Deck 3: Genetics, Prenatal Development, and the Neonate

Question 1

A _____ is the genes that a person has for a trait.

A)genotype.
B)phenotype.
C)genetic profile.
D)genome.

Answer 1

A

Question 2

Which of the following is not true of sickle-cell anemia?

A)A carrier of one sickle-cell gene can benefit from it where malaria is common.
B)Sickle-cell anemia is most common among people of central African or Indian descent.
C)People who have two recessive genes for sickle-cell always have the disease.
D)Sickle-cell anemia is commonly passed from one generation to the next.

Answer 2

D

Question 3

The rod-shaped strands of DNA found in the nucleus of cells that contain genetic information are

A)genes.
B)nucleotides.
C)chromosomes.
D)helixes

Answer 3

C

Question 4

Geneticists in recent years have begun to identify genes that

A)cause behavior.
B)are associated with behavior.
C)predetermine behavior.
D)can be used to change behavior.

Question 5

Which of the following is not a nucleotide?

A)adenine
B)thymine
C)guanine
D)phenylalanine

Question 6

Mendel's concept that for each inherited trait, there are two elements of heredity is the

A)law of segregation.
B)law of genetics.
C)law of foundational development.
D)law of successive generations.

Question 7

How many chromosomes does a human zygote begin with at conception?

A)2
B)23
C)46
D)8 million

Question 8

The early understanding of heredity was

A)Genetics is very complex.
B)Like produces like.
C)nonexistent
D)Traits depend on DNA.

Question 9

The only way a recessive trait such as red hair can be expressed in the phenotype is if a person has

A)one recessive gene and one dominant gene.
B)two recessive genes.
C)a sex-linked inheritance.
D)two red-haired parents.

Question 10

Which of the following helps to explain why a great percentage of males are conceived than females?

A)Y-carrying sperm are more resistant to the acidity of the female reproductive tract.
B)X-carrying sperm reach ova faster than do Y-carrying sperm.
C)Y-carrying sperm swim faster than Y-carrying sperm.
D)X-carrying sperm are smaller than Y-carrying sperm.

Question 11

Which of the following is caused by an abnormality of the autosomes?

A)Down syndrome
B)color blindness
C)hemophilia
D)muscular dystrophy

Question 12

The law of independent assortment states that when two traits of a parent are considered,

A)each trait is linked with the other.
B)each trait is inherited independently.
C)each trait has different genes.
D)each trait has different DNA.

Question 13

Mendelian genetics describes well how

A)a single set of genes affects the genotype.
B)sickle-cell anemia is a result of a genetic mutation.
C)genes interact to produce a particular outcome.
D)DNA replicates itself.

Question 14

What are alleles?

A)different types of genes
B)the same versions of a gene
C)different versions of the same gene
D)identical genes

Question 15

Which of the following is true of Turner syndrome?

A)It is caused by an abnormality of the sex chromosomes.
B)It is caused by two X chromosomes.
C)It affects women and men in about equal proportions.
D)It is related to the mother's age when she becomes pregnant.

Question 16

A father's genes determine the sex of an offspring because

A)the mother contributes only Y chromosomes.
B)the mother's chromosomes have no sex cells.
C)the father can contribute an X and or a Y chromosome.
D)the father's chromosomes are dominant.

Question 17

Autosomes are

A)chromosomal pairs 1-22.
B)sex cells.
C)different sizes in males but the same size in females.
D)often labeled X or Y.

Question 18

During mitosis, chromosomes

A)duplicate themselves exactly.
B)mix their genetic material.
C)merge with other chromosomes.
D)transmit genetic information.

Question 19

Which of the following is not true of meiosis?

A)It occurs when sex cells are being formed.
B)It is critical to heredity.
C)The chromosomes duplicate themselves twice in this process.
D)The process guarantees variability in offspring.

Question 20

The main way in which genetic changes are passed from parents to offspring is through

A)dominant genes.
B)alleles.
C)monogenic inheritance.
D)mutations.

Question 21

If genes play an important role in influencing a specific trait, siblings should be more alike in terms of this trait than will be

A)identical twins.
B)fraternal twins.
C)cousins.
D)people who are unrelated to them.

