Question 36

Difficulties in communication between people from different cultures may result from the tendency to consider one's own culture as superior to all others. This tendency is known as:

A) impression management.
B) the status effect.
C) culture shock.
D) the halo effect.
E) ethnocentrism.

Question 37

When managers receive feedback on their performance from their subordinates, peers, bosses and customers, the organisation is using which communication approach?

A) Multi-company assessment
B) 360-degree feedback
C) Diagonal feedback
D) Downward feedback
E) Lateral feedback

Question 38

Which of the following includes only elements of constructive feedback?

A) Feedback avoids feeling, is given when a receiver is ready to accept it and is checked with others.
B) Feedback is given with real feeling, is general rather than specific and is concerned with things a receiver can actually remedy.
C) Feedback is based on trust, is specific rather than general and is checked with others.
D) Feedback is based on trust, is general rather than specific and is limited to what a receiver can handle.
E) Feedback avoids feeling, is specific rather than general and is concerned with things a receiver can actually remedy.

Question 39

When __________, feedback can be threatening to the recipient and cause resentment.

A) properly done
B) done by top managers
C) done by functional managers
D) done by team leaders
E) poorly done

Question 40

Matthew indicates his preference for the use of interpersonal space by placing a chair in front of his desk for clients to sit in when discussing their orders. Matthew's action is a reflection of:

A) projection.
B) negotiating skill.
C) manipulative behaviour.
D) proxemics.
E) sales management.

Question 41

Using a single attribute to develop an overall impression of a person or situation is called:

A) projection.
B) impression management.
C) the halo effect.
D) selective perception.
E) stereotyping.

Question 42

Singling out for attention those aspects of a situation or attributes of a person that reinforce or are consistent with one's beliefs, values or needs is termed:

A) stereotyping.
B) projection.
C) impression management.
D) the halo effect.
E) selective perception.

Question 43

A man has lunch with his boss (also a man) and is considered to be on his way up in the organisation. A woman has lunch with her boss (a man) and is thought to be having an affair. This is an example of:

A) selective perception.
B) the halo effect.
C) impression management.
D) gender stereotyping.
E) projection.

Question 44

Your boss is a very effective public speaker. You assume that she is also skilled at written communication. This is an example of:

A) projection.
B) ingratiation.
C) the halo effect.
D) stereotyping.
E) selective perception.

Question 45

Which statement is NOT true regarding the win-win conflict management style?

A) It is typically achieved by open confrontation of the issues.
B) It is the most preferred of the interpersonal styles of conflict management.
C) It occurs when the underlying causes of the conflict are eliminated.
D) It permits all relevant issues to be openly discussed.
E) It often occurs when tradeoffs are made.

Question 46

Which of the following statements does NOT correctly describe the impact of perception on interpersonal communication?

A) Tendencies toward perceptual distortion affect interpersonal communications.
B) Perception influences communication and interpersonal relations.
C) People rarely have differing perceptions of the same thing.
D) Perception acts as a filter through which information must pass in interpersonal communication.
E) Individual perceptions are influenced by values, cultural circumstances and the momentary situation.

Question 47

Two recent graduates with computer science degrees applied for a job in computer programming. Both had similar qualifications and had received awards for academic excellence at their respective universities. One of the applicants was deaf. The hiring manager decided to not offer the job to the deaf person because of concerns about how he would perform. What type of stereotyping has affected the manager's perceptions?

A) Ethnic stereotyping
B) Ability stereotyping
C) Gender stereotyping
D) Racial stereotyping
E) Age stereotyping

Question 48

Suppose that a manager begins a program of job enrichment because she enjoys responsibility and challenges and assumes that her employees do also. This manager is practising:

A) selective perception.
B) networking.
C) projection.
D) the halo effect.
E) stereotyping.

