Deck 39: Securities Regulation

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Question
Registration of securities with the SEC guarantees to a potential investor the financial soundness of the business represented by the stock.
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Question
Every registration filed with the SEC is held in confidence until the business permits disclosure.
Question
The Securities Act of 1933 is also called the "Truth in Securities Act."
Question
"Shelf registrations" allow delayed sales of stock.
Question
Most states require the registration of securities and regulate brokers and dealers.
Question
The 1933 Securities Act differs from the 1934 Act in that the former deals with trading in stock that has already been issued and the latter has to do with the issuance of securities.
Question
In 1992, the SEC issued new rules establishing an integrated registration and reporting system for small business issuers.
Question
The Dodd-Frank Act amends the 1933 and 1934 Acts to require knowledge as the mental state required for the SEC to bring aiding and abetting cases.
Question
Insiders would violate the short-swing profits rule (16b) of the 1934 Act by buying stock on January 1 and selling on May 1.
Question
The registration requirement of the 1934 Act pertains to the entire class of securities rather than to a specific offering.
Question
Only civil liability may be imposed for violations of the Securities Act of 1933.
Question
The Sarbanes-Oxley Act requires either the chief executive officer or the chief financial officer of a company issuing securities to certify information in the issuer's annual and quarterly reports.
Question
A "private placement" involves no public offering and is exempt from registration.
Question
"Restricted securities" are exempted from registration.
Question
EDGAR is the computer system established by the SEC to perform automated collection, validation, and dissemination of required reports.
Question
Marshall, an agent of the North Carolina Pinery Corporation, in offering a cash payment to an official of Mexico to convince the official to use his influence to assist Pinery in obtaining a contract in Mexico, may have violated the laws of Mexico, but not the laws of the United States.
Question
The Securities Act of 1933 regulates tender offers and proxy solicitations.
Question
Effective in 2010, the SEC adopted new requirements to improve the disclosure shareholders of public companies receive regarding compensation and corporate governance. These new rules require disclosure of any directorships held by each nominee at any time during the past seven years at any public company.
Question
The antifraud provisions of the 1933 Act pertain to only registered securities.
Question
As amended in 2008, SEC rules define a small business issuer as a noninvestment company with less than $10 million in public float.
Question
As amended in 2008, SEC Rule 144 imposes stricter requirements on securities resales of issuers subject to 1934 Act reporting requirements than on securities resales of non-reporting issuers.
Question
Shelf registrations allow issuers to register securities that are to be offered and sold on a delayed or continuous basis in the future, but the provision allowing it does not apply to all companies.
Question
Rule 505, as promulgated by the SEC, provides a nonexclusive safe harbor for securing the intrastate exemption.
Question
The SEC may not advance the effective date of a registration statement.
Question
A registration statement must be signed by the issuer, its CEO, CFO, CAO, and majority of its board of directors.
Question
With few exceptions, an issuer must file preliminary proxy statements and forms with the SEC at least 10 days before they are sent to investors.
Question
A registration statement becomes public immediately on filing with the SEC, but a prospectus only becomes public upon signature of the chief financial officer.
Question
Bonds are included in the definition of the term "security."
Question
Securities sold under Regulation A must be registered if they are resold.
Question
In 2006, the SEC abolished the requirement that a registration statement disclose compensation paid to senior executives and directors.
Question
The due diligence defense generally requires the defendant to show that he had reasonable grounds to believe and did believe that there were no untrue statements or material omissions.
Question
The issuer of a registration statement has strict liability for its accuracy.
Question
The Securities Enforcement Remedies and Penny Stock Reform Act of 1990 granted the SEC the power to issue cease and desist orders and to impose civil penalties.
Question
The tender offer is open to select holders of the class of shares subject to the tender offer.
Question
The Securities Act of 1934 imposes significant disclosure requirements upon reporting companies.
Question
Under the Dodd-Frank Act, the SEC must issue rules requiring issuers to disclose in annual proxy statements the reasons the issuer has chosen to combine or separate the positions of CEO and chairman of the board of directors.
Question
There are rigorously enforced restrictions regarding both number and qualification of investors who purchase securities under Regulation A.
Question
The 1934 Act rules governing proxy solicitations would require a proxy statement describing the material facts relating to items to be voted upon.
Question
The Securities Enforcement Remedies and Penny Stock Reform Act of 1990 granted the SEC the power to impose administrative, civil penalties up to the current inflation-adjusted amount of $725,000.
Question
The Securities Act of 1933 identifies a number of securities exemptions that are, in effect, transaction exemptions.
Question
The Securities and Exchange Commission (SEC) is an independent, quasi-judicial agency consisting of five commissioners.
Question
Which of the following is NOT a purpose of federal securities regulation?