Question 22

Correlations of which of the following are needed to compute heritability, nonshared environmental effects, and shared environmental effects for a trait?

A)identical twins raised together and fraternal twins raised together
B)identical twins raised apart and fraternal twins raised apart
C)identical twins raised together and two non-twin siblings raised together
D)identical twins raised apart and two non-twin siblings raise together

Question 23

Correlational analysis evaluates the similarity of people with different degrees of genetic relatedness for traits that

A)are unusual.
B)create abnormalities
C)remain the same throughout the life span.
D)vary continuously.

Question 24

The external genitalia form and begin to differentiate between male and female during the

A)zygote stage.
B)embryonic stage.
C)fetal stage.
D)tgerminal phase.

Question 25

The prenatal period of a human begins

A)at fertilization.
B)about 3 days after fertilization.
C)about 2 weeks after fertilization.
D)about 3 months after fertilization.

Question 26

Wastes, oxygen, and antibodies are exchanged between the mother and embryo through the

A)amniotic sac.
B)chorionic sac.
C)blastocyst.
D)placenta.

Question 27

Which of the following is not true of heritability?

A)It is a population statistic.
B)It refers to the percentage of the average difference in a trait within a specific population that is inherited.
C)A heritability statistic of 1.0 means that 100% of the differences in a trait is inherited.
D)It refers to how much of any one person's characteristics that are inherited.

Question 28

Scarr and McCartney's theory that a person's genotype influences the environments that he or she encounters and the type of experiences that he or she has is called the

A)evolutionary theory.
B)genotype influences environment theory.
C)environment influences genotype theory.
D)theory of cognition and environment.

Question 29

Advocates of the developmental systems approach argue that behavioral geneticists misrepresent how genes and the environment interact because

A)there is no validity to the theory that genes are associated with behavior.
B)it does not really matter what causes behavior once the behavior exists.
C)genes and the environment do not actually interact.
D)it is impossible to attribute a specific proportionality to genes and to environment.

Question 30

All the organs of the fetus are formed and are in proportion to each other as in a full-term newborn, only they are smaller, by

A)the eighth week.
B)the twelfth week.
C)the fifth month.
D)the seventh month.

Question 31

From Caspi's studies, we can infer that

A)genes shape behavior.
B)interactions between genes and the environment are always clear cut.
C)genes are always expressed in the environment.
D)it is unclear whether genes or the environment shape behavior.

Question 32

Which of the following is sometimes referred to as "the period of the zygote"?

A)the embryonic phase
B)the fetal phase
C)the germinal phase
D)the neonatal phase

Question 33

For measures of cognitive abilities, about ____ of the variance in performance is attributed to genetics and about half of the remaining difference is split between shared and nonshared environment.

A)10%
B)25%
C)50%
D)75%

Question 34

Which of the following is not true?

A)Fraternal twins develop during mitoses.
B)It is possible for fraternal twins to have different fathers.
C)Fraternal twins are produced when two separate ova are fertilized in a month.
D)Fraternal twins are as generically alike as any two siblings.

Question 35

In Caspi's assessment of the relationship among an enzyme called monoamine oxidase (MAOA) activity, childhood rearing environment, and antisocial behavior in adolescent boys, which of the following showed the highest level of antisocial behavior?

A)boys who experienced severe maltreatment and had low MAOA activity
B)boys who experienced severe maltreatment and had high MAOA activity
C)boys who probably experienced maltreatment and had high MAOA activity
D)boys who probably experienced maltreatment and had low MAOA activity

Question 36

Characteristics of children that elicit responses from other people are

A)passive effects.
B)evocative effects.
C)active effects.
D)shared effects.

Question 37

Conception of a human occurs in the

A)ovum.
B)uterus.
C)Fallopian tube.
D)cervix.

Question 38

The final phase of development begins at about the

A)ninth week.
B)fourteenth week.
C)third month.
D)sixth month.

Question 39

Which of the following do not begin to form during the embryonic phase?

A)the organs
B)the sense of touch
C)the sensory organs
D)the circulatory system

Question 40

Heritability refers to the extent to which _________ in any trait within a population are attributed to inheritance.

A)similarities
B)differences
C)mutations
D)commonalities

Question 41

Which of the following substance has not been found to be harmful to a fetus?

