Deck 10: Human Development Across the Life Span

Question 1

The cell mass that develops from the fertilized egg implants itself in the uterine wall during the _____ stage of prenatal development.

A)fertilization
B)fetal
C)embryonic
D)germinal

Answer 1

germinal

Question 2

The stage of prenatal development during which most miscarriages are likely to occur is the _____ stage.

A)zygotic
B)germinal
C)fetal
D)embryonic

Answer 2

embryonic

Question 3

Chelsey is pregnant and is concerned about taking an over-the-counter medication for her allergies. She should be MOST concerned if her pregnancy is currently at the _____ stage.

A)placental
B)germinal
C)fetal
D)embryonic

Answer 3

embryonic

Question 4

The third stage of prenatal development, which lasts from two months through birth, is referred to as the _____ stage.

A)postgerminal
B)embryonic
C)fetal
D)postnatal

Question 5

Felicia is pregnant, and her blood pressure has become dangerously high. Her doctor wants to deliver her baby by Cesarean section, even though Felicia is only 26 weeks pregnant. If Felicia's baby is delivered at this point in her pregnancy, the baby will have

A)less than a 10% chance of survival.
B)approximately a 25% chance of survival.
C)approximately a 67% chance of survival.
D)virtually a 100% chance of survival.

Question 6

Omar's wife conceived a baby seven days ago and does not yet know she is pregnant. His wife's pregnancy is currently in the _____ stage.

A)germinal
B)embryonic
C)fetal
D)placental

Question 7

A one-celled organism formed by the union of a sperm and egg is known as a(n)

A)zygote.
B)germinal.
C)embryo.
D)fetus.

Question 8

During which of the following stages of development do the heart, spine, and brain emerge?

A)Postnatal
B)Placental
C)Fetal
D)Embryonic

Question 9

Both Amy and Barb are pregnant. Currently, Amy's pregnancy is in the shortest stage of prenatal development and Barb's is in the longest stage. Amy's pregnancy is in the _____ stage, and Barb's is in the _____ stage.

A)germinal; fetal
B)embryonic; fetal
C)germinal; embryonic
D)fetal; germinal

Question 10

Avery is excited because she has begun to feel her baby kicking and moving in her uterus. If Avery can feel her baby moving, her pregnancy must be in the _____ stage.

A)embryonic
B)germinal
C)fetal
D)neonatal

Question 11

At the end of the _____ stage of prenatal development, the developing organism is about one inch long and has already developed most of the vital organs and bodily structures.

A)germinal
B)embryonic
C)zygote
D)fetal

Question 12

Low birth weight has been shown to be associated with an increased risk of _____ later in adulthood.

A)heart disease
B)schizophrenia
C)mental retardation
D)delayed motor and mental development

Question 13

Premature babies who survive are typically born during the _____ stage.

A)germinal
B)embryonic
C)fetal
D)postnatal

Question 14

The structure that allows both oxygen and nutrients to pass into the fetus from the mother's bloodstream and bodily wastes to pass out to the mother's bloodstream is the ​

A)uterine wall.
B)zygote.
C)placenta.
D)proximodistal organ.

Question 15

The age of viability, referring to the age at which the fetus _____, is reached _____.

A)can first respond to stimulation; at about 9 weeks
B)can survive if born prematurely; between 23 and 25 weeks
C)first has a heartbeat; at about 16 weeks
D)experiences no further cell division in the brain; between 36 and 38 weeks

Question 16

Severe maternal malnutrition increases the risk of ​

A)heart defects and irritability.
B)birth complications and neurological defects.
C)mental retardation.
D)delayed motor and mental development.

Question 17

The correct sequence of the stages of prenatal development are

A)germinal, fetal, embryonic.
B)embryonic, fetal, germinal.
C)germinal, embryonic, fetal.
D)fetal, germinal, embryonic.

Question 18

The embryonic stage of prenatal development refers to the

A)formation of a zygote.
B)implantation of the fertilized egg into the uterine wall.
C)second through eighth weeks of prenatal development.
D)last seven months of the pregnancy.

