Deck 9: Pharmacology

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Question
Which of the following classes of drugs is used to prevent formation of thrombi?

A) muscle relaxants
B) anticonvulsants
C) anticoagulants
D) antidepressants
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Question
Which of the following insulins can be administered intravenously?

A) NPH
B) regular
C) ultralente
D) lente
Question
Captopril, an antihypertensive, is classified as which of the following?

A) beta blocker
B) diuretic
C) angiotensin II receptor blockers
D) angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitors
Question
Which of the following is a natural penicillin?

A) dicloxacillin sodium
B) ampicillin
C) penicillin V potassium
D) amoxicillin/clavulanate potassium
Question
Glucotrol is the trade name of

A) glimepiride
B) glipizide
C) tolbutamide
D) chlorpropamide
Question
Which of the following is an example of centrally acting skeletal muscle relaxants?

A) baclofen
B) mivacurium
C) atracurium
D) succinylcholine
Question
Enfuvirtide is classified as which of the following HIV antiviral agents?

A) nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor (NRTI)
B) non-nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor (NNRTI)
C) protease inhibitor (PI)
D) fusion inhibitor (FI)
Question
Chemical substances that have morphine-like action in the body are referred to as

A) hormones
B) antibiotics
C) opioids
D) bacteriostats
Question
Which of the following classes of drugs cannot help in achieving the treatment goals for angina pectoris?

A) nitrates
B) calcium channel blockers
C) diuretics
D) beta-adrenergic blockers
Question
Glucophage is the trade name for

A) glipizide
B) glimepiride
C) miglitol
D) metformin
Question
Vancomycin is usually given

A) intravenously
B) subcutaneously
C) intramuscularly
D) intradermally
Question
Augmentin is the trade name of

A) nafcillin sodium
B) penicillin V potassium
C) penicillin G benzathine
D) amoxicillin/clavulanate potassium
Question
Which of the following is used to lower blood lipid levels?

A) trimethadione
B) flucystosine
C) propranolol
D) atorvastatin
Question
Vitamin B1 is used in the treatment of

A) pellagra
B) scurvy
C) beriberi
D) iron deficiency anemia
Question
Which of the following is an RNA virus?

A) influenza A virus
B) retrovirus
C) herpes simplex virus
D) cytomegalovirus
Question
Which of the following is the trade name of verapamil?

A) Calan
B) Cardizem
C) Inderal
D) Tenormin
Question
Which of the following is the most common psychiatric disorder in the United States?

A) depression
B) Parkinson's disease
C) panic disorder
D) epileptic disorder
Question
Motrin is the trade name of

A) meloxicam
B) diclofenac
C) indomethacin
D) ibuprofen
Question
Hypnotic drugs are used to treat

A) sleep disorders
B) peptic ulcers
C) gastritis
D) upper respiratory infections
Question
Diltiazem, an antianginal drug, is classified as which of the following?

A) beta-adrenergic blocker
B) calcium channel blocker
C) angiotensin II receptor blocker
D) nitrate
Question
Which of the following drugs is classified as an antidepressant, and is also used for smoking cessation?

A) isosorbide
B) verapamil
C) bupropion
D) propofol
Question
An example of a class III antiarrhythmic drug that interferes with potassium outflow is

A) lidocaine
B) amiodarone
C) acebutolol
D) verapamil
Question
An example of an HIV antiviral agent is

A) zidovudine
B) ketoconazole
C) butenafine
D) griseofulvin
Question
Which of the following drugs is NOT a proton pump inhibitor?

A) rabeprazole
B) omeprazole
C) sulfisoxazole
D) lansoprazole
Question
Which of the following is the trade name of amlodipine?

A) Norvasc
B) Plendil
C) Nisocor
D) Edecrin
Question
Which of the following drugs is NOT used for Parkinson's disease?

A) benztropine (Cogentin)
B) amantadine (Symmetrel)
C) fluoxetine (Prozac)
D) levodopa (Dopar)
Question
Which of the following drugs is NOT a bronchodilator used for treating asthma?

A) salbutamol
B) furazolidone
C) terbutaline
D) theophylline
Question
Which of the following drugs is NOT an antianxiety drug?

A) oxazepam (Serax)
B) spironolactone (Aldactone)
C) estazolam (Prosom)
D) alprazolam (Xanax)
Question
A useful agent in the treatment of mental disorders such as schizophrenia is

A) lorazepam (Ativan)
B) diazepam (Valium)
C) phenytoin (Dilantin)
D) perphenazine (Trilafon)
Question
Which of the following is an example of an "amide" local anesthetic?

