Deck 6: Attitudes

Question 1

When used to measure attitudes, physiological measures such as heart rate and perspiration

A) are particularly susceptible to social desirability bias.
B) reveal the intensity of an attitude.
C) reveal whether an attitude is positive or negative.
D) are easier to control than behaviors such as nodding.

Answer 1

reveal the intensity of an attitude.

Question 2

Measuring attitudes by assessing physiological arousal tends to identify the _____ but not the _____ of the attitude.

A) intensity; direction
B) direction; accuracy
C) accuracy; intensity
D) direction; automaticity

Answer 2

intensity; direction

Question 3

Which of the following would not be considered an attitude?

A) Darnell likes to play chess.
B) Daphne hates liver.
C) Daisy strongly favors universal health insurance.
D) Dalton drives a silver minivan.

Answer 3

Dalton drives a silver minivan.

Question 4

Shaniqua plans to use a self-report measure in which people indicate their agreement or disagreement with a list of statements. She is using

A) a Likert scale.
B) the luncheon technique.
C) a categorical matrix.
D) an agreement index.

Question 5

One potential problem with self-report measures is that

A) they do not provide information concerning the intensity of an attitude.
B) they do not provide information concerning the direction of an attitude.
C) respondents might not respond truthfully.
D) it is not possible to assess the validity of self-report measures.

Question 6

Public opinion pollsters, in trying to assess attitudes about particular subjects, have become aware that attitude responses seem to be affected by all of the factors below except

A) the context in which the question appears.
B) the wording of the question.
C) the specific response options given.
D) the length of the questionnaire.

Question 7

One way to increase the accuracy of self-report measures of attitudes is to

A) offer many, rather than fewer, response options.
B) use a single attitude scale, rather than multiple scales.
C) focus on attitudes regarding sensitive and personal issues.
D) convince respondents that any deception can be detected

Question 8

Attitudes are best understood as

A) being either entirely positive or entirely negative.
B) being initially positive, but increasingly negative as new information arises.
C) varying in strength along both positive and negative dimensions.
D) ranging on a continuum from positive to negative.

Question 9

Sammy and Mark watched a ballgame together. Sammy favored the home team, while Mark was an avid fan of the road team. The star player for Sammy's team made a great play and started to celebrate in a rather demonstrative fashion. Sammy got caught up in the celebration, while Mark was angered because he felt this display was an insult to the players of his team. This demonstrates that

A) two people's evaluations of the same event are more likely to be similar than to be different.
B) we often interpret events and behavior based upon pre-existing attitudes.
C) central route processing leads to stronger opinions than peripheral route processing.
D) we can hold both positive and negative evaluations about the same object.

Question 10

In a study about political attitudes and opinions during the 2004 presidential election, researchers used brain imaging to examine what happened in the brain when participants listened to positive or negative statements about the candidate of their choice. They found that most affected were those areas of the brain associated with which of the following?

A) Emotion
B) Cognitive reasoning
C) Speech
D) Mood

Question 11

Attitudes are useful because they

A) allow us to judge whether something we encounter is good or bad.
B) bias the way we interpret new information.
C) make it more likely that we will change our minds later.
D) allow us to take more time to evaluate others.

Question 12

The most direct and straightforward way to assess an attitude is through the use of

A) covert measures.
B) implicit measures.
C) self-report measures.
D) behavioral observation.

Question 13

Tsuyoshi has positive implicit attitudes about himself. We know this because on an Implicit Association Test, he was quickest to associate ________ with photos of himself.

A) positive words
B) negative words
C) male faces
D) female faces

Question 14

Which of the following is not used in order to overcome the limitations of traditional self-report methodology?

A) Bogus pipeline
B) Likert scale
C) Facial electromyograph
D) Covert videotaping

Question 15

Which of the following concerning the use of facial electromyography (EMG) to assess attitudes is true ?

A) Facial EMG can detect muscular changes not observable to the naked eye.
B) Facial EMG does not provide information about the direction of attitudes.
C) One problem with using facial EMG is that the same pattern of activity could be interpreted as happiness or sadness.
D) Facial EMG is only an accurate measure of attitudes if people know their attitudes are being assessed, so it is susceptible to the same social desirability biases as self-reports.