A)mercury
B)caffeine
C)sugar
D)radiation

Question 42

The last sense to develop is

A)hearing.
B)vision.
C)touch.
D)smell.

Question 43

Considering health alone, the optimal age for a woman to have a baby is between about

A)16 and 25 years of age.
B)16 and 35 years of age.
C)19 and 35 years of age.
D)18 and 40 years of age.

Question 44

Which of the following describes standard in vitro fertilization?

A)Donor eggs are implanted into the uterus of a postmenopausal woman.
B)Donor eggs are implanted into the uterus of a surrogate mother.
C)A woman's eggs are extracted, fertilized by sperm, and then implanted in the same woman's uterus.
D)Sperm are implanted into the uterus of a woman.

Question 45

The effects on a fetus of a mother contracting rubella or chicken pox

A)are always minimal.
B)are minimal after the third month of pregnancy.
C)are birth defects, regardless of when the mother contracts either one.
D)have not been widely studied.

Question 46

Most infants born with HIV

A)have medical care available to keep them relatively healthy for decades.
B)will not contract AIDs.
C)die within their first year of life.
D)die during ate childhood or adolescence.

Question 47

What is the greatest harm to the growth of a fetus whose mother smokes?

A)High amounts of carbon monoxide pass to the fetus through the placenta.
B)The absorption of oxygen by the fetus increases to dangerous levels.
C)Nicotine builds up in the placenta and blocks the passage of nutrients.
D)The gases contained in cigarette smoke contaminate the amniotic fluid.

Question 48

Birth defects occur in about ________ of all newborns.

A)0.5 %
B)1%
C)3% to 5%
D)5% to 10%

Question 49

A decrease in nutrients and oxygen to the fetus, a weakening of the mother's immune system, and hormone imbalances in the placenta together can be caused by

A)maternal malnourishment.
B)maternal stress.
C)a mother being over the age of 40.
D)multiple fetuses

Question 50

Which of the following is not a cause of a fetus being a danger to itself?

A)chromosomal abnormalities
B)rH factor incompatibility
C)gestational diabetes
D)toxoplasmosis

Question 51

Excessive consumption by pregnant women of which of the following is most harmful to a fetus?

A)cocaine
B)cigarettes
C)marijuana
D)alcohol

Question 52

What is the main reason why fetal malnourishment has lasting effects even after the effects of malnourishment have disappeared?

A)Permanent motor damage is caused by fetal malnourishment.
B)Fetal malnourishment causes children to have very low IQs.
C)Mothers of children who had fetal malnourishment do not provide nourishing diets to children.
D)There is less maternal interest in sickly infants.

Question 53

Which of the following was long thought not to cause harm to a fetus?

A)cocaine
B)marijuana
C)heroin
D)meth

Question 54

In which of the following are about one-fourth of newborns infected by AIDS?

A)the United States
B)Africa
C)Asia
D)South America

Question 55

Substances that come in contact with the fetus through the mother and interfere with normal development are called

A)teratogens.
B)allergens.
C)carcinogens.
D)estrogens.

Question 56

The substance taken by pregnant women between 1956 and 1962 as a sleep aid and to prevent morning sickness that ended up causing severe birth defects to the limbs was

A)the prescription drug diethylstilbestrol.
B)alcohol.
C)the prescription drug thalidomide.
D)heroin.

Question 57

The condition in which fathers-to-be experience symptoms of pregnancy is called

A)Couvade syndrome.
B)Turner syndrome.
C)distress syndrome.
D)Down syndrome.

Question 58

Women who have ______ are usually advised to have a C-section to prevent infection to the infant.

A)gonorrhea
B)syphilis
C)cytomegalovirus
D)herpes simplex 2

Question 59

Which of the following is not true of cephalocaudal development?

A)It is characterized by fetus' heads being large in proportion to the rest of their bodies.
B)It allows the brain to develop early to promote survival.
C)It is also called head-upward development.
D)It continues throughout early childhood.

Question 60

Ideally, pregnant women should consume about _______ calories of food each day that contains adequate amounts of vitamins and minerals to ensure the development of a healthy baby.