A) benzocaine
B) lidocaine
C) dibucaine
D) procaine hydrochloride
Question
An example of an angiotensin II receptor blocker is

A) captopril (Capoten)
B) enalapril (Vasotec)
C) irbesartan (Avapro)
D) mivacurium (Mivacron)
Question
The generic name of Prozac is

A) fluoxetine
B) imipramine
C) nadolol
D) lidocaine
Question
An example of loop diuretics is

A) chlorothiazide
B) furosemide
C) triamterene
D) spironolactone
Question
Manipulating estrogen and progesterone levels can prevent

A) pregnancy
B) prostate cancer
C) breast cancer
D) abortion
Question
Which of the following statements about insulin is true?

A) Insulin is a hormone.
B) Insulin is a lipid.
C) Insulin is secreted by the thyroid gland.
D) Insulin is very slowly distributed through the extracellular fluid.
Question
Which of the following terms describes hyperexcitability of the brain and causes abnormal motor movements?

A) Parkinsonism
B) preeclampsia
C) eclampsia
D) epilepsy
Question
Which of the following is a disadvantage of most antihistamines?

A) sedation
B) insomnia
C) hypertension
D) tachycardia
Question
The presence of raised or abnormal levels of lipoproteins and lipids in the blood is called

A) hypertension
B) hyperlipidemia
C) hyperkalemia
D) hypernatremia
Question
The generic name of Tofranil is

A) citalopram
B) imipramine
C) sertraline
D) paroxetine
Question
Which of the following is capable of stopping the growth and reproduction of bacteria, but does not necessarily kill bacteria?

A) bacteriophage
B) bacteriocide
C) bacteriostat
D) bacteremic
Question
Oral contraceptives include estrogen and ____________________ combinations.
Question
An example of a stimulant laxative is

A) magnesium citrate (Citrate of Magnesia)
B) docusate (Colace)
C) psyllium seed (Metamucil)
D) bisacodyl (Dulcolax)
Question
The endocrine glands secrete ____________________.
Question
Sedatives and hypnotic drugs are used to treat ____________________ and ____________________ disorders.
Question
Type 1 diabetes is characterized by a lack of ____________________ production from the ____________________.
Question
Which of the following are the most potent and effective anti-inflammatory agents?

A) anticoagulants
B) antihistamines
C) opioids
D) corticosteroids
Question
Which of the following is NOT used to treat asthma?

A) budesonide (Pulmicort)
B) lansoprazole (Prevacid)
C) prednisolone (Prelone)
D) fluticasone (Flovent)
Question
Which of the following is NOT a primary antitubercular drug?

A) ethambutol
B) imipramine
C) isoniazid
D) rifampin
Question
The initial stimulus for coughing probably arises in the

A) bronchial mucosa
B) alveoli
C) nasal cavity
D) pleural cavity
Question
Three groups of medications to treat angina pectoris include nitrates, beta-adrenergic blockers, and ____________________ blockers.
Question
Histamine blockers that affect type 2 receptors are used for

A) peptic ulcers
B) allergies
C) asthma
D) inflammation of the skin
Question
The trade name of sertraline is

A) Paxil
B) Lithobid
C) Depakene
D) Zoloft
Question
Common arrhythmias originate in the ____________________ and ____________________ chambers of the heart.
Question
Psychosis is characterized by hallucinations and ____________________.
Question
Which of the following is NOT an antihistamine?

A) brompheniramine (Dimetane)
B) cetirizine (Zyrtec)
C) hydrocodone (Histussin)
D) loratadine (Claritin)
Question
An agent used to treat fungal diseases is

A) didanosine
B) amprenavir
C) azidothymidine
D) amphotericin B
Question
Anesthetics are agents that act generally on ____________________ tissue.
Question
Narcotic analgesics are also referred to as ____________________.
Question
The generic name of Tagamet is