Question 49

Stereotypes in the workplace include all the following EXCEPT:

A) racial and ethnic stereotypes.
B) behavioural stereotypes.
C) age stereotypes.
D) gender stereotypes.
E) ability stereotypes.

Question 50

Which of the following statements is NOT a guideline for providing constructive feedback?

A) Give feedback at a time when the receiver seems most willing or able to accept it.
B) Give feedback directly and with real feeling, based on trust between you and the receiver.
C) Give feedback in large doses; the more feedback the receiver has, the more complete understanding he/she will have.
D) Make sure the feedback is valid and limit it to things the receiver can be expected to do something about.
E) Make feedback specific rather than general; use good, clear and preferably recent examples to make your points.

Question 51

Perceptual distortions include all of the following EXCEPT:

A) stereotyping.
B) projection.
C) paranoia.
D) perceptual selectivity.
E) halo effects.

Question 52

Assigning one's personal attributes to another individual is an instance of:

A) projection.
B) impression management.
C) the halo effect.
D) selective perception.
E) stereotyping.

Question 53

When an observer blames another person's performance failures or problems more on internal factors relating to the individual than on external factors related to the environment, the observer is:

A) making a fundamental attribution error.
B) promoting a self-serving bias.
C) doing a legitimate performance appraisal.
D) All of the options listed
E) None of the options listed

Question 54

Which of the following statements is NOT true regarding conflict and conflict resolution?

A) Effective conflict resolution should eliminate the underlying cause for conflict.
B) Managers are usually unable to redirect resolution toward constructive rather than destructive ends.
C) True conflict resolution removes any existing conditions that might rekindle the original conflict.
D) Conflict may remain latent in the situation if it is not resolved.
E) Conflict resolution reduces the potential for similar conflict in the future.

Question 55

Functional or constructive conflict occurs when conflict is:

A) non-existent.
B) very low.
C) moderate.
D) very high.
E) None of the options listed

Question 56

The process through which people receive, organise, and interpret information from their environment is called:

A) impression management.
B) active listening.
C) perception.
D) cognition.
E) communication.

Question 57

Which of the following items does NOT accurately characterise attribution?

A) The process of developing causal explanations for things that happen to people is called attribution.
B) The self-serving bias and the fundamental attribution error provide explanations of the factors that people use in explaining their own and others' behaviour.
C) People tend to perceive the same things in the same way.
D) Attributions can have a profound effect in work settings.
E) People try to explain what they observe and what happens to them.

Question 58

Identifying an individual with a group or category and then linking oversimplified attributes of the category or group back to the individual is the perceptual distortion mechanism of:

A) projection.
B) a neurological disorder.
C) the halo effect.
D) selective perception.
E) stereotyping.

Question 59

The type of conflict that stimulates employees to work toward greater work efforts, cooperation, and creativity is __________ conflict.

A) cooperative
B) concentrated
C) dysfunctional
D) functional
E) destructive

Question 60

Helen is practising active listening but she can't remember the last step. What is it?

A) Respond to feelings
B) Paraphrase and restate
C) Note all cues
D) Listen for message content
E) Listen for feelings

Question 61

Managers may choose different structural approaches for resolving conflicts between individuals or groups. Which of the following is NOT one of these structural approaches?

A) Altering the physical environment by rearranging facilities, workspace and workflows to reduce opportunities for conflict.
B) Changing the people by replacing or transferring one or more of the conflicting parties.
C) Using liaison personnel, special task forces, cross-functional teams or a matrix organisation to change interaction patterns and assist in conflict management.
D) Making more resources available to everyone.
E) Appealing to superordinate goals that focus attention of the conflicting parties on one mutually desirable end state.

Question 62

Antecedent conditions that give rise to conflict include all of the following EXCEPT:

A) superordinate goals.
B) competing objectives.
C) resource scarcities.
D) task interdependencies.
E) role ambiguities.

Question 63

Acceptance of unethical negotiating behaviour or the rationalisation of it can result in which of the following outcomes?

