Deck 23: Intubating Airway Management

Question 1

Tube replacement is accomplished through the use of a tracheostomy tube or an endotracheal tube.

Answer 1

True

Question 2

One of the greatest advantages of the endotracheal tube over non- intubated ventilation is that it does not cause gastric insufflation and the resulting distention, impingement on thoracic expansion, and vomiting.

Answer 2

True

Question 3

Cuffed endotracheal tubes cannot be used in pediatric patients, particularly at the transition ages.

Answer 3

False

Question 4

Airway management of the trauma patient is fundamentally different from airway management of other types of patients.

Question 5

Endotracheal intubation bypasses the natural functions of the upper airways including filtration, warming, and humidification.

Question 6

Blind nasotracheal intubation cannot be performed on a breathing patient.

Question 7

Although there are a number of ways to perform a surgical cricothyroidotomy, the rapid two-step cricothyroidotomy method is simple, relatively safe for the Paramedic, and an easy-to-perform procedure.

Question 8

Preparing the patient for intubation occurs in three ways: assessment of the patient, positioning of the patient, and, if needed, medication administration.

Question 9

Combitubes are sized for pediatric patients.

Question 10

The small size of the pediatric airway and the significant risk of airway scarring contraindicates all surgical airway management techniques with the exception of the needle cricothyroidotomy.

Question 11

Generally speaking, nasal intubation is carried out with a stylet.

Question 12

Orogastric tube placement is generally performed in the unresponsive, apneic patient after intubation.

Question 13

The LMA is sized for children over 10.

Question 14

An endotracheal tube prevents aspiration.

Question 15

The pediatric patient has minimal respiratory reserve.

Question 16

Endotracheal intubation remains the definitive airway management technique, even though it is a complex procedure that requires constant practice in order to remain proficient.

Question 17

There is growing evidence that many endotracheal tubes found in the esophagus or the hypopharynx once the patient reaches the emergency department are not misplaced tubes, but rather are displaced tubes.

Question 18

Premedication with atropine (0.02 mg/kg, minimum 0.1 mg, maximum 0.5 mg) is mandatory in children under the age of eight.

Question 19

The Advanced Airway Management Algorithm can be applied to adults but not to pediatric patients.

Question 20

A Paramedic with small hands may find that using the pediatric handle with an adult blade is the best for him.

Question 21

The ____ is a double-lumen device with two separate and distinct lumens, a proximal and distal lumen named by where they exit from the tube.

A) speculum
B) forceps
C) catheter
D) Combitube

Question 22

____ involves placing an endotracheal tube through the patient's nostril and into the trachea.

A) Nasotracheal intubation
B) Pharyngeal intubation
C) Tracheal intubation
D) Nasopharyngeal intubation

Question 23

In digital intubation, the ____ is used to palpate and lift the epiglottis.

A) thumb
B) middle finger
C) index finger
D) ring finger

Question 24

All trauma patients with an altered level of consciousness or an appropriate mechanism must be considered to have a ____.

A) lateral spine injury
B) cranial injury
C) cervical spine injury
D) thoracic spine injury

Question 25

The ____ blade is a straight blade with common sizes from 00 to 4.

A) Miller
B) Macintosh
C) McGill
D) McDill

Question 26

There are two major components of the laryngoscope: ____.

A) the handle and the tongue
B) the handle and the tang
C) the handle and the blade
D) the handle and the stroke

Question 27

By far, the most common technique used to intubate patients is ____ intubation using direct laryngoscopy.

A) tracheal
B) endotracheal
C) orotracheal
D) pharyngeal

Question 28

The ____ is a patient position that places the head in extension along the atlanto-occipital joints, bringing the pharyngeal, laryngeal, and oral axes into alignment using an elevation pillow.

A) head elevated laryngoscopic position
B) head elevated pharyngeal position
C) head down laryngoscopic position
D) head down pharyngeal position

Question 29

The ____ blade is a curved blade with common sizes from 1 to 4.

A) Miller
B) McGill
C) McDill
D) Macintosh

Question 30

The ____ is the primary device used to visualize the larynx.

A) stethoscope
B) sphygmomanometer
C) laryngoscope
D) speculum

Question 31

A(n) ____ tube is a single-lumen tube passed through the mouth into the stomach to evacuate air from the stomach.

A) nasogastric
B) orogastric
C) paranasal
D) paraglossal

Question 32

The ____ approach to intubation involves inserting the entire length of the laryngoscope blade blindly into the esophagus and then slowly withdrawing the blade under direct visualization.

A) paranasal
B) indirect
C) blind
D) paraglossal

Question 33

A(n) ____ tube is a single-lumen tube passed through the nose into the stomach to evacuate air from the stomach.

A) paraglossal
B) paranasal
C) orogastric
D) nasogastric

Question 34

____ is a surgical procedure to gain entry to the trachea through the anterior neck.

A) Surgical cricothyroidoscopy
B) Anterior cricothyroidotomy
C) Surgical cricothyroidotomy
D) Lateral cricothyroidotomy

Question 35

Endotracheal tubes are sized based on their ____.

A) external diameter
B) internal diameter
C) external circumference
D) internal circumference

Question 36

____ is the direct suctioning of the secretions in the bronchial tree.

A) Tracheobronchial suctioning
B) Bronchial suctioning
C) Tracheal suctioning
D) Plerual suctioning

Question 37

____ is an endotracheal intubation technique that uses the Paramedic's hand to identify laryngeal structures and to guide tube placement.

A) Guided intubation
B) Digital intubation
C) Assisted intubation
D) Directed intubation

Question 38

____ measurement and monitoring has become a standard method of both confirming endotracheal tube placement and monitoring patient status, ventilation, and continuing tube placement.

A) Post-tidal carbon monoxide
B) End-tidal carbon dioxide
C) End-tidal carbon monoxide
D) Post-tidal carbon dioxide

Question 39

In most children under 4 to 5 years of age, a ____ blade is the most appropriate blade to use.

A) Miller
B) straight
C) recessed
D) retracted

Question 40

The ____ improves ventilation to the right upper lobe and allows for some ventilation through the tube if the distal end becomes occluded.

A) Venturi eye
B) Sellick eye
C) Goddard eye
D) Murphy eye

Question 41

The ____________________, a commonly used adjunct to oral intubation, provides rigidity to the endotracheal tube.

Question 42

____________________ in an otherwise apparently uninjured patient may represent a spinal cord transection.

Question 43

The basic tool of endotracheal intubation is the ____________________.

Question 44

In ____________________, two or more fractures of two or more consecutive ribs disrupt the stability to the rib cage, resulting in paradoxical collapse inward of that section of the chest wall during inspiration.

Question 45

____________________ of lung sounds, listening to the lung fields with a stethoscope, is a commonly accepted technique for assessing endotracheal tube placement.

Question 46

The technique of ____________________ is a simple, fast, and efficient method of turning an "emergency" (no airway or ventilation) into an "urgency" (definitive airway still needed but patient now oxygenating).

Question 47

The least expensive, and probably most commonly used, device for measuring end-tidal carbon dioxide is the ____________________.

Question 48

A(n) ____________________ tube offers direct access to a patient's airway that is relatively protected.

Question 49

____________________ stylettes are, essentially, malleable stylettes with a bright light source at the distal end and a power source at the proximal end.

Question 50

____________________ intubation is particularly well suited for patients who, due to their disease process, are likely to experience rapid decompensation if they lay flat.