A) cimetidine
B) nizatidine
C) ranitidine
D) famotidine
Question
Insulin doses are measured in ____________________.
Question
The cephalosporins are classified into ____________________ different generations.
Question
Match between columns
Dramamine
stage III anesthesia
Dramamine
stage IV anesthesia
Dramamine
convulsion
Dramamine
seizure
Dramamine
stage I anesthesia
Dramamine
sulfasalazine
Dramamine
nystatin
Dramamine
cephalexin
Dramamine
ampicillin
Dramamine
amikacin
Dramamine
ganciclovir
Dramamine
amoxicillin
Dramamine
nitrofurantoin
Dramamine
enfuvirtide
Dramamine
sulfisoxazole
Dramamine
cetirizine
Dramamine
dimenhydrinate
Dramamine
diphenhydramine
Dramamine
loratadine
Dramamine
fexofenadine
term for all epileptic events
stage III anesthesia
term for all epileptic events
stage IV anesthesia
term for all epileptic events
convulsion
term for all epileptic events
seizure
term for all epileptic events
stage I anesthesia
term for all epileptic events
sulfasalazine
term for all epileptic events
nystatin
term for all epileptic events
cephalexin
term for all epileptic events
ampicillin
term for all epileptic events
amikacin
term for all epileptic events
ganciclovir
term for all epileptic events
amoxicillin
term for all epileptic events
nitrofurantoin
term for all epileptic events
enfuvirtide
term for all epileptic events
sulfisoxazole
term for all epileptic events
cetirizine
term for all epileptic events
dimenhydrinate
term for all epileptic events
diphenhydramine
term for all epileptic events
loratadine
term for all epileptic events
fexofenadine
Gantrisin
stage III anesthesia
Gantrisin
stage IV anesthesia
Gantrisin
convulsion
Gantrisin
seizure
Gantrisin
stage I anesthesia
Gantrisin
sulfasalazine
Gantrisin
nystatin
Gantrisin
cephalexin
Gantrisin
ampicillin
Gantrisin
amikacin
Gantrisin
ganciclovir
Gantrisin
amoxicillin
Gantrisin
nitrofurantoin
Gantrisin
enfuvirtide
Gantrisin
sulfisoxazole
Gantrisin
cetirizine
Gantrisin
dimenhydrinate
Gantrisin
diphenhydramine
Gantrisin
loratadine
Gantrisin
fexofenadine
Trimox
stage III anesthesia
Trimox
stage IV anesthesia
Trimox
convulsion
Trimox
seizure
Trimox
stage I anesthesia
Trimox
sulfasalazine
Trimox
nystatin
Trimox
cephalexin
Trimox
ampicillin
Trimox
amikacin
Trimox
ganciclovir
Trimox
amoxicillin
Trimox
nitrofurantoin
Trimox
enfuvirtide
Trimox
sulfisoxazole
Trimox
cetirizine
Trimox
dimenhydrinate
Trimox
diphenhydramine
Trimox
loratadine
Trimox
fexofenadine
euphoria and amnesia
stage III anesthesia
euphoria and amnesia
stage IV anesthesia
euphoria and amnesia
convulsion
euphoria and amnesia
seizure
euphoria and amnesia
stage I anesthesia
euphoria and amnesia
sulfasalazine
euphoria and amnesia
nystatin
euphoria and amnesia
cephalexin
euphoria and amnesia
ampicillin
euphoria and amnesia
amikacin
euphoria and amnesia
ganciclovir
euphoria and amnesia
amoxicillin
euphoria and amnesia
nitrofurantoin
euphoria and amnesia
enfuvirtide
euphoria and amnesia
sulfisoxazole
euphoria and amnesia
cetirizine
euphoria and amnesia
dimenhydrinate
euphoria and amnesia
diphenhydramine
euphoria and amnesia
loratadine
euphoria and amnesia
fexofenadine
Omnipen
stage III anesthesia
Omnipen
stage IV anesthesia
Omnipen
convulsion
Omnipen
seizure
Omnipen
stage I anesthesia
Omnipen
sulfasalazine
Omnipen
nystatin
Omnipen
cephalexin
Omnipen
ampicillin
Omnipen
amikacin
Omnipen
ganciclovir
Omnipen
amoxicillin
Omnipen
nitrofurantoin
Omnipen
enfuvirtide
Omnipen
sulfisoxazole
Omnipen
cetirizine
Omnipen
dimenhydrinate
Omnipen
diphenhydramine
Omnipen
loratadine
Omnipen
fexofenadine
Allegra
stage III anesthesia
Allegra
stage IV anesthesia
Allegra
convulsion
Allegra
seizure
Allegra
stage I anesthesia
Allegra
sulfasalazine
Allegra
nystatin
Allegra
cephalexin
Allegra
ampicillin
Allegra
amikacin
Allegra
ganciclovir
Allegra
amoxicillin
Allegra
nitrofurantoin
Allegra
enfuvirtide
Allegra
sulfisoxazole
Allegra
cetirizine
Allegra
dimenhydrinate
Allegra
diphenhydramine
Allegra
loratadine
Allegra
fexofenadine
Keflex
stage III anesthesia
Keflex
stage IV anesthesia
Keflex
convulsion
Keflex
seizure
Keflex
stage I anesthesia
Keflex
sulfasalazine
Keflex