A) Seeking revenge against the offending negotiator
B) Long-run losses for the offending negotiator
C) Losing trust in the offending negotiator
D) Short-run gains for the offending negotiator
E) All of the options listed

Question 64

__________ are concerned with outcomes and the content issues of negotiation.

A) Performance goals
B) Relationship goals
C) Process goals
D) Substance goals
E) Effective goals

Question 65

__________ conflict occurs when no one achieves his or her true desire and the underlying reasons for conflict remain unaffected.

A) Optimising
B) Satisficing
C) Win-win
D) Win-lose
E) Lose-lose

Question 66

When conflict management results in one party achieving its desires and the other party not achieving its desires, a __________ conflict will occur.

A) win-win
B) neutral
C) lose-lose
D) win-lose
E) satisficing

Question 67

__________ conflict is destructive and hurts task performance.

A) Functional
B) Cooperative
C) Constructive
D) Concentrated
E) Dysfunctional

Question 68

Megan is assertive and uncooperative in dealing with others during conflict. She goes against the wishes of others and uses her authority to gain compliance. Megan uses which conflict management style?

A) Compromise
B) Accommodation
C) Collaboration
D) Competition
E) Avoidance

Question 69

__________ is the disagreement between two or more people on substantive or emotional issues.

A) Conflict
B) Social discord
C) Behavioural self-interest
D) Competitiveness
E) Compromise

Question 70

According to the text, which of the following is NOT a cause of conflict?

A) Role ambiguities
B) Unresolved prior conflicts
C) Task interdependencies
D) Structural differentiation
E) Technological advances

Question 71

The __________ negotiation approach focuses on 'win-lose' claims made by each party for certain preferred results.

A) principled
B) distributive
C) integrative
D) substantive
E) desirable

Question 72

Suppose that a manager responds to a disagreement between subordinates by saying: 'I don't want to get in the middle of your personal disputes.' This manager is using which conflict management style?

A) Avoidance
B) Unassertive
C) Collaboration
D) Authoritative command
E) Accommodation

Question 73

The __________ negotiation approach focuses on trying to achieve a 'win-win' solution that considers the interests of all the negotiating parties.

A) desirable
B) distributive
C) unilateral
D) collaborative
E) principled/integrative

Question 74

The effectiveness of negotiations can be evaluated with:

A) harmony.
B) quality.
C) cost.
D) All of the options listed
E) None of the options listed

Question 75

Dysfunctional or destructive conflict occurs when conflict is:

A) very low.
B) moderate.
C) very high.
D) both very low and very high.
E) ranged between moderate and high.

Question 76

The relationship between conflict intensity and performance is best described as:

A) low levels of conflict lead to the most positive outcomes.
B) moderate levels of conflict lead to the most positive outcomes.
C) high levels of conflict lead to the most positive outcomes.
D) zero conflict leads to the most positive outcomes.
E) None of the options listed

Question 77

Which conflict management style is being displayed by a manager who works to partially satisfy everyone's concerns through bargaining or negotiating for acceptable solutions in a conflict situation?

A) Collaboration
B) Compromise
C) Competition
D) Accommodation
E) Avoidance

Question 78

When conflict is resolved to the mutual benefit of all parties, it is called a(n) __________ conflict resolution.

A) optimising
B) neutral
C) win-win
D) win-lose
E) lose-lose

Question 79

Conflict that occurs because of disagreements over things such as goals, the allocation of resources, the distribution of rewards, policies and procedures, or job assignments is referred to as

A) organisational conflict.
B) substantive conflict.
C) administrative conflict.
D) confrontational conflict.
E) emotional conflict.

Question 80

Ken is being cooperative but unassertive with his employees during a conflict situation. He tries to smooth over their differences but it only produces a false sense of harmony among them. Ken is using which conflict management style?

A) Avoidance
B) Collaboration
C) Compromise
D) Competition
E) Accommodation