Question 16

Jacqueline, an attitude researcher, is interested in how people feel about alcohol. She would be well-advised to use a

A) Likert scale because it is not as susceptible to social desirability effects.
B) bogus pipeline because it is not as susceptible to social desirability effects.
C) Likert scale because it is more likely to be affected by social desirability.
D) bogus pipeline because it is more likely to be affected by social desirability.

Question 17

Antonio describes himself as high in need for evaluation. It is likely that Antonio

A) does not tend to make evaluative judgments about his daily experiences.
B) prefers to be with people who are judgmental of him.
C) has strong opinions about a variety of issues and people.
D) avoids situations where he will be asked for his opinion.

Question 18

Cacioppo and Petty (1981) recorded facial muscle activity of college students as they listened to a message with which they agreed or disagreed. The results of this study indicated that listening to a(n) _____ message increases activity in the _____.

A) disagreeable; cheek muscles
B) disagreeable; chin muscles
C) agreeable; cheek muscles
D) agreeable; muscles in the forehead and brow area

Question 19

Wells and Petty (1980) videotaped students as they listened to a speech. The results of this study indicated that

A) students revealed the intensity, but not the direction, of their attitudes through their body language.
B) students' self-reported attitudes did not agree with their observed attitudes.
C) students signaled their attitudes by nodding or shaking their heads.
D) horizontal head movements indicate agreement, whereas vertical head movements indicate disagreement.

Question 20

The feeling of ambivalence can be described as an attitude that is both _____ and _____.

A) strong; mixed in terms of positive versus negative valence
B) weak; extremely positive
C) inconsistent over time; strong
D) consistent over time; weak

Question 21

Research on the attitudes of twins suggests

A) that genetics are not useful in predicting the attitudes different people will hold.
B) the attitudes of identical twins are more similar than the attitudes of fraternal twins.
C) the attitudes of twins who are reared apart from one another are more dissimilar than the attitudes of twins raised together in the same household.
D) that the first-born twin is likely to be more conservative than the second-born twin, even when their births are only separated by minutes.

Question 22

Miss Roberto is concerned that Talia and Emily avoid playing with Michael because he is Black. Which of the following strategies would best enable her to assess any unconscious dislike these two students feel towards Michael?

A) Ask them why they don't want to play with him.
B) Measure the girls' brain activity when they are forced to play with Michael.
C) Administer an IAT to examine the girls' racial attitudes.
D) Administer a self-report questionnaire examining the girls' racial attitudes.

Question 23

All of the following factors can distinguish strong from weak attitudes except

A) the personal relevance of the issue.
B) the importance of the issue to family and friends.
C) the amount of perceived behavioral control.
D) the extent to which the issue concerns important values.

Question 24

Which of the following is not supported by social psychological research?

A) Situational factors can bring attitudes into awareness.
B) Attitude similarity among twins raised apart is as high as attitude similarity among twins raised together.
C) People feel more strongly about an object when the attitude is based on direct experience.
D) Attitude-behavior consistency is unrelated to knowledge about the attitude object.

Question 25

According to the theory of planned behavior, one reason that a person's behavior might not be consistent with that person's attitudes is that the behavior

A) is determined by norms that are consistent with the person's attitudes.
B) is one that the person feels is within his or her control.
C) is determined by norms that are counter to the person's attitudes.
D) occurs only when the person is self-aware.

Question 26

Implicit attitudes can be difficult to measure because

A) people are not aware of having them.
B) physiological measures are not effective in assessing them.
C) they can only be measured by direct techniques.
D) they are prone to the effects of social desirability.

Question 27

The theory of planned behavior posits that behavior is a function of attitudes, subjective norms, behavioral intentions, and

A) the amount of time we have considered engaging in the behavior.
B) the correspondence between the attitude and the behavior.
C) the amount of control we perceive to have over our behavior.
D) the costs of engaging in the behavior.

Question 28

The hypothesis that there is a genetic component to some attitudes would be supported by the finding that

A) attitudes of identical twins are more similar than those of fraternal twins.
B) adults who shared certain physiological characteristics also had common political beliefs.
C) when asked about attitudes for which there seems to be a genetic predisposition, research participants were quicker to respond to questions and less likely to alter their views toward social norms.
D) All of these

Question 29

Gloria has a negative attitude toward smoking, but she continues to smoke two packs of cigarettes a day. According to the theory of planned behavior, one reason that her attitude and behavior are inconsistent could be that

A) her attitude is based on feelings rather than beliefs.
B) she doesn't believe that she can control her smoking behavior.
C) her family and friends also have negative attitudes toward smoking.
D) her attitudes are usually accessible when she reaches for a cigarette.

Question 30

According to research by Tormala and Petty (2002), an attitude can be ____ by a persuasive message or argument ____ it.

A) weakened; for
B) strengthened; against
C) weakened; against.
D) strengthened; for.

Question 31

Jacob wants to learn how to water-ski. Which of the following would not be required by the theory of planned behavior?

A) He feels confident that he can learn the skills associated with waterskiing.
B) He fully intends to learn how to water-ski.
C) Many of his friends are water-skiers and are encouraging him to join them.
D) He recognizes the dangers associated with waterskiing.

Question 32

The mirrors in shopping malls may reduce shoplifting because

A) shoppers are distracted by seeing their reflections, which makes them less likely to behave in accord with their positive attitudes toward shoplifting.
B) people focus on the image they see and their negative attitudes toward shoplifting are weakened.
C) mirrors create a sense of luxury invoking the "you get what you pay for" heuristic.
D) mirrors increase self-awareness, which makes negative attitudes toward shoplifting accessible.

Question 33

Professor Zavala would like to reduce cheating in her classes. She knows that students strongly oppose cheating but, in spite of these negative attitudes, cheating is quite common. Which of the following tactics would be least effective at reducing cheating?

A) To strengthen attitudes toward cheating, ask students to write and sign a statement indicating that they will not cheat prior to each exam.
B) To increase anxiety, make sure students are not well-informed about what behaviors constitute cheating or what consequences might result from cheating.
C) To increase accessibility, ask students to spend a few moments before each exam thinking about their attitudes toward cheating.
D) To increase self-awareness, publicly videotape the class during exams.

Question 34

Implicit Association Tests (IAT's) can detect implicit attitudes by measuring

A) the participants' mood after responding to word pairings.
B) the time it takes participants to complete the whole test.
C) participants' facial muscles as they are exposed to positive or negative stimuli.
D) the speed at which participants associate stimuli with a positive or negative word.

Question 35

The process by which a person is persuaded by cues in the persuasion context rather than thinking critically about the content of a persuasive message is called

A) psychological reactance.
B) theory of planned behavior.
C) the peripheral route to persuasion.
D) the central route to persuasion.

Question 36

Mara pays close attention to the quality of the speaker's arguments in making up her mind on an issue. She is demonstrating

A) the primacy effect.
B) insufficient justification.
C) the central route to persuasion.
D) the peripheral route to persuasion.

Question 37

Which of the following statements regarding LaPiere's (1934) study of attitudes is false ?

A) Even though respondents who were asked self-report questions claimed that they would not be racially prejudiced, their behavior showed clear discrimination.
B) The study examined racial attitudes at a time when prejudice was much more overt and blatant than it currently is.
C) LaPiere was not a psychologist.
D) Over 90% of the respondents claimed that they would not offer service to a Chinese patron.

Question 38

Which of the following theories suggests that intentions to perform a behavior are best predicted by attitudes toward the behavior, subjective norms, and perceived behavioral control?

A) Theory of planned behavior
B) Cognitive dissonance theory
C) Self-perception theory
D) Self-affirmation theory

Question 39

An attitude is implicit if you

A) try to hide it.
B) are not aware of it.
C) cannot measure it.
D) disagree with it.

Question 40

Ichiro is a member of a campus political group and is interested in finding out how many students plan to vote in the 2012 election. According to the theory of planned behavior, which of the following questions Ichiro could ask would be the best predictor of whether or not a particular student would actually vote in the 2012 November election?

A) What are your attitudes about U.S. politics?
B) What are your attitudes about voting in U.S. Presidential elections?
C) What are your attitudes about the politicians in general?
D) What are your attitudes about the Bush vs. Gore Presidential election of 2000 and the fact that the winner of the election received fewer popular votes than the loser?

Question 41

Dan is listening to the dean of the college speak about banning fraternities on campus. Dan is most likely to evaluate the quality of the dean's arguments if

A) she speaks very quickly.
B) Dan is a member of a fraternity.
C) Dan is doing his calculus homework while listening to the speech.
D) the dean indicates that most students think fraternities should be banned.

Question 42

Which of the following pairs of characteristics matter more for the central route to persuasion than the peripheral route?