nystatin
Keflex
cephalexin
Keflex
ampicillin
Keflex
amikacin
Keflex
ganciclovir
Keflex
amoxicillin
Keflex
nitrofurantoin
Keflex
enfuvirtide
Keflex
sulfisoxazole
Keflex
cetirizine
Keflex
dimenhydrinate
Keflex
diphenhydramine
Keflex
loratadine
Keflex
fexofenadine
medullary depression begins
stage III anesthesia
medullary depression begins
stage IV anesthesia
medullary depression begins
convulsion
medullary depression begins
seizure
medullary depression begins
stage I anesthesia
medullary depression begins
sulfasalazine
medullary depression begins
nystatin
medullary depression begins
cephalexin
medullary depression begins
ampicillin
medullary depression begins
amikacin
medullary depression begins
ganciclovir
medullary depression begins
amoxicillin
medullary depression begins
nitrofurantoin
medullary depression begins
enfuvirtide
medullary depression begins
sulfisoxazole
medullary depression begins
cetirizine
medullary depression begins
dimenhydrinate
medullary depression begins
diphenhydramine
medullary depression begins
loratadine
medullary depression begins
fexofenadine
delirium and hypertension
stage III anesthesia
delirium and hypertension
stage IV anesthesia
delirium and hypertension
convulsion
delirium and hypertension
seizure
delirium and hypertension
stage I anesthesia
delirium and hypertension
sulfasalazine
delirium and hypertension
nystatin
delirium and hypertension
cephalexin
delirium and hypertension
ampicillin
delirium and hypertension
amikacin
delirium and hypertension
ganciclovir
delirium and hypertension
amoxicillin
delirium and hypertension
nitrofurantoin
delirium and hypertension
enfuvirtide
delirium and hypertension
sulfisoxazole
delirium and hypertension
cetirizine
delirium and hypertension
dimenhydrinate
delirium and hypertension
diphenhydramine
delirium and hypertension
loratadine
delirium and hypertension
fexofenadine
Zyrtec
stage III anesthesia
Zyrtec
stage IV anesthesia
Zyrtec
convulsion
Zyrtec
seizure
Zyrtec
stage I anesthesia
Zyrtec
sulfasalazine
Zyrtec
nystatin
Zyrtec
cephalexin
Zyrtec
ampicillin
Zyrtec
amikacin
Zyrtec
ganciclovir
Zyrtec
amoxicillin
Zyrtec
nitrofurantoin
Zyrtec
enfuvirtide
Zyrtec
sulfisoxazole
Zyrtec
cetirizine
Zyrtec
dimenhydrinate
Zyrtec
diphenhydramine
Zyrtec
loratadine
Zyrtec
fexofenadine
Mycostatin
stage III anesthesia
Mycostatin
stage IV anesthesia
Mycostatin
convulsion
Mycostatin
seizure
Mycostatin
stage I anesthesia
Mycostatin
sulfasalazine
Mycostatin
nystatin
Mycostatin
cephalexin
Mycostatin
ampicillin
Mycostatin
amikacin
Mycostatin
ganciclovir
Mycostatin
amoxicillin
Mycostatin
nitrofurantoin
Mycostatin
enfuvirtide
Mycostatin
sulfisoxazole
Mycostatin
cetirizine
Mycostatin
dimenhydrinate
Mycostatin
diphenhydramine
Mycostatin
loratadine
Mycostatin
fexofenadine
Cytovene
stage III anesthesia
Cytovene
stage IV anesthesia
Cytovene
convulsion
Cytovene
seizure
Cytovene
stage I anesthesia
Cytovene
sulfasalazine
Cytovene
nystatin
Cytovene
cephalexin
Cytovene
ampicillin
Cytovene
amikacin
Cytovene
ganciclovir
Cytovene
amoxicillin
Cytovene
nitrofurantoin
Cytovene
enfuvirtide
Cytovene
sulfisoxazole
Cytovene
cetirizine
Cytovene
dimenhydrinate
Cytovene
diphenhydramine
Cytovene
loratadine
Cytovene
fexofenadine
Adulfidine
stage III anesthesia
Adulfidine
stage IV anesthesia
Adulfidine
convulsion
Adulfidine
seizure
Adulfidine
stage I anesthesia
Adulfidine
sulfasalazine
Adulfidine
nystatin
Adulfidine
cephalexin
Adulfidine
ampicillin
Adulfidine
amikacin
Adulfidine
ganciclovir
Adulfidine
amoxicillin
Adulfidine
nitrofurantoin
Adulfidine
enfuvirtide
Adulfidine
sulfisoxazole
Adulfidine
cetirizine
Adulfidine
dimenhydrinate
Adulfidine
diphenhydramine
Adulfidine
loratadine
Adulfidine
fexofenadine
Amikin
stage III anesthesia
Amikin
stage IV anesthesia
Amikin
convulsion
Amikin
seizure
Amikin
stage I anesthesia
Amikin
sulfasalazine
Amikin
nystatin
Amikin
cephalexin
Amikin
ampicillin
Amikin
amikacin
Amikin
ganciclovir
Amikin
amoxicillin
Amikin
nitrofurantoin
Amikin
enfuvirtide
Amikin
sulfisoxazole
Amikin
cetirizine
Amikin
dimenhydrinate
Amikin
diphenhydramine
Amikin
loratadine
Amikin
fexofenadine
Benadryl
stage III anesthesia