Question 19

The sequence of age-related changes that occur as a person progresses from conception to death is known as

A)maturation.
B)the perinatal period.
C)development.
D)childhood.

Question 20

The prenatal period refers to the

A)period from conception to implantation.
B)nine months from conception to birth.
C)period of time immediately after birth.
D)time period before conception takes place.

Question 21

The potential damage due to prenatal exposure to maternal illness is a function of ​

A)when the mother contracts the disease.
B)the severity of the mother's symptoms.
C)the condition of the mother's overall health.
D)whether the unborn child is male or female.

Question 22

By about 14 months, 90% of children are able to stand well alone. This is known as

A)cultural variation.
B)a developmental norm.
C)the genetic blueprint.
D)maturation.

Question 23

According to behavioral theory, which of the following BEST explains how children develop special attachments to their mothers?

A)The mother provides innate contact comfort to the infant.
B)The infant is biologically programmed to emit behavior that triggers a protective response from adult females.
C)The mother becomes a conditioned reinforcer because she is associated with the reinforcing act of being fed.
D)Maternal attachment behavior is the result of reproductive fitness.

Question 24

Which of the following BEST explains how John Bowlby believed children develop special attachments to their mothers?

A)The mother provides innate contact comfort to the infant.
B)The infant is biologically programmed to emit behavior that triggers a protective response from adults.
C)The mother becomes a conditioned reinforcer because she is associated with the reinforcing act of being fed.
D)Maternal attachment behavior is the result of reproductive fitness.

Question 25

If a baby is born with a small head, heart defects, and retarded mental and motor development, the mother is MOST likely to have ​

A)had smallpox early in her pregnancy.
B)been an alcoholic.
C)continued to work during pregnancy.
D)smoked during pregnancy.

Question 26

Preschool children who had secure attachments during infancy tend to display all of the following characteristics EXCEPT

A)greater curiosity.
B)better peer relationships.
C)higher levels of moral reasoning.
D)more self-reliance.

Question 27

When Fred's mother was pregnant with him, she lived in an area with very high levels of air pollution. Based on research, Fred will be at increased risk for which of the following at age five?

A)Lung cancer
B)Heart disease
C)Impaired cognitive development
D)Asthma

Question 28

Joyce was severely malnourished during her pregnancy. As a result, her baby is MOST likely to have

A)malformations of the arms and legs.
B)a small head, heart defects, and irritability.
C)attention deficit disorder and to die from sudden infant death syndrome.
D)complications at birth and neurological deficits.

Question 29

Kara takes her one-year-old son, Delaney, to visit a day-care center where she plans to enroll him. Delaney appears very anxious and is unwilling to explore the playroom, even though Kara is close by. When his mom leaves the room to fill out some forms, Delaney becomes extremely upset. When Kara returns, he clings to her leg but does not calm down and continues to sob. This is the type of interaction you might observe between a child and a parent who

A)share a secure attachment relationship.
B)share an avoidant attachment relationship.
C)have not yet developed an attachment relationship.
D)share an anxious-ambivalent attachment relationship.

Question 30

You are having a discussion on attachment behavior, and your friend says that she believes that mothers are biologically programmed to respond to babies' coos, smiling, and clinging with warmth and love. Which of the following theorists is MOST likely to agree with your friend's views?

A)Harry Harlow
B)Mary Ainsworth
C)John Bowlby
D)Jay Belsky

Question 31

Which of the following is associated with increased risk of stillbirth, impaired immune responses, and social deficits?

A)Moderate prenatal malnutrition
B)Prenatal exposure to pollution
C)Prenatal stress
D)Prenatal narcotic exposure

Question 32

Which of the following is NOT associated with maternal smoking during pregnancy?

A)Increased risk of miscarriage or stillbirth
B)Heart defects
C)Hyperactivity
D)Increased risk of sudden infant death syndrome

Question 33

Maturation is ​

A)the age at which a baby can survive in the event of a premature birth.
B)the sequence of age-related changes that occur as a person progresses from conception to death.
C)development that reflects experience and learning.
D)development that reflects the gradual unfolding of one's genetic blueprint.