A)1,000 to 2,000
B)2,700 to 3,000
C)3,100 to 4,600
D)4,700 to 5,000

Question 61

The autostimulation theory emphasizes the importance of REM sleep to the development of infants'

A)vision.
B)hearing.
C)visualization.
D)vocalization.

Question 62

The successful practice of using kangaroo care to treat infants was developed in

A)the United States.
B)Australia.
C)Sweden.
D)Columbia.

Question 63

Infants who weigh less than 3.3 pounds at birth are labeled

A)low birth weight.
B)very low birth weight.
C)extremely low birth rate.
D)dangerously low birth weight.

Question 64

Which of the following is not evaluated in an Apgar test?

A)reflex irritability
B)muscle tone
C)color
D)bone strength

Question 65

Pregnancy sickness

A)usually occurs late in a pregnancy.
B)can harm the fetus.
C)is a mechanism to protect the fetus.
D)has no effect on the fetus.

Question 66

Why do touch therapy and kangaroo care have substantial benefits for premature infants?

A)They help to calm premature infants, who tend to cry excessively.
B)They provide an environment that is similar to that of neonatal intensive care units.
C)They release hormones that facilitate brain development in infants and mother-infant bonding.
D)They help the infants develop their own sense of touch.

Question 67

Infant mortality in modern societies is usually

A)less than 5 deaths per 1,000 births.
B)about 43.5 deaths per 1,000 births.
C)about 5%.
D)about 10 %.

Question 68

Most infants begin to seep through the night when they are about

A)two weeks old.
B)two months old.
C)four months old.
D)a year old.

Question 69

The removal of a small amount of fluid from the amniotic sac between the 12th and 16th weeks of pregnancy in order to examine the fetal cells that are present in the fluid is called

A)chorionic biopsies.
B)amniocentesis.
C)preimplantation genetic diagnosis.
D)fetoscopy.

Question 70

Recent evidence has shown that the benefits to IQ of breastfeeding are

A)related to the strong bonding of the mother and infant.
B)related to a specific gene.
C)related to the beneficial nutrients of the mother's milk.
D)not related in any way.

Question 71

All of the following are common for healthy neonates except

A)misshapen and bruised faces.
B)very pink skin.
C)strong, inflexible skulls.
D)a covering of white, downy hair.

Question 72

The time during which the cervix begins to dilate, the birth canal softens, and the uterus undergoes rhythmic contractions that become increasingly stronger is called

A)breaking water.
B)the neonatal period.
C)labor.
D)delivery.

Question 73

Which is not a common reason for a woman to need to have a baby delivered surgically?

A)The mother's health might make the birth process to difficult for her.
B)The baby's head is too large for the mother's pelvic structure.
C)The baby is in a breech position.
D)The baby has chromosomal damage.

Question 74

What accounts for a human infant's head being about as big as it can be and still pass through the birth canal?

A)the fact that humans are mammals
B)the fact that humans walk upright
C)the fact that humans are primates
D)the fact that women's pelvises are smaller than those of men.

Question 75

The states of arousal in neonates as described by Wolff include all of the following except

A)quiet sleep.
B)drowsiness.
C)crying.
D)eating.

Question 76

The trend in recent decades for women to nurse their babies, at least for several months after birth, is a result of the belief that, among other things,

A)infants who are bottle-fed are more likely to develop social and behavioral problems.
B)infant who are bottle-fed are more likely to become obese.
C)mother's milk is more nutritious than infant formula.
D)mother's milk provides protective and preventive components such as antibodies.

Question 77

Many premature infants suffer from

A)cardiac arrest.
B)undeveloped brains.
C)respiratory distress syndrome.
D)birth defects.

Question 78

About what percentage of new mothers experience some level of postpartum depression?

A)1%
B)10%
C)25%
D)50%

Question 79

Typically, infants need to be fed

A)about three times a day.
B)about six times a day.
C)every hour.
D)based on the schedule that the mother has established.

Question 80

Which of the following was not one of the reasons why bottle-feeding and infant formula was so popular and accepted by both doctors and mothers in the mid-20th century?

A)It allowed family members other than the mother to participate in feeding infants.
B)It allowed mothers to return to work more conveniently.
C)It gave mothers the freedom to spend less time with the constant demands of infants.
D)It helped mother who had trouble breastfeeding.