Benadryl
stage IV anesthesia
Benadryl
convulsion
Benadryl
seizure
Benadryl
stage I anesthesia
Benadryl
sulfasalazine
Benadryl
nystatin
Benadryl
cephalexin
Benadryl
ampicillin
Benadryl
amikacin
Benadryl
ganciclovir
Benadryl
amoxicillin
Benadryl
nitrofurantoin
Benadryl
enfuvirtide
Benadryl
sulfisoxazole
Benadryl
cetirizine
Benadryl
dimenhydrinate
Benadryl
diphenhydramine
Benadryl
loratadine
Benadryl
fexofenadine
Claritin
stage III anesthesia
Claritin
stage IV anesthesia
Claritin
convulsion
Claritin
seizure
Claritin
stage I anesthesia
Claritin
sulfasalazine
Claritin
nystatin
Claritin
cephalexin
Claritin
ampicillin
Claritin
amikacin
Claritin
ganciclovir
Claritin
amoxicillin
Claritin
nitrofurantoin
Claritin
enfuvirtide
Claritin
sulfisoxazole
Claritin
cetirizine
Claritin
dimenhydrinate
Claritin
diphenhydramine
Claritin
loratadine
Claritin
fexofenadine
Fuzeon
stage III anesthesia
Fuzeon
stage IV anesthesia
Fuzeon
convulsion
Fuzeon
seizure
Fuzeon
stage I anesthesia
Fuzeon
sulfasalazine
Fuzeon
nystatin
Fuzeon
cephalexin
Fuzeon
ampicillin
Fuzeon
amikacin
Fuzeon
ganciclovir
Fuzeon
amoxicillin
Fuzeon
nitrofurantoin
Fuzeon
enfuvirtide
Fuzeon
sulfisoxazole
Fuzeon
cetirizine
Fuzeon
dimenhydrinate
Fuzeon
diphenhydramine
Fuzeon
loratadine
Fuzeon
fexofenadine
refers to abnormal motor movements
stage III anesthesia
refers to abnormal motor movements
stage IV anesthesia
refers to abnormal motor movements
convulsion
refers to abnormal motor movements
seizure
refers to abnormal motor movements
stage I anesthesia
refers to abnormal motor movements
sulfasalazine
refers to abnormal motor movements
nystatin
refers to abnormal motor movements
cephalexin
refers to abnormal motor movements
ampicillin
refers to abnormal motor movements
amikacin
refers to abnormal motor movements
ganciclovir
refers to abnormal motor movements
amoxicillin
refers to abnormal motor movements
nitrofurantoin
refers to abnormal motor movements
enfuvirtide
refers to abnormal motor movements
sulfisoxazole
refers to abnormal motor movements
cetirizine
refers to abnormal motor movements
dimenhydrinate
refers to abnormal motor movements
diphenhydramine
refers to abnormal motor movements
loratadine
refers to abnormal motor movements
fexofenadine
Furalan
stage III anesthesia
Furalan
stage IV anesthesia
Furalan
convulsion
Furalan
seizure
Furalan
stage I anesthesia
Furalan
sulfasalazine
Furalan
nystatin
Furalan
cephalexin
Furalan
ampicillin
Furalan
amikacin
Furalan
ganciclovir
Furalan
amoxicillin
Furalan
nitrofurantoin
Furalan
enfuvirtide
Furalan
sulfisoxazole
Furalan
cetirizine
Furalan
dimenhydrinate
Furalan
diphenhydramine
Furalan
loratadine
Furalan
fexofenadine
Question
Explain primary and secondary hypertension.
Question
Explain highly active antiretroviral therapy (HAART).
Question
Bronchodilators are agents that ____________________ the diameter of the bronchial tubes.
Question
Explain angina pectoris and list the main groups of medications that can help achieve the treatment goals.
Question
What are the different types of epilepsy? List the major groups of drugs used to control seizures.
Question
Penicillins were amongst the first ____________________ developed.
Question
Presently, four classes of antiretroviral agents effective against ____________________ exist.
Question
Explain general anesthesia and define its four stages.
Question
Acyclovir and amantadine are examples of ____________________.
Question
The most common form of heart failure is often referred to as ____________________ heart failure.
Question
Azithromycin is an example of the types of medicines known as ____________________.
Question
Skeletal muscle relaxants work by blocking somatic ____________________ nerve impulses through depression of specific neurons within the central nervous system.
Question
Pepcid and Axid are examples of H2 receptor ____________________.
Question
An elevation of the cholesterol levels in the blood is called ____________________.
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Deck 9: Pharmacology
1
Which of the following classes of drugs is used to prevent formation of thrombi?