Question 34

Mercedes takes her one-year-old son, Justice, to visit a day-care center where she plans to enroll him. Justice eagerly explores the playroom as long as Mercedes is present. When his mom leaves the room to fill out some forms, Justice becomes somewhat upset, but when Mercedes returns, he quickly calms down. This is the type of interaction you might observe between a child and a parent who

A)share an avoidant attachment relationship.
B)share an anxious-ambivalent attachment relationship.
C)share a secure attachment relationship.
D)have not yet developed an attachment relationship.

Question 35

Which of the following is associated with maternal smoking during pregnancy?

A)Increased risk of microcephaly
B)Heart defects
C)Conduct problems
D)Decreased risk of sudden infant death syndrome

Question 36

The close, emotional bond of affection between an infant and its caregiver is called ​

A)attachment.
B)dependency.
C)imprinting.
D)identification.

Question 37

Developmental norms indicate the

A)mean age at which individuals display behaviors and abilities.
B)median age at which individuals display behaviors and abilities.
C)modal age at which individuals display behaviors and abilities.
D)exact age at which individuals display behaviors and abilities.

Question 38

The most common known cause of intellectual disability is

A)maternal stress.
B)fetal alcohol syndrome.
C)malnutrition.
D)teratogens.

Question 39

The fact that children in different cultures _____ in the age at which basic motor skills appear demonstrates that _____.

A)vary somewhat; genetic factors can slow or accelerate early motor development
B)vary somewhat; environmental factors can slow or accelerate early motor development
C)do not vary; genetic factors alone determine early motor development
D)do not vary; environmental factors have little impact on early motor development

Question 40

Research into the process of motor development suggests that ​

A)development gradually unfolds in a sequence of preprogrammed physical changes.
B)progress is attributed to infants' exploration of their world and their need to master specific tasks.
C)motor development progresses as children gain control over their hips and legs and then their shoulders and arms.
D)genetically programmed physical changes determine when a child crawls and walks.

Question 41

After the first word is spoken, ​

A)vocabulary immediately grows at an extremely rapid pace.
B)further increases in vocabulary occur very slowly and steadily.
C)vocabulary growth is slow for several months and then speeds up dramatically.
D)no further vocabulary growth takes place until around 18 months.

Question 42

Harlow's research with monkeys raised with two types of artificial mothers found that when frightened, infant monkeys went to the artificial mother that ​

A)provided food.
B)did not provide food.
C)was made of cloth.
D)was made of wire.

Question 43

Harlow's finding that "contact comfort" is an important factor in forming attachment is LEAST consistent with the views expressed by

A)humanists.
B)psychoanalysts.
C)behaviorists.
D)evolutionary psychologists.

Question 44

A child who says, "I sawed a cat in the yard," is making which of the following errors?

A)Overextension
B)Underextension
C)Overregularization
D)Underregularization

Question 45

Jenna is 14 months old and uses only "bottle," "no," "up," "bye-bye," "mama," and "dada" when she talks. However, when the family is on their way to visit Jenna's grandm ​ other, and her father tells Jenna to get her blue bunny from the bedroom and bring it with her, Jenna quickly runs to get the bunny. This episode demonstrates that

A)toddlers' receptive vocabularies are larger than their productive vocabularies.
B)toddlers' productive vocabularies are larger than their receptive vocabularies.
C)infants have difficulty pronouncing phonemes they have never heard.
D)Jenna is able to overextend her current vocabulary.

Question 46

Jasmin takes her one-year-old son, Randy, to visit a day-care center where she plans to enroll him. Randy eagerly explores the playroom, and when his mom leaves the room to fill out some forms, he shows no signs of concern. When Jasmin returns, he shows little interest and continues to play with the toys he has collected. This is the type of interaction you might observe between a child and a parent who

A)share an anxious-ambivalent attachment relationship.
B)share a secure attachment relationship.
C)have not yet developed an attachment relationship.
D)share an avoidant attachment relationship.