A) To ensure that only worthwhile securities are sold in interstate commerce.
B) To ensure adequate disclosure by issuers of securities.
C) To ensure that inside information is not abused.
D) To prevent the use of fraud in the marketing of securities.
Question
The Securities Act of 1934 imposes sanctions for noncompliance with its disclosure and antifraud requirements. These sanctions include:

A) civil liability to injured investors and issuers.
B) civil penalties.
C) criminal penalties.
D) All of these.
Question
Willful violations of the Securities Act of 1933 are subject to a fine of not more than __________ and/or imprisonment of not more than __________ or both.

A) $5,000, one year.
B) $10,000, five years.
C) $100,000, five years.
D) $250,000, ten years.
Question
Effective in 2000, a plain English term sheet is required in all tender offers and mergers.
Question
Section 16(b) of the 1934 Act differs from Rule 10b-5 in that the latter:

A) applies to transfers within 6 months of each other.
B) only applies to officers, directors, and 10% shareholders.
C) requires material inside information.
D) All of these.
Question
A registration statement generally includes all of the following EXCEPT a:

A) financial statement certified by an independent public accountant.
B) description of the business.
C) description of the management.
D) projection of future growth potential.
Question
Which of the following would ordinarily NOT be considered a security under the federal securities laws?

A) Bonds.
B) Stocks.
C) Investments in limited partnerships.
D) An investment in a nonprofit venture based on one's own entrepreneurial efforts.
Question
The civil penalty for a person who trades on inside information:

A) is payable into the U.S. Treasury.
B) must be imposed as a result of an action brought within three years after the date of the purchase or sale.
C) is, for a controlling person, up to the greater of $1 million or two times the profit gained or loss avoided as a result of the controlled person's violation.
D) All of these.
Question
A defense to an action based on material omissions and untrue statements contained in a registration statement is:

A) innocent mistake.
B) due diligence.
C) constructive disclosure.
D) reasonable diligence.
Question
The 1933 Act imposes liability for material misstatements and omissions in a registration statement on:

A) only the directors and certain officers.
B) only the issuers.
C) experts and underwriters as well as directors, officers, and issuers.
D) the CEO only.
Question
Which of the following is not one of the situations in which the 1934 Securities Exchange Act requires disclosure during a "tender offer"?

A) When a person or group acquires more than 5 percent of a class of voting securities registered under the 1934 Act.
B) When a person makes a tender offer for more than 5 percent of a class of registered equity securities.
C) When a company makes a tender offer for any voting stock in another company.
D) When the issuer makes an offer to repurchase its own registered shares.
Question
__________, promulgated by the SEC, provides a nonexclusive safe harbor for securing the intrastate exemption.

A) Rule 506.
B) Rule 505.
C) Rule 147.
D) Rule 504.
Question
"Insider trading" rules pertain to:

A) tippees.
B) officers and directors.
C) underwriters .
D) All of these.
Question
The rule that prohibits schemes and devices to defraud investors is Rule:

A) 504
B) 144
C) 10b-5
D) 16(b)
Question
All of the following are types of illegal insider trading EXCEPT:

A) officers or directors who pass valuable information to someone who trades in the company's stock and then is repaid in some way.
B) an officer or director who makes a direct profit on an investment just after the public announcement of a major development related to that investment.
C) a director who buys through overseas financial institutions stocks and options in his own company prior to a public announcement of information which greatly enhances the value of the stock.
D) an officer of a company who, for a fee, related to investment bankers information about companies her company is planning to target for takeover.
Question
Securities that are exempt from registration under the federal securities laws include:

A) securities of domestic banks.
B) annuity contracts issued by state-regulated insurance companies.
C) bonds issued by a city.
D) All of these are exempt.
Question
The 1934 Securities Exchange Act requires registration of:

A) all regulated publicly held companies.
B) securities being issued initially.
C) statutory outsiders.
D) tippees.
Question
Which of the following would NOT be exempt from registration under the 1933 Securities Act?

A) An offering restricted to the residents of the state in which the issuing company is a resident and doing business.
B) An offering by a noninvestment company issuer for $4 million in securities over 12 months without general advertising or general solicitation.
C) An offering of limited partnership tax shelters.
D) A private offering to sophisticated investors who will not redistribute them.
Question
Rule 10b-5 applies to any:

A) buyer of a registered security.
B) seller of a registered security.
C) person who buys or sells a registered security.
D) person who buys or sells any security.
Question
Which of the following is a basic objective of the 1933 Securities Act?

A) To provide investors with material information concerning securities offered for sale to the public.
B) To prohibit misrepresentation, deceit, and other fraudulent acts and unfair practices in the sale of securities generally, whether or not they are required to be registered.
C) Both of these.
D) Neither of these.
Question
The Securities Act of 1933 has two basic objectives, one of which is to:

A) extend protection to investors trading in outstanding, issued securities.
B) grant the SEC power to impose administrative, civil penalties up to $600,000.
C) regulate disclosure requirements on publicly held corporations.
D) prohibit misrepresentation, deceit, and other fraudulent acts and unfair practices in the sale of securities generally, whether or not they are required to be registered.
Question
Solicitation includes any request:

A) for a proxy.
B) not to execute a proxy.
C) to revoke a proxy.
D) All of these.
Question
The Securities Enforcement Remedies and Penny Stock Reform Act of 1990 granted the SEC power to:

A) issue cease-and-desist orders.
B) impose civil penalties up to $850,000.
C) bring civil actions for specified violations of the 1934 Act against aiders and abettors.
D) All of these.
Question
The antifraud provisions of the 1934 Act would prohibit which of the following?

A) Lying about the value of the firm's assets to sell stock.
B) Disclosing that the firm has discovered oil on its property in order to sell stock.
C) Telling about the bad health of the CEO in a transaction to purchase stock.
D) Not disclosing the salaries of secretaries of a large firm whose stock is being sold.
Question
Section 11 of the Securities Act of 1933 imposes liability on:

A) the issuer.
B) all persons who signed the registration statement.
C) every director or partner, and all underwriters.
D) All of these.
Question
Registration under the 1933 Act calls for disclosure of which of the following?

A) A description of the registrant's properties and business.
B) A description of the significant provisions of the security to be offered for sale and its relationship to the registrant's other capital securities.
C) Compensation paid to directors, the CEO, CFO, and the three other highest paid executive officers.
D) All of these.
Question
Under the 1934 Act, willful violations may result in:

A) a fine of up to $10 million for an individual.
B) imprisonment of up to no more than ten years.
C) a fine of up to $25 million for a corporation.
D) All of these.
Question
SEC regulations concerning fraud in securities transactions apply to:

A) all securities transactions involving interstate commerce.
B) only securities registered under the 1934 Act.
C) only securities registered under the 1933 Act.
D) securities registered under both the 1933 and 1934 Acts.
Question
If Terry makes a tender offer to the owners of Pizza Village's registered stock, he must file a statement with the SEC if he:

A) owns 1% of Pizza Village stock.
B) will, after the acquisition, own 5% of all Pizza Village stock.
C) will, after the acquisition, own 5% of one class of Pizza Village stock.
D) will own more than 3% of the stock in all classes.
Question
Prohibited bribery can result in fines and imprisonment under the antibribery provision of :

A) the Private Securities Litigation Reform Act.
B) the Foreign Corrupt Practices Act.
C) the Securities and Exchange Commission.
D) None of these.
Question
Under the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 and the Williams Act, a tender offer:

A) must be disclosed if the offeror's acquisition would give him 3 percent of the target's stock.
B) must be disclosed only to the shareholders of the target corporation.
C) disclosure is informational to ensure that investors may make an informed decision.
D) None of these are correct.
Question
Marge wishes to raise some money to begin mass producing her prize-winning jellies and jams. She offers her neighbors a portion of her profits if they will put up $2,000 each towards her endeavor. Is their investment a "security"?

A) Yes, since Marge will do all the work.
B) Yes, because her neighbors will have a security interest in the jelly.
C) No, since the neighbors are putting no effort into it.
D) No, because Marge is not issuing stock certificates.
Question
For purposes of Section 16(b) of the 1934 Securities Exchange Act, which of the following are not "insiders"?

A) Shareholders owning more than 10 percent of the stock of a corporation listed on a national stock exchange or registered with the SEC.
B) Directors.
C) Officers.
D) All of these may be considered insiders.
Question
If a company has assets of over $10 million but trades its stock over the counter, it is nevertheless required to comply with the 1934 Act if it has:

A) 500 or more shareholders.
B) one class of stock with 500 or more shareholders.
C) 500 or more shares of stock outstanding.
D) 500 different investors.
Question
Recovery of damages under Rule 10b-5 requires proof of:

A) reliance on a misstatement or omission.
B) materiality.
C) scienter.
D) connection with the purchase or sale of a security.
E) All of these.
Question
The provisions of Section 17(a) of the 1933 Act:

A) primarily allow for a private right of action for persons injured by the act.
B) make it unlawful to engage in any transaction, practice, or course of business that operates as deceit upon the issuer.
C) make it unlawful in the offer or sale of any securities to obtain property by any statement that omits a material fact without which the information is misleading.
D) None of these.
Question
A signed writing by a shareholder authorizing a named person to vote his stock at a specified meeting of shareholders is a(n):

A) control.
B) affiliate.
C) proxy.
D) registration statement.
Question
A solicitation of proxies from holders of stock:

A) is comprehensively regulated by the SEC.
B) includes a request for a proxy, but not a request to revoke a proxy.
C) gives any security holder entitled to vote the opportunity to communicate with other security holders. Upon written request, the corporation must mail the communication at the corporation's expense along with the solicitation.
D) All of these are correct.
Question
All of the following are exempt from registration under the 1933 Act except:

A) government bonds.
B) securities issued by for-profit medical facilities.
C) notes with a maturity of not more than nine months when issued for working capital.
D) state-regulated insurance company annuities.
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Deck 39: Securities Regulation
1
Registration of securities with the SEC guarantees to a potential investor the financial soundness of the business represented by the stock.
False
2
Every registration filed with the SEC is held in confidence until the business permits disclosure.
False
3
The Securities Act of 1933 is also called the "Truth in Securities Act."
True
4
"Shelf registrations" allow delayed sales of stock.
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5
Most states require the registration of securities and regulate brokers and dealers.
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6
The 1933 Securities Act differs from the 1934 Act in that the former deals with trading in stock that has already been issued and the latter has to do with the issuance of securities.
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k this deck
7
In 1992, the SEC issued new rules establishing an integrated registration and reporting system for small business issuers.
Unlock Deck
Unlock for access to all 89 flashcards in this deck.
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k this deck
8
The Dodd-Frank Act amends the 1933 and 1934 Acts to require knowledge as the mental state required for the SEC to bring aiding and abetting cases.
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k this deck
9
Insiders would violate the short-swing profits rule (16b) of the 1934 Act by buying stock on January 1 and selling on May 1.
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10
The registration requirement of the 1934 Act pertains to the entire class of securities rather than to a specific offering.
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11
Only civil liability may be imposed for violations of the Securities Act of 1933.
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12
The Sarbanes-Oxley Act requires either the chief executive officer or the chief financial officer of a company issuing securities to certify information in the issuer's annual and quarterly reports.
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13
A "private placement" involves no public offering and is exempt from registration.
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14
"Restricted securities" are exempted from registration.
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15
EDGAR is the computer system established by the SEC to perform automated collection, validation, and dissemination of required reports.
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16
Marshall, an agent of the North Carolina Pinery Corporation, in offering a cash payment to an official of Mexico to convince the official to use his influence to assist Pinery in obtaining a contract in Mexico, may have violated the laws of Mexico, but not the laws of the United States.
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17
The Securities Act of 1933 regulates tender offers and proxy solicitations.
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18
Effective in 2010, the SEC adopted new requirements to improve the disclosure shareholders of public companies receive regarding compensation and corporate governance. These new rules require disclosure of any directorships held by each nominee at any time during the past seven years at any public company.
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19
The antifraud provisions of the 1933 Act pertain to only registered securities.
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20
As amended in 2008, SEC rules define a small business issuer as a noninvestment company with less than $10 million in public float.
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21
As amended in 2008, SEC Rule 144 imposes stricter requirements on securities resales of issuers subject to 1934 Act reporting requirements than on securities resales of non-reporting issuers.
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22
Shelf registrations allow issuers to register securities that are to be offered and sold on a delayed or continuous basis in the future, but the provision allowing it does not apply to all companies.
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23
Rule 505, as promulgated by the SEC, provides a nonexclusive safe harbor for securing the intrastate exemption.
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24
The SEC may not advance the effective date of a registration statement.
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25
A registration statement must be signed by the issuer, its CEO, CFO, CAO, and majority of its board of directors.
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26
With few exceptions, an issuer must file preliminary proxy statements and forms with the SEC at least 10 days before they are sent to investors.
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27
A registration statement becomes public immediately on filing with the SEC, but a prospectus only becomes public upon signature of the chief financial officer.
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28
Bonds are included in the definition of the term "security."
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29
Securities sold under Regulation A must be registered if they are resold.
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30
In 2006, the SEC abolished the requirement that a registration statement disclose compensation paid to senior executives and directors.
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31
The due diligence defense generally requires the defendant to show that he had reasonable grounds to believe and did believe that there were no untrue statements or material omissions.
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32
The issuer of a registration statement has strict liability for its accuracy.
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33
The Securities Enforcement Remedies and Penny Stock Reform Act of 1990 granted the SEC the power to issue cease and desist orders and to impose civil penalties.
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34
The tender offer is open to select holders of the class of shares subject to the tender offer.
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35
The Securities Act of 1934 imposes significant disclosure requirements upon reporting companies.
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36
Under the Dodd-Frank Act, the SEC must issue rules requiring issuers to disclose in annual proxy statements the reasons the issuer has chosen to combine or separate the positions of CEO and chairman of the board of directors.
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37
There are rigorously enforced restrictions regarding both number and qualification of investors who purchase securities under Regulation A.
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38
The 1934 Act rules governing proxy solicitations would require a proxy statement describing the material facts relating to items to be voted upon.
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39
The Securities Enforcement Remedies and Penny Stock Reform Act of 1990 granted the SEC the power to impose administrative, civil penalties up to the current inflation-adjusted amount of $725,000.
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k this deck
40
The Securities Act of 1933 identifies a number of securities exemptions that are, in effect, transaction exemptions.
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41
The Securities and Exchange Commission (SEC) is an independent, quasi-judicial agency consisting of five commissioners.
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k this deck
42
Which of the following is NOT a purpose of federal securities regulation?

A) To ensure that only worthwhile securities are sold in interstate commerce.
B) To ensure adequate disclosure by issuers of securities.
C) To ensure that inside information is not abused.
D) To prevent the use of fraud in the marketing of securities.
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k this deck
43
The Securities Act of 1934 imposes sanctions for noncompliance with its disclosure and antifraud requirements. These sanctions include:

A) civil liability to injured investors and issuers.
B) civil penalties.
C) criminal penalties.
D) All of these.
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k this deck
44
Willful violations of the Securities Act of 1933 are subject to a fine of not more than __________ and/or imprisonment of not more than __________ or both.

A) $5,000, one year.
B) $10,000, five years.
C) $100,000, five years.
D) $250,000, ten years.
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45
Effective in 2000, a plain English term sheet is required in all tender offers and mergers.
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46
Section 16(b) of the 1934 Act differs from Rule 10b-5 in that the latter:

A) applies to transfers within 6 months of each other.
B) only applies to officers, directors, and 10% shareholders.
C) requires material inside information.
D) All of these.
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Unlock for access to all 89 flashcards in this deck.
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47
A registration statement generally includes all of the following EXCEPT a:

A) financial statement certified by an independent public accountant.
B) description of the business.
C) description of the management.
D) projection of future growth potential.
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Unlock for access to all 89 flashcards in this deck.
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k this deck
48
Which of the following would ordinarily NOT be considered a security under the federal securities laws?

A) Bonds.
B) Stocks.
C) Investments in limited partnerships.
D) An investment in a nonprofit venture based on one's own entrepreneurial efforts.
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Unlock for access to all 89 flashcards in this deck.
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k this deck
49
The civil penalty for a person who trades on inside information:

A) is payable into the U.S. Treasury.
B) must be imposed as a result of an action brought within three years after the date of the purchase or sale.
C) is, for a controlling person, up to the greater of $1 million or two times the profit gained or loss avoided as a result of the controlled person's violation.
D) All of these.
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Unlock for access to all 89 flashcards in this deck.
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50
A defense to an action based on material omissions and untrue statements contained in a registration statement is:

A) innocent mistake.
B) due diligence.
C) constructive disclosure.
D) reasonable diligence.
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k this deck
51
The 1933 Act imposes liability for material misstatements and omissions in a registration statement on:

A) only the directors and certain officers.
B) only the issuers.
C) experts and underwriters as well as directors, officers, and issuers.
D) the CEO only.
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Unlock for access to all 89 flashcards in this deck.
Unlock Deck
k this deck
52
Which of the following is not one of the situations in which the 1934 Securities Exchange Act requires disclosure during a "tender offer"?

A) When a person or group acquires more than 5 percent of a class of voting securities registered under the 1934 Act.
B) When a person makes a tender offer for more than 5 percent of a class of registered equity securities.
C) When a company makes a tender offer for any voting stock in another company.
D) When the issuer makes an offer to repurchase its own registered shares.
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Unlock for access to all 89 flashcards in this deck.
Unlock Deck
k this deck
53
__________, promulgated by the SEC, provides a nonexclusive safe harbor for securing the intrastate exemption.

A) Rule 506.
B) Rule 505.
C) Rule 147.
D) Rule 504.
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Unlock for access to all 89 flashcards in this deck.
Unlock Deck
k this deck
54
"Insider trading" rules pertain to:

A) tippees.
B) officers and directors.
C) underwriters .
D) All of these.
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Unlock for access to all 89 flashcards in this deck.
Unlock Deck
k this deck
55
The rule that prohibits schemes and devices to defraud investors is Rule:

A) 504
B) 144
C) 10b-5
D) 16(b)
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Unlock for access to all 89 flashcards in this deck.
Unlock Deck
k this deck
56
All of the following are types of illegal insider trading EXCEPT:

A) officers or directors who pass valuable information to someone who trades in the company's stock and then is repaid in some way.
B) an officer or director who makes a direct profit on an investment just after the public announcement of a major development related to that investment.
C) a director who buys through overseas financial institutions stocks and options in his own company prior to a public announcement of information which greatly enhances the value of the stock.
D) an officer of a company who, for a fee, related to investment bankers information about companies her company is planning to target for takeover.
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57
Securities that are exempt from registration under the federal securities laws include:

A) securities of domestic banks.
B) annuity contracts issued by state-regulated insurance companies.
C) bonds issued by a city.
D) All of these are exempt.
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58
The 1934 Securities Exchange Act requires registration of:

A) all regulated publicly held companies.
B) securities being issued initially.
C) statutory outsiders.
D) tippees.
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59
Which of the following would NOT be exempt from registration under the 1933 Securities Act?

A) An offering restricted to the residents of the state in which the issuing company is a resident and doing business.
B) An offering by a noninvestment company issuer for $4 million in securities over 12 months without general advertising or general solicitation.
C) An offering of limited partnership tax shelters.
D) A private offering to sophisticated investors who will not redistribute them.
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60
Rule 10b-5 applies to any:

A) buyer of a registered security.
B) seller of a registered security.
C) person who buys or sells a registered security.
D) person who buys or sells any security.
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Unlock for access to all 89 flashcards in this deck.
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61
Which of the following is a basic objective of the 1933 Securities Act?

A) To provide investors with material information concerning securities offered for sale to the public.
B) To prohibit misrepresentation, deceit, and other fraudulent acts and unfair practices in the sale of securities generally, whether or not they are required to be registered.
C) Both of these.
D) Neither of these.
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Unlock for access to all 89 flashcards in this deck.
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62
The Securities Act of 1933 has two basic objectives, one of which is to:

A) extend protection to investors trading in outstanding, issued securities.
B) grant the SEC power to impose administrative, civil penalties up to $600,000.
C) regulate disclosure requirements on publicly held corporations.
D) prohibit misrepresentation, deceit, and other fraudulent acts and unfair practices in the sale of securities generally, whether or not they are required to be registered.
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Unlock for access to all 89 flashcards in this deck.
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63
Solicitation includes any request:

A) for a proxy.
B) not to execute a proxy.
C) to revoke a proxy.
D) All of these.
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64
The Securities Enforcement Remedies and Penny Stock Reform Act of 1990 granted the SEC power to:

A) issue cease-and-desist orders.
B) impose civil penalties up to $850,000.
C) bring civil actions for specified violations of the 1934 Act against aiders and abettors.
D) All of these.
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Unlock for access to all 89 flashcards in this deck.
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65
The antifraud provisions of the 1934 Act would prohibit which of the following?

A) Lying about the value of the firm's assets to sell stock.
B) Disclosing that the firm has discovered oil on its property in order to sell stock.
C) Telling about the bad health of the CEO in a transaction to purchase stock.
D) Not disclosing the salaries of secretaries of a large firm whose stock is being sold.
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Unlock for access to all 89 flashcards in this deck.
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66
Section 11 of the Securities Act of 1933 imposes liability on:

A) the issuer.
B) all persons who signed the registration statement.
C) every director or partner, and all underwriters.
D) All of these.
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67
Registration under the 1933 Act calls for disclosure of which of the following?

A) A description of the registrant's properties and business.
B) A description of the significant provisions of the security to be offered for sale and its relationship to the registrant's other capital securities.
C) Compensation paid to directors, the CEO, CFO, and the three other highest paid executive officers.
D) All of these.
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Unlock for access to all 89 flashcards in this deck.
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68
Under the 1934 Act, willful violations may result in:

A) a fine of up to $10 million for an individual.
B) imprisonment of up to no more than ten years.
C) a fine of up to $25 million for a corporation.
D) All of these.
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Unlock for access to all 89 flashcards in this deck.
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69
SEC regulations concerning fraud in securities transactions apply to:

A) all securities transactions involving interstate commerce.
B) only securities registered under the 1934 Act.
C) only securities registered under the 1933 Act.
D) securities registered under both the 1933 and 1934 Acts.
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70
If Terry makes a tender offer to the owners of Pizza Village's registered stock, he must file a statement with the SEC if he:

A) owns 1% of Pizza Village stock.
B) will, after the acquisition, own 5% of all Pizza Village stock.
C) will, after the acquisition, own 5% of one class of Pizza Village stock.
D) will own more than 3% of the stock in all classes.
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Unlock for access to all 89 flashcards in this deck.
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71
Prohibited bribery can result in fines and imprisonment under the antibribery provision of :

A) the Private Securities Litigation Reform Act.
B) the Foreign Corrupt Practices Act.
C) the Securities and Exchange Commission.
D) None of these.
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Unlock for access to all 89 flashcards in this deck.
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72
Under the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 and the Williams Act, a tender offer:

A) must be disclosed if the offeror's acquisition would give him 3 percent of the target's stock.
B) must be disclosed only to the shareholders of the target corporation.
C) disclosure is informational to ensure that investors may make an informed decision.
D) None of these are correct.
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Unlock for access to all 89 flashcards in this deck.
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73
Marge wishes to raise some money to begin mass producing her prize-winning jellies and jams. She offers her neighbors a portion of her profits if they will put up $2,000 each towards her endeavor. Is their investment a "security"?

A) Yes, since Marge will do all the work.
B) Yes, because her neighbors will have a security interest in the jelly.
C) No, since the neighbors are putting no effort into it.
D) No, because Marge is not issuing stock certificates.
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Unlock for access to all 89 flashcards in this deck.
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74
For purposes of Section 16(b) of the 1934 Securities Exchange Act, which of the following are not "insiders"?

A) Shareholders owning more than 10 percent of the stock of a corporation listed on a national stock exchange or registered with the SEC.
B) Directors.
C) Officers.
D) All of these may be considered insiders.
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Unlock for access to all 89 flashcards in this deck.
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75
If a company has assets of over $10 million but trades its stock over the counter, it is nevertheless required to comply with the 1934 Act if it has:

A) 500 or more shareholders.
B) one class of stock with 500 or more shareholders.
C) 500 or more shares of stock outstanding.
D) 500 different investors.
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Unlock for access to all 89 flashcards in this deck.
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76
Recovery of damages under Rule 10b-5 requires proof of:

A) reliance on a misstatement or omission.
B) materiality.
C) scienter.
D) connection with the purchase or sale of a security.
E) All of these.
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Unlock for access to all 89 flashcards in this deck.
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77
The provisions of Section 17(a) of the 1933 Act:

A) primarily allow for a private right of action for persons injured by the act.
B) make it unlawful to engage in any transaction, practice, or course of business that operates as deceit upon the issuer.
C) make it unlawful in the offer or sale of any securities to obtain property by any statement that omits a material fact without which the information is misleading.
D) None of these.
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Unlock for access to all 89 flashcards in this deck.
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78
A signed writing by a shareholder authorizing a named person to vote his stock at a specified meeting of shareholders is a(n):

A) control.
B) affiliate.
C) proxy.
D) registration statement.
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Unlock for access to all 89 flashcards in this deck.
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79
A solicitation of proxies from holders of stock:

A) is comprehensively regulated by the SEC.
B) includes a request for a proxy, but not a request to revoke a proxy.
C) gives any security holder entitled to vote the opportunity to communicate with other security holders. Upon written request, the corporation must mail the communication at the corporation's expense along with the solicitation.
D) All of these are correct.
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Unlock for access to all 89 flashcards in this deck.
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80
All of the following are exempt from registration under the 1933 Act except:

A) government bonds.
B) securities issued by for-profit medical facilities.
C) notes with a maturity of not more than nine months when issued for working capital.
D) state-regulated insurance company annuities.
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Unlock for access to all 89 flashcards in this deck.
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Unlock Deck
Unlock for access to all 89 flashcards in this deck.