A) muscle relaxants
B) anticonvulsants
C) anticoagulants
D) antidepressants
anticoagulants
2
Which of the following insulins can be administered intravenously?

A) NPH
B) regular
C) ultralente
D) lente
regular
3
Captopril, an antihypertensive, is classified as which of the following?

A) beta blocker
B) diuretic
C) angiotensin II receptor blockers
D) angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitors
angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitors
4
Which of the following is a natural penicillin?

A) dicloxacillin sodium
B) ampicillin
C) penicillin V potassium
D) amoxicillin/clavulanate potassium
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5
Glucotrol is the trade name of

A) glimepiride
B) glipizide
C) tolbutamide
D) chlorpropamide
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6
Which of the following is an example of centrally acting skeletal muscle relaxants?

A) baclofen
B) mivacurium
C) atracurium
D) succinylcholine
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7
Enfuvirtide is classified as which of the following HIV antiviral agents?

A) nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor (NRTI)
B) non-nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor (NNRTI)
C) protease inhibitor (PI)
D) fusion inhibitor (FI)
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8
Chemical substances that have morphine-like action in the body are referred to as

A) hormones
B) antibiotics
C) opioids
D) bacteriostats
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9
Which of the following classes of drugs cannot help in achieving the treatment goals for angina pectoris?

A) nitrates
B) calcium channel blockers
C) diuretics
D) beta-adrenergic blockers
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10
Glucophage is the trade name for

A) glipizide
B) glimepiride
C) miglitol
D) metformin
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11
Vancomycin is usually given

A) intravenously
B) subcutaneously
C) intramuscularly
D) intradermally
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12
Augmentin is the trade name of

A) nafcillin sodium
B) penicillin V potassium
C) penicillin G benzathine
D) amoxicillin/clavulanate potassium
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13
Which of the following is used to lower blood lipid levels?

A) trimethadione
B) flucystosine
C) propranolol
D) atorvastatin
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14
Vitamin B1 is used in the treatment of

A) pellagra
B) scurvy
C) beriberi
D) iron deficiency anemia
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15
Which of the following is an RNA virus?

A) influenza A virus
B) retrovirus
C) herpes simplex virus
D) cytomegalovirus
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16
Which of the following is the trade name of verapamil?

A) Calan
B) Cardizem
C) Inderal
D) Tenormin
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17
Which of the following is the most common psychiatric disorder in the United States?

A) depression
B) Parkinson's disease
C) panic disorder
D) epileptic disorder
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18
Motrin is the trade name of

A) meloxicam
B) diclofenac
C) indomethacin
D) ibuprofen
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19
Hypnotic drugs are used to treat

A) sleep disorders
B) peptic ulcers
C) gastritis
D) upper respiratory infections
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20
Diltiazem, an antianginal drug, is classified as which of the following?

A) beta-adrenergic blocker
B) calcium channel blocker
C) angiotensin II receptor blocker
D) nitrate
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21
Which of the following drugs is classified as an antidepressant, and is also used for smoking cessation?

A) isosorbide
B) verapamil
C) bupropion
D) propofol
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22
An example of a class III antiarrhythmic drug that interferes with potassium outflow is

A) lidocaine
B) amiodarone
C) acebutolol
D) verapamil
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23
An example of an HIV antiviral agent is

A) zidovudine
B) ketoconazole
C) butenafine
D) griseofulvin
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24
Which of the following drugs is NOT a proton pump inhibitor?