A) Whether the message is well-conceived, and whether it addresses possible counterarguments from the other side of the issue
B) Whether the message is memorable, and whether it is given by a speaker with an honest reputation
C) Whether the message is given by a speaker with an honest reputation, and whether it is short
D) Whether the message stimulates favorable elaboration, and whether the message elicits cheers from an audience

Question 43

Which of the following concerning the impact of body movements on persuasion is true ?

A) People who nod their heads up and down express greater agreement with a persuasive message than those who nod their heads side to side.
B) Stimuli associated with stretching the arms outward are rated more positively than those associated with flexing the arms inward.
C) Nodding the head side to side makes people more likely to engage in central route processing than does nodding the head up and down.
D) Stretching the arms outward makes people less likely to engage in central route processing than does flexing the arms inward.

Question 44

When message recipients use central route processing, which of the following will be true ?

A) Difficult messages will be more persuasive than easily learned messages.
B) Memorable messages will be more persuasive than forgettable ones.
C) Weak messages will engender more favorable responses than strong messages.
D) Elaboration of message content will be objective and unbiased.

Question 45

Eric does not really know how to answer the essay question about cognitive dissonance on his social psychology exam. He decides to write as many facts as he knows about the topic of attitudes in his bluebook, hoping that the professor will not read the exams too closely and will be impressed enough by the length of his essay to give him a good score. Eric is hoping to take advantage of

A) the sleeper effect.
B) the peripheral route to persuasion.
C) the central route to persuasion.
D) dissonance-related insufficient justification.

Question 46

Brady and Quinn are trying to develop an ad campaign in which a key element is the trustworthiness of the message's communicator. Toward this end, they may wish to utilize

A) a public service message.
B) overheard communications.
C) novel advertising.
D) political campaigns.

Question 47

The more products a celebrity endorses the

A) more competent she becomes in the eyes of consumers.
B) less trustworthy she becomes in the eyes of consumers.
C) more likeable she becomes in the eyes of consumers.
D) less likely an audience member is to use to peripheral route to persuasion.

Question 48

Gino, a salesperson, wants to use techniques that will lead his potential customers to rely on peripheral route persuasion. He should do all of the following except

A) speak quickly when presenting information about his product.
B) get the customer to nod in the affirmative while he is presenting his sales pitch.
C) present his sales pitch to customers who are clearly in a rush.
D) approach prospective buyers who obviously care deeply about his product.

Question 49

Which of the following conditions is not specified in Hovland's model of persuasion as necessary for persuasion to occur?

A) Message recipients must elaborate the message.
B) Message recipients must attend to the message.
C) Message recipients must comprehend the message.
D) Message recipients must be motivated to accept the message.

Question 50

The primary difference between the models of persuasion proposed by Hovland and McGuire and that proposed by Greenwald is that Greenwald's model

A) does not allow for central route processing.
B) emphasizes the role of elaboration in producing persuasion.
C) does not include reception as one of the information-processing steps in persuasion.
D) proposes that memory of message content is the most important determinant of persuasion.

Question 51

The dual-process model proposed by Petty and Cacciopo (1986) assumes that

A) people do not always process communications the same way.
B) people are never persuaded by the strength and quality of arguments.
C) people always think about both sides of an argument.
D) people are always strongly influenced by superficial cues.

Question 52

When an audience member does not feel personally involved or invested in the topic of a persuasive message, she is likely to

A) focus primarily on the strength of the message, ignoring the apparent expertise of the message source.
B) be influenced immediately by the sleeper effect.
C) engage in a central, but not peripheral route to persuasion.
D) None of these.

Question 53

Vicki is a lawyer who is trying to decide which of two forensic experts she should hire to provide testimony in a case. There is a large discrepancy in the fees each of the experts demands for their services. If Vicki wants the jurors to perceive her expert as trustworthy-and if she expects the witness' fees to become part of the trial record when he testifies-then she should select

A) the more expensive expert.
B) the less expensive expert.
C) either one because of their status in their field.
D) the expert who has the most experience testifying in court.

Question 54

An audience member is more likely to use the peripheral route to persuasion if

A) the argument is a familiar one.
B) the message is personally significant.
C) the audience is small.
D) the speaker is unattractive.

Question 55

While watching the presidential debate on television, Matilda critically evaluated the arguments made by each candidate and was persuaded to support a particular candidate because of the quality of her arguments. Matilda exhibited

A) psychological reactance.
B) central route persuasion.
C) peripheral route persuasion.
D) insufficient justification.

Question 56

A two-sided argument is most likely to convince an audience that is

A) from a collectivist culture.
B) using the central route to persuasion.
C) using the peripheral route to persuasion.
D) distracted.

Question 57

Which of the following statements about the central route to persuasion is false ?

A) It is more commonly used by advertisers in collectivist cultures (e.g., Korea) than it is by advertisers in individualistic cultures (e.g., the United States).
B) It leads audience members to be more influenced by a two-sided argument than a one-sided argument.
C) It is a more thoughtful process than the peripheral route.
D) It renders the quality of arguments more important than the quantity of arguments.

Question 58

The central route to persuasion requires

A) intelligence and strong arguments.
B) involvement and an expert source.
C) ability and motivation.
D) knowledge of the issue and a credible source.

Question 59

Oscar, an advertiser, develops a commercial for Crispy Crunch Crackling Cereal. Suppose children, processing information via the central route, watch the commercial. The commercial will be more likely to persuade the kids to want the cereal if it has all of the following except

A) a spokesperson who asks viewers whether they want to try the cereal.
B) a simple straightforward message that the kids can learn easily.
C) a little jingle about the great qualities of the cereal that the children will remember.
D) an attractive spokesperson.

Question 60

Because communicator trustworthiness is important, people tend to be readily impressed by speakers who

A) take popular stands.
B) argue against their own interests.
C) talk slowly and deliberately.
D) are well-dressed.

Question 61

Which of the following is true of issues that are personally important to us?

A) We are more stubborn and resistant to change regarding those issues.
B) We follow the peripheral route when others try to change our minds about these issues.
C) The best way for others to change our minds about such issues is to take a position very discrepant from how we feel.
D) Others will find it much easier to change our minds about these issues if we are first put in a bad mood.

Question 62

Jon and Kate give consecutive speeches on opposing sides in a debate on solar energy. Audience members are asked to register their view a few weeks later. How might the order of the speeches affect the audience's decision?

A) It should yield a primacy effect.
B) It should yield a subliminal effect.
C) It should yield a recency effect.
D) It should not have any effect.

Question 63

Research by Landau and colleagues (2004) in which participants were exposed to subliminal images of the 9/11 terrorist attacks and then asked questions about then-President George W. Bush leads to the conclusion that

A) the fear of death leads people to choose the central route to persuasion.
B) reminders of mortality lead people to prefer one-sided messages to two-sided messages.
C) fear arousal can influence even attitudes as important as political opinions.
D) the higher the level of fear arousal in a persuasive communication, the stronger the agreement with it.

Question 64

Louie runs a clinic that helps individuals to quit smoking and he would like to use fear to motivate his clients. Which of the following strategies would be most effective?

A) First scare clients by showing them gory lung-cancer operations. Then outline the specific steps they could follow to stop smoking.
B) First scare clients by showing them gory lung-cancer operations. Then allow them to come up with their own ways of quitting smoking so that they are more committed.
C) Present statistics concerning the health hazards of smoking, but nothing too scary. Then allow the clients to come up with their own ways of quitting smoking so that they are more committed.
D) Present statistics concerning the health hazards of smoking, but nothing too scary. Then outline the specific steps they could follow to stop smoking.

Question 65

Professor Shackleford is elated because she has just learned that her paper has been accepted for publication. When a student passes her in the hallway and tells her that he missed the latest exam in order to stay home with his depressed cat, her good mood renders her likely to

A) be even more skeptical than usual about such an unlikely excuse.
B) be less skeptical than usual about the excuse.
C) overlook the student's cognitive dissonance.
D) fall victim to the sleeper effect.

Question 66

Sleeper effects can be reduced by reminding people that the source of a persuasive message was not credible. This supports which explanation of sleeper effects?

A) The inoculation hypothesis
B) The discounting cue hypothesis
C) Psychological reactance theory
D) Cognitive dissonance theory

Question 67

Hope read a persuasive message written by a source who she considered to be incompetent and untrustworthy. The sleeper effect would suggest that her attitude toward the issue should

A) change over time.
B) show greater change over time in the direction advocated by the speaker.
C) show greater change over time in the opposite direction than that advocated by the speaker.
D) decrease over time.

Question 68

Michael believes that one's family is more important than one's career. In order for him to successfully convince his achievement-oriented friend Ronald that he should also possess such a value system, Michael should

A) take the very discrepant position that careers never provide satisfaction anywhere close to what a family provides.
B) use peripheral cues.
C) present as many arguments for his position as possible.
D) suggest more of a balance between family and career concerns than is currently true for Ronald.

Question 69

While shopping at the local mall, Ihno is approached by a man who asks her to sign a petition for stricter gun control laws. If Ihno uses the central route to decide whether to sign the petition, then she will be more likely to sign if the man who approaches her

A) is physically attractive.
B) is a member of the National Rifle Association.
C) is a police officer.
D) presents strong arguments.

Question 70

Which of the following concerning the use of fear appeals is not supported by research?

A) Fear appeals may motivate change by increasing the incentive to think carefully about the arguments in the message.
B) Fear appeals are generally less effective than messages that do not provoke fear.
C) Fear appeals are most effective when they include specific information on how to avoid the threat.
D) Fear arousal may reduce the ability of already fearful message recipients to carefully process a message.

Question 71

Wegener et al. (1995) found that happy participants used the central route to persuasion when presented with a pro-attitudinal message, but used the peripheral route to persuasion when presented with a counter-attitudinal message. This finding suggests that

A) positive mood disrupts the ability to process persuasive information.
B) people in a positive mood rely on superficial processing strategies.
C) positive mood affects different people in different ways.
D) happy people avoid processing only if it threatens to destroy their mood.

Question 72

The physical attractiveness of a spokesmodel will have the greatest effect if the product endorsed is

A) life insurance.
B) clothing-related.
C) birth control.
D) an insecticide.

Question 73

A sleeper effect occurs when

A) persuasion occurs in response to subliminal stimuli.
B) a persuasive message from a noncredible source becomes more persuasive over time.
C) distraction interferes with the ability to pay attention to a persuasive message.
D) people fall asleep during exposure to a persuasive message.

Question 74

At a computer trade show, a representative from Mad Dog Computers presents its product to the audience, and is immediately followed by a representative from Smelly Cat Computers, who demonstrates the benefits of her product. If surveyed immediately after the show, the audience is likely to report having been

A) more persuaded by Mad Dog Computers.
B) more persuaded by Smelly Cat Computers.
C) equally persuaded by both companies if the presentations were comparable.
D) persuaded by neither company.

Question 75

As personal involvement regarding an issue increases

A) the quality of the arguments becomes a more important determinant of persuasion.
B) the credibility of the speaker becomes a more important determinant of persuasion.
C) the attractiveness of the speaker becomes a more important determinant of persuasion.
D) the likelihood of central route persuasion decreases.

Question 76

Dr. Flinstone, president of Quarry College, needs to convince students that the college must double its tuition beginning in five years. He is hiring someone to promote this idea, as well as developing supportive arguments. Would he need to adopt a different strategy if he instead wanted to implement the change in the next academic year?

A) No. He should do the same thing either way.
B) Yes. If the change is to happen next year, the strength of the arguments will matter more than whom he hires to promote the idea.
C) Yes. If the change is to happen next year, the person he hires will matter more than the strength of the arguments.
D) Yes. If the change is to happen next year, obtaining a credible promoter and generating strong arguments will both be more crucial than if the change will happen in five years.

Question 77

Cairan, a college student, wants to persuade her friends that residence halls should have curfews. Assuming her friends consider this issue to be personally involving, Cairan would be smart to

A) present only strong arguments that support her position.
B) present her weak arguments first followed by her strong arguments.
C) present the strong arguments first and then follow with the weak arguments.
D) point out how similar her friends are to her.

Question 78

Roger and Mike always seem to disagree on music. When Roger tells Mike that he has heard a new song on the radio that he likes a lot, this experience is likely to lead Mike to

A) like the song more than he would have had he not talked to Roger ahead of time.
B) like the song less than he would have had he not talked to Roger ahead of time.
C) be skeptical about Roger's motivation for telling him about the song.
D) view Roger as an unlikable message source.

Question 79

Josue listened to a speech on the radio advocating the increased use of automobiles that are not reliant on fossil fuels. One would expect the sleeper effect to be greatest if Josue found out about the background of the speaker _____ the speech and was asked about his views about the issue _____.

A) before; that same day
B) after; that same day
C) before; a few weeks later
D) after; a few weeks later

Question 80

Which of the following source characteristics best explains why a company might recruit a supermodel to endorse its products?

A) Similarity
B) Credibility
C) Likeability
D) Trustworthiness