Question 47

Dean ate ice cream for the first time yesterday. All day today, he has been asking for ice cream. This would be an example of

A)metalinguistic awareness.
B)fast mapping.
C)overextension.
D)semantic slanting.

Question 48

Children receiving low-quality day care are especially vulnerable to attachment problems when

A)they have an easy temperament.
B)their mothers are insensitive to them.
C)they have a difficult temperament.
D)their mothers are highly sensitive to them.

Question 49

Avoidant attachments seem to be _____ common in German infants and _____ common in Japanese infants than in American infants.

A)more; more
B)more; less
C)less; more
D)less; less

Question 50

The vocabulary spurt typically begins at around _____ months.

A)6
B)10
C)18
D)24

Question 51

For the first several months of Jasmine's life, she was unconcerned when her parents left her with a babysitter, but at around 7 months, she began to cry every time this happened. Jasmine is experiencing

A)ambivalent attachment.
B)insecure attachment.
C)separation anxiety.
D)delayed development.

Question 52

You are listening to two-year-old Annie as she says "No eat. No like." She is trying to let you know that she is not going to eat her broccoli because she doesn't like it. Annie's communication illustrates the use of ​

A)underextension.
B)telegraphic speech.
C)semantic slanting.
D)overregularization.

Question 53

Which of the following is the BEST example of overregularization? ​

A)I eated a cookie.
B)Cookie.
C)I wanted a cookie.
D)Give cookie.

Question 54

Underextension would be evident if a three-year-old child ​

A)used a word too broadly.
B)used telegraphic speech to communicate complex ideas.
C)used a word too narrowly.
D)failed to utilize fast mapping.

Question 55

Kailee has learned the word "kitty," but she uses this word when she is referring to cats, bunnies, squirrels, and other small furry animals. Kailee's use of this word illustrates ​

A)overextension.
B)fast mapping.
C)telegraphic speech.
D)babbling.

Question 56

Typically, infants with _____ attachments exhibit little, if any, distress when their mothers leave the room.

A)especially strong
B)secure
C)anxious-ambivalent
D)avoidant

Question 57

If Beth is a typical infant, she will first show signs of understanding the meaning of familiar words at about _____ months of age.

A)1 to 3
B)6 to 9
C)10 to 12
D)14 to 16

Question 58

A child's first words are generally spoken at about _____ months of age.

A)3 to 5
B)6 to 8
C)10 to 13
D)18 to 21

Question 59

Separation anxiety typically develops when infants are about _____ months old and peaks at around _____ months.

A)2-4; 10-12
B)6-8; 14-18
C)9-11; 13-15
D)12; 24

Question 60

Which of the following tends to enhance children's language development?

A)Attending day care
B)Parents responding to children's communication efforts
C)Parents speaking little to their children so the children focus on listening to words
D)Parents limiting their speech to a few words so the child hears repetition

Question 61

Five-year-old Steve gets along well with his parents and siblings, has self-confidence, and believes that he is a good boy. Steve has most recently successfully resolved the crisis of

A)initiative versus guilt.
B)industry versus inferiority.
C)autonomy versus shame and doubt.
D)trust versus mistrust.

Question 62

Craig is two years old and likes to put on his own coat and shoes. However, his mother often becomes impatient waiting for him to get ready, so she usually finishes zipping his coat and tying his shoes for him. Based on Erikson's theory, Craig will likely develop

A)a general sense of mistrust.
B)feelings of shame and doubt.
C)a sense of inferiority.
D)feelings of autonomy.

Question 63

During Erikson's crisis of autonomy versus shame and doubt, a child should begin to take some responsibility for his feeding and dressing. As a result, the child should gain a sense of self-sufficiency. This stage occurs from _____ years of age.

A)birth to 1
B)2 to 3
C)4 to 5
D)6 to 7

Question 64

The elementary school-age child who does well in school and receives praise and support at home will develop what Erikson calls a sense of

A)industry.
B)superiority.
C)generativity.
D)trust.