A) rabeprazole
B) omeprazole
C) sulfisoxazole
D) lansoprazole
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25
Which of the following is the trade name of amlodipine?

A) Norvasc
B) Plendil
C) Nisocor
D) Edecrin
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26
Which of the following drugs is NOT used for Parkinson's disease?

A) benztropine (Cogentin)
B) amantadine (Symmetrel)
C) fluoxetine (Prozac)
D) levodopa (Dopar)
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27
Which of the following drugs is NOT a bronchodilator used for treating asthma?

A) salbutamol
B) furazolidone
C) terbutaline
D) theophylline
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28
Which of the following drugs is NOT an antianxiety drug?

A) oxazepam (Serax)
B) spironolactone (Aldactone)
C) estazolam (Prosom)
D) alprazolam (Xanax)
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29
A useful agent in the treatment of mental disorders such as schizophrenia is

A) lorazepam (Ativan)
B) diazepam (Valium)
C) phenytoin (Dilantin)
D) perphenazine (Trilafon)
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30
Which of the following is an example of an "amide" local anesthetic?

A) benzocaine
B) lidocaine
C) dibucaine
D) procaine hydrochloride
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31
An example of an angiotensin II receptor blocker is

A) captopril (Capoten)
B) enalapril (Vasotec)
C) irbesartan (Avapro)
D) mivacurium (Mivacron)
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32
The generic name of Prozac is

A) fluoxetine
B) imipramine
C) nadolol
D) lidocaine
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33
An example of loop diuretics is

A) chlorothiazide
B) furosemide
C) triamterene
D) spironolactone
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34
Manipulating estrogen and progesterone levels can prevent

A) pregnancy
B) prostate cancer
C) breast cancer
D) abortion
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35
Which of the following statements about insulin is true?

A) Insulin is a hormone.
B) Insulin is a lipid.
C) Insulin is secreted by the thyroid gland.
D) Insulin is very slowly distributed through the extracellular fluid.
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36
Which of the following terms describes hyperexcitability of the brain and causes abnormal motor movements?

A) Parkinsonism
B) preeclampsia
C) eclampsia
D) epilepsy
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37
Which of the following is a disadvantage of most antihistamines?

A) sedation
B) insomnia
C) hypertension
D) tachycardia
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38
The presence of raised or abnormal levels of lipoproteins and lipids in the blood is called

A) hypertension
B) hyperlipidemia
C) hyperkalemia
D) hypernatremia
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39
The generic name of Tofranil is

A) citalopram
B) imipramine
C) sertraline
D) paroxetine
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40
Which of the following is capable of stopping the growth and reproduction of bacteria, but does not necessarily kill bacteria?

A) bacteriophage
B) bacteriocide
C) bacteriostat
D) bacteremic
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41
Oral contraceptives include estrogen and ____________________ combinations.
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42
An example of a stimulant laxative is

A) magnesium citrate (Citrate of Magnesia)
B) docusate (Colace)
C) psyllium seed (Metamucil)
D) bisacodyl (Dulcolax)
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43
The endocrine glands secrete ____________________.
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44
Sedatives and hypnotic drugs are used to treat ____________________ and ____________________ disorders.
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45
Type 1 diabetes is characterized by a lack of ____________________ production from the ____________________.
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46
Which of the following are the most potent and effective anti-inflammatory agents?

A) anticoagulants
B) antihistamines
C) opioids
D) corticosteroids
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47
Which of the following is NOT used to treat asthma?

A) budesonide (Pulmicort)
B) lansoprazole (Prevacid)
C) prednisolone (Prelone)
D) fluticasone (Flovent)
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48
Which of the following is NOT a primary antitubercular drug?

A) ethambutol
B) imipramine
C) isoniazid
D) rifampin
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49
The initial stimulus for coughing probably arises in the

A) bronchial mucosa
B) alveoli
C) nasal cavity
D) pleural cavity
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50
Three groups of medications to treat angina pectoris include nitrates, beta-adrenergic blockers, and ____________________ blockers.
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51
Histamine blockers that affect type 2 receptors are used for

A) peptic ulcers
B) allergies
C) asthma
D) inflammation of the skin
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52
The trade name of sertraline is

A) Paxil
B) Lithobid
C) Depakene
D) Zoloft
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53
Common arrhythmias originate in the ____________________ and ____________________ chambers of the heart.
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54
Psychosis is characterized by hallucinations and ____________________.
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55
Which of the following is NOT an antihistamine?

A) brompheniramine (Dimetane)
B) cetirizine (Zyrtec)
C) hydrocodone (Histussin)
D) loratadine (Claritin)
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56
An agent used to treat fungal diseases is

A) didanosine
B) amprenavir
C) azidothymidine
D) amphotericin B
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57
Anesthetics are agents that act generally on ____________________ tissue.
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58
Narcotic analgesics are also referred to as ____________________.
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59
The generic name of Tagamet is

A) cimetidine
B) nizatidine
C) ranitidine
D) famotidine
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60
Insulin doses are measured in ____________________.
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61
The cephalosporins are classified into ____________________ different generations.
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62
Match between columns
Dramamine
stage III anesthesia
Dramamine
stage IV anesthesia
Dramamine
convulsion
Dramamine
seizure
Dramamine
stage I anesthesia
Dramamine
sulfasalazine
Dramamine
nystatin
Dramamine
cephalexin
Dramamine
ampicillin
Dramamine
amikacin
Dramamine
ganciclovir
Dramamine
amoxicillin
Dramamine
nitrofurantoin
Dramamine
enfuvirtide
Dramamine
sulfisoxazole
Dramamine
cetirizine
Dramamine
dimenhydrinate
Dramamine
diphenhydramine
Dramamine
loratadine
Dramamine
fexofenadine
term for all epileptic events
stage III anesthesia
term for all epileptic events
stage IV anesthesia
term for all epileptic events
convulsion
term for all epileptic events
seizure
term for all epileptic events
stage I anesthesia
term for all epileptic events
sulfasalazine
term for all epileptic events
nystatin
term for all epileptic events
cephalexin
term for all epileptic events
ampicillin
term for all epileptic events
amikacin
term for all epileptic events
ganciclovir
term for all epileptic events
amoxicillin
term for all epileptic events
nitrofurantoin
term for all epileptic events
enfuvirtide
term for all epileptic events
sulfisoxazole
term for all epileptic events
cetirizine
term for all epileptic events
dimenhydrinate
term for all epileptic events
diphenhydramine
term for all epileptic events
loratadine
term for all epileptic events
fexofenadine
Gantrisin
stage III anesthesia
Gantrisin
stage IV anesthesia
Gantrisin
convulsion
Gantrisin
seizure
Gantrisin
stage I anesthesia
Gantrisin
sulfasalazine
Gantrisin
nystatin
Gantrisin
cephalexin
Gantrisin
ampicillin
Gantrisin
amikacin
Gantrisin
ganciclovir
Gantrisin
amoxicillin
Gantrisin
nitrofurantoin
Gantrisin
enfuvirtide
Gantrisin
sulfisoxazole
Gantrisin
cetirizine
Gantrisin
dimenhydrinate
Gantrisin
diphenhydramine
Gantrisin
loratadine
Gantrisin
fexofenadine
Trimox
stage III anesthesia
Trimox
stage IV anesthesia
Trimox
convulsion
Trimox
seizure
Trimox
stage I anesthesia
Trimox
sulfasalazine
Trimox
nystatin
Trimox
cephalexin
Trimox
ampicillin
Trimox
amikacin
Trimox
ganciclovir
Trimox
amoxicillin
Trimox
nitrofurantoin
Trimox
enfuvirtide
Trimox
sulfisoxazole
Trimox
cetirizine
Trimox
dimenhydrinate
Trimox
diphenhydramine
Trimox
loratadine
Trimox
fexofenadine
euphoria and amnesia
stage III anesthesia
euphoria and amnesia
stage IV anesthesia
euphoria and amnesia
convulsion
euphoria and amnesia
seizure
euphoria and amnesia
stage I anesthesia
euphoria and amnesia
sulfasalazine
euphoria and amnesia
nystatin
euphoria and amnesia
cephalexin
euphoria and amnesia
ampicillin
euphoria and amnesia
amikacin
euphoria and amnesia
ganciclovir
euphoria and amnesia
amoxicillin
euphoria and amnesia
nitrofurantoin
euphoria and amnesia
enfuvirtide
euphoria and amnesia
sulfisoxazole
euphoria and amnesia
cetirizine
euphoria and amnesia
dimenhydrinate
euphoria and amnesia
diphenhydramine
euphoria and amnesia
loratadine
euphoria and amnesia
fexofenadine
Omnipen
stage III anesthesia
Omnipen
stage IV anesthesia
Omnipen
convulsion
Omnipen
seizure
Omnipen
stage I anesthesia
Omