Deck 17: Police and the Courts Investigation Arrest and Adjudication

Question 1

It has been argued that ________________ encourages defendants to waive their constitutional right to a trial.

Answer 1

plea bargaining

Question 2

The ________________________ has jurisdiction over federal laws, such as espionage, sabotage, treason, civil rights violations, kidnapping, and interstate transportation of stolen vehicles and property.

Answer 2

Federal Bureau of Investigation (FBI)

Question 3

The _____________________is a federal-level law enforcement agency whose officers help implement federal court rulings, transport prisoners, and enforce court orders.

Answer 3

U.S. Marshals

Question 4

The ___________________ Amendment to the Constitution provides for the right to a speedy, public trial by an impartial jury.

Question 5

The _____________ is empowered to negotiate a guilty plea with the defendant, thereby ending the formal trial process.  This is termed "plea bargaining."

Question 6

Also called the venire, _____________________ is the initial list of persons chosen, which provides the state with a group of citizens potentially capable of serving on a jury.

Question 7

The practice of ___________________ occurs when defendants are denied bail because of the danger they present to the community.

Question 8

_____________________ is an aggressive strategy in which police play an active role in identifying particular community problems and developing strategies to counteract them.

Question 9

The police and other law enforcement agents (such as federal agents) are the ________________ of the criminal justice process.

Question 10

One of the primary goals of police work is to deter criminal behavior.  However, the ________________ study found that variations in police patrol had little effect on the crime patterns in the study districts.

Question 11

______________________________involves assigning officers to a particular area to proactively investigate suspicious activities and to enforce existing gun, drug, traffic, and related laws.

Question 12

The _________________________ is the process in which a potential jury panel is questioned by the prosecution and the defense to select jurors who are unbiased and objective.

Question 13

Information provided by a suspect that leads to the seizure of incriminating evidence is permissible if the evidence would have been obtained anyway by other means or sources.  This is termed ____________.

Question 14

_______________is a type of indigent defense whereby appointments are made from a list of private attorneys who accept cases on a judge-by-judge, court-by-court, or case-by-case basis.

Question 15

In 1985 the Supreme Court ruled in _________________ that if a single act violates the laws of two states, the offender may be punished for each offense under the dual sovereignty doctrine.

Question 16

______________________ allow the prosecution and defense to excuse jurors for no particular reason or for an undisclosed reason.

Question 17

Evidence that was not used when the prosecution initially presented its case is referred to as ________________________.

Question 18

A ________________ search is valid if it is made incident to a lawful arrest.

Question 19

The questioning of one's own (prosecution or defense) witness during a trial is known as ____________________.

Question 20

Within the multitiered court structures of most states,  _____________ courts review the criminal procedures of trial courts to determine whether the offenders were treated fairly.

Question 21

In 1870, the U.S. Department of Justice became involved in policing when the attorney general hired investigators to enforce _______________.   This eventually led to the formation of the FBI.

A) prohibition
B) the Mann Act
C) antislavery legislation
D) Philip Stahl Anti-Trust Act

Question 22

When an officer does not have probable cause to arrest but her or his suspicions are legitimately aroused by the unusual or suspicious behavior of an individual, the officer can:

A) request an arrest warrant.
B) perform a stop and frisk.
C) request immediate backup.
D) conduct a search incident to an arrest.

Question 23

Information provided by a suspect that leads to the seizure of incriminating evidence is permissible if the evidence would have been obtained anyway by other means or sources. This is referred to as:

A) the public safety doctrine.
B) the plain view doctrine.
C) the Miranda evidence discovery rule.
D) the inevitable discovery rule.

Question 24

Which of the following is not accurate regarding today's top priorities of the Federal Bureau of Investigation?

A) protecting the United States from terrorist attacks
B) protecting civil rights
C) combating white-collar crime
D) combating public corruption at the federal level

Question 25

Which of the following is considered to be the first state police force?

A) Connecticut State Police
B) Massachusetts Police
C) Pennsylvania State Police
D) Texas Rangers

Question 26

Which of the following is not among the tasks performed by patrol officers?

A) enhance public safety by maintaining a visible police presence
B) promote public safety and crime prevention
C) inhibit the movement of traffic and people
D) maintain public order

Question 27

What is known about adding more police officers to help bring down the crime rate?

A) Adding police deters minor offenders but has no impact on violent crime.
B) Adding police increases citizens' fear of crime.
C) Adding police has no impact on crime levels.
D) Adding police may reduce crime levels.

Question 28

Under which circumstances can police officers not perform a warrantless search?

A) when consent to search is willingly given
B) when it is performed incident to a lawful arrest
C) if there is probable cause to believe an automobile was involved in a crime
D) when a housesitter allows the officers to enter and search the premises

Question 29

Police and other law enforcement agents are termed the gatekeepers of society because:

A) Gatekeepers was a historic term associated with the London Metropolitan Police.
B) Police initiate contact with law violators.
C) Police provide security in American society.
D) Gatekeeping involves opening and closing a flow; thus, police discretion controls the gates of the justice system.

Question 30

Recent court rulings pertaining to Miranda warnings have:

A) led to the exoneration of a wave of convicted offenders who were illegally interrogated.
B) caused a backlog of appeals pertaining to the admissibility of evidence.
C) reduced police powers as they pertain to interrogation.
D) given police greater leeway in their actions.

Question 31

In ________________________, the Court ruled that African American defendants accused of murdering whites are entitled to have jurors questioned about their racial bias

Question 32

Assigning officers to a particular area to proactively investigate suspicious activities and to enforce existing gun, drug, traffic, and related laws is termed:

A) strategic patrol.
B) proactive patrol.
C) directed patrol.
D) targeted patrol.

Question 33

The Supreme Court has used case law to define the boundaries of the Miranda warning since this landmark decision was handed down.  Which is inaccurate pertaining to these boundaries?

A) Suspects must be fully aware of all the possible outcomes of waiving their rights for the Miranda warning to be considered to have been given properly.
B) Admissible evidence can be obtained without a Miranda warning if the information sought is needed to protect public safety.
C) At trial, the testimony of a witness is permissible even if her or his identity was revealed by the defendant in violation of the Miranda rule.
D) Once a criminal suspect has invoked his or her Miranda rights, police officials cannot reinitiate interrogation in the absence of counsel.

Question 34

A classic attempt to measure police patrol effectiveness was the Kansas City study.  What did this study indicate about the effectiveness of police patrol?

A) that proactive patrol reduced crime
B) that variations in patrol had little effect on crime patterns
C) that reactive patrol reduced crime but only in residential areas
D) that citizens' attitudes toward police became more favorable as patrol increased

Question 35

The group called for jury duty from which jury panels are selected is called the _______________________

Question 36

Nearly all sheriffs' departments provide basic law enforcement services and investigate crimes.  Many sheriffs' departments also maintain:

A) state sex-offender registries.
B) the county courts.
C) the county jail.
D) automated fingerprint identification systems.

Question 37

The investigation of crimes occurs in a variety of ways.  Which of the following is not a practice of detectives to investigate criminals?

A) becoming familiar with an offender's modus operandi
B) working undercover and impersonating customers to look for illicit activities
C) having victims or witnesses identify offenders by viewing mug shots or through a lineup
D) responding to the initial call for help

Question 38

In Richmond Newspapers Inc. v. Commonwealth of Virginia (1980), the U.S. Supreme Court interpreted the First Amendment to mean that members of the press (and the public) have a right to ___________________.

Question 39

The right to be protected from _____________ was made applicable to the states through the Fourteenth Amendment in the case of Benton v. Maryland.

Question 40

In the critically important case of _______________________, the Court granted the absolute right to counsel in all felony cases.

Question 41

When the U.S. Supreme Court words a decision in such a way that it becomes a precedent and must be honored by all lower courts it is termed a:

A) certiorari decision.
B) hallmark decision.
C) writ decision.
D) landmark decision.

Question 42

Which of the following is not a role or responsibility of the judge?

A) guiding the questioning of witnesses
B) settling questions of evidence and procedure
C) charging the jury
D) negotiating a plea bargain with the accused

Question 43

Which of the following would not motivate a defendant to plea bargain?

A) to reduce a sentences
B) to avoid detention and trial
C) to protect accomplices
D) to minimize cooperation

Question 44

Which of the following (partial) ordering of events accurately reflects the trial process?

A) charging the jury, opening statements, direct examination, redirect examination, rebuttal, closing arguments, charging the jury, verdict
B) charging the jury, opening statements, direct examination, rebuttal, redirect examination, closing arguments, charging the jury, verdict
C) opening statements, direct examination, cross examination, rebuttal, closing arguments, charging the jury, verdict
D) opening statements, charging the jury, direct examination, redirect examination, rebuttal, closing arguments, verdict

Question 45

The typical state court structure includes lower courts that try _______, superior courts that try ________, and appellate courts that review the procedures of trial courts to determine whether offenders were treated fairly.

A) traffic offenses, misdemeanor and felony cases
B) misdemeanor cases, felony cases
C) felony cases, misdemeanor cases
D) juvenile cases, adult cases

Question 46

The first stage of the trial process involves:

A) jury selection.
B) negotiating a plea bargain.
C) charging the jury.
D) setting bail.

Question 47

A charge identifies the criminal activity, the facts of the case, and the circumstances of the arrest. What is this document called in the case of misdemeanor offenses?

A) a bill of indictment
B) a complaint
C) an information
D) a nolle prosequi

Question 48

The bail system goes back to English common law and is meant to ensure the appearance of the defendant at trial.  Who actually sets the amount of bail?

A) a probation officer
B) a prosecutor
C) a magistrate
D) a court bailiff

Question 49

Which of the following is not accurate pertaining to what is known about bail?

A) Bail penalizes indigent offenders who do not have the means to pay bond.
B) Failing to make bail appears to increase the risk of being convicted and the degree of punishment received.
C) Most states place no limit on the amount of bail that may be imposed.
D) The right to bail comes from the Sixth Amendment of the Constitution.

Question 50

Which of the following components is not an element of community-oriented policing?

A) identifying neighborhood problems
B) getting to know citizens
C) responding to calls for help
D) maintaining a police presence in the community

Question 51

In felony cases, plea bargaining usually occurs:

A) after arrest and before arraignment.
B) between arraignment and the onset of a trial.
C) during the trial.
D) after the trial but before sentencing.

Question 52

Some defendants are detained because they cannot make bail. If a defendant is denied bail because of the danger he or she poses to society, the detention is termed:

A) anticipatory detention.
B) preemptive detention.
C) protective detention.
D) preventive detention.

Question 53

An aggressive policing strategy that identifies and focuses on a specific crime or specific criminals and then develops strategies to counteract them is known as:

A) community policing.
B) problem-oriented policing.
C) intelligence-led policing.
D) community-led policing.

Question 54

Which form of indigent defense involves a salaried staff of full- or part-time attorneys who provide services through a public or private nonprofit organization or as direct government (court) paid employees?

A) contract counsel
B) assigned counsel
C) public defender
D) court advocate counsel

Question 55

Which of the following is not a role of the prosecutor?

A) determining the charges to be brought against a suspect
B) negotiating a guilty plea with the defendant
C) charging the jury
D) issuing a nolle prosequi

Question 56

Today, more than ___ of criminal convictions are estimated to result from the negotiated process of plea bargaining.

A) 60%
B) 70 %
C) 80 %
D) 90 %

Question 57

In the United States, what is the "court of last resort"?

A) a state's supreme court
B) the Executive Office of the President
C) the U.S. Supreme Court
D) the U.S. Attorney General's federal appeals court

Question 58

A police officer can initiate an arrest when a crime has been observed or when an arrest warrant has been issued.  In either case, an arrest must be based on:

A) fundamental fairness.
B) plausible evidence.
C) reasonable suspicion.
D) probable cause.

Question 59

The questioning of prospective jurors by the prosecution and defense in order to determine their appropriateness to sit on a jury is termed:

A) venire.
B) voir dire.
C) nolle prosequi.
D) jury array.

Question 60

Who determines the charges to be brought against a suspect?

A) the police
B) the judge
C) the county magistrate
D) the prosecutor

Question 61

Today's Federal Bureau of Investigation is not an investigative agency; rather, it is a police agency.

Question 62

Those who favor plea bargaining argue that it actually benefits both the state and the defendant.

Question 63

In the case of Baldwin v. New York , the Supreme Court held that defendants are entitled to a jury trial:

A) whenever the possibility of incarceration existed.
B) only in felony cases.
C) whenever the defendant so requested.
D) only if they face the possibility of a prison sentence of more than six months

Question 64

Recent court rulings have broadened the scope of Miranda and have reduced police leeway in their actions.

Question 65

The Supreme Court can word a decision so that it becomes a precedent that must be honored by all lower courts.

Question 66

While the Fifth Amendment provides protection from double jeopardy, if an act violates the laws of two states, the offender may be tried in each state under the:

A) equivalent sovereignty doctrine.
B) equal jurisdiction doctrine.
C) dual jurisdiction doctrine.
D) dual  sovereignty doctrine.

Question 67

Plea bargaining became more attractive at the turn of the twentieth century, when the mechanization of manufacture and transportation prompted a flood of complex civil cases.

Question 68

Plea bargaining is outlined in the sixth Amendment to the U.S. Constitution.

Question 69

Plea bargaining usually occurs between arraignment (or initial appearance, in the case of a misdemeanor) and the onset of trial.

Question 70

Contraband can be seized without a warrant if it is plain view.

Question 71

When the Supreme Court decides to hear a case it, usually grants a writ of certiorari requesting a transcript of the case proceedings for review.

Question 72

The judge represents the state in criminal matters that come before the courts.

Question 73

Today, there approximately 150,000 full-time law enforcement officers employed at the various levels of government in the United States.

Question 74

If a defendant is convicted, the judge normally orders a presentence investigation conducted by the ______ preparatory to imposing a sentence.

A) prosecuting attorney
B) probation department
C) defense attorney
D) court bailiff

Question 75

Recent court rulings have given police greater latitude to search for and seize evidence and have eased restrictions on how police operate.

Question 76

The right to be protected from double jeopardy was made applicable to the states through the Fourteenth Amendment in the case of:

A) Benton v. Maryland.
B) Baldwin v. New York.
C) Williams v. Florida.
D) Maryland v. Craig.

Question 77

About 95% of all those charged with felonies plead guilty.

Question 78

The right to bail comes from the Eighth Amendment to the Constitution, which states that people can expect to be released on reasonable bail in all but capital cases.

Question 79

Intelligence-led policing   refers to the collection and analysis of information to produce informed police decision making at both the tactical and strategic levels.

Question 80

A prosecutor may offer a plea bargain if it is believed that the arresting officers made a serious procedural error in securing evidence that would be brought out during pretrial motions.