Question 65

A child who successfully completes stage 1 of Erikson's stages of psychosocial development will acquire

A)an ability to initiate his or her own activities.
B)self-sufficiency.
C)a sense of competence.
D)optimism and trust toward the world.

Question 66

For Erikson, the stage during which toilet training occurs is

A)trust versus mistrust.
B)industry versus inferiority.
C)autonomy versus shame and doubt.
D)initiative versus guilt.

Question 67

Piaget believed that children began to understand the concept of object permanence beginning around the age of

A)4 months.
B)18 months.
C)2 years.
D)7 years.

Question 68

Typically, individuals concerned with the crisis of trust versus mistrust are in the _____ stage of cognitive development.

A)preoperational
B)sensorimotor
C)formal operational
D)concrete operational

Question 69

If an infant's basic biological needs are met by others and sound attachments are formed during the first year of life, the infant will MOST likely successfully resolve the crisis associated with the _____ stage.

A)industry versus inferiority
B)trust versus mistrust
C)autonomy versus shame and doubt
D)initiative versus guilt

Question 70

The challenge of learning to function in society and beyond the family marks Erikson's childhood stage of ​

A)initiative versus guilt.
B)trust versus mistrust.
C)autonomy versus shame and doubt.
D)industry versus inferiority.

Question 71

To Piaget, cognitive development involves ​

A)stages that are characterized by fundamentally different thought processes.
B)increases in the quantity, but not the quality, of knowledge with age.
C)passive reception of environmental stimuli.
D)age-related changes in attention and memory.

Question 72

Assumptions of stage theorists of development include all of the following EXCEPT

A)individuals progress through specified stages in a particular order.
B)progress through stages is strongly related to age.
C)progress through stages is strongly related to physical maturation.
D)development is marked by discontinuities that guide in dramatic changes in behavior.

Question 73

During Erikson's crisis of industry versus inferiority, a child should learn to function well in the broader social structure of the neighborhood and school. As a result, the child should gain a sense of competence. This stage occurs from

A)birth to 1 year.
B)1 to 3 years.
C)3 to 6 years.
D)6 years through puberty.

Question 74

Anne is five years old and likes to help with jobs around the house. Tonight, when she was clearing the dishes from the table, she dropped a stack of plates and broke them all. Her father scolded her and told her that she could help more by staying out of the way and letting her older brothers clear the table. If her father's reaction is typical of the interactions she has with him, Erikson would suggest that Anne is likely to develop ​

A)feelings of guilt.
B)feelings of inferiority.
C)a general sense of mistrust.
D)a sense of initiative.

Question 75

The challenge of learning to function, take personal responsibility for feeding, and self-dressing marks Erikson's childhood stage of ​

A)initiative versus guilt.
B)trust versus mistrust.
C)autonomy versus shame and doubt.
D)industry versus inferiority.

Question 76

Stage theories of development assume that ​

A)individuals progress through specified stages in a particular order because each stage builds on the previous stage.
B)environmental circumstances can sometimes cause individuals to skip stages early on and return to them later.
C)progress through the sequence of stages is not related to age.
D)there are few, if any, discontinuities in development.

Question 77

In relation to age, which of the following does NOT belong with the others?

A)Development of secondary sex characteristics
B)Autonomy versus shame
C)Formal operations
D)Postconventional moral reasoning

Question 78

Typically, individuals concerned with the crisis of initiative versus guilt are in the _____ stage of cognitive development.

A)preoperational
B)concrete operational
C)sensorimotor
D)formal operational

Question 79

Erik Erikson's developmental stages are organized around potential turning points called ​

A)fixation points.
B)psychosocial crises.
C)developmental tasks.
D)psychosexual crises.

Question 80

Kyler is nine years old and likes to draw and paint. However, he doesn't receive very good grades on his art projects, and his friends often laugh at the pictures he creates. Based on Erikson's theory, Kyler will likely develop

A)feelings of guilt.
B)feelings of inferiority.
C)a sense of despair.
D)a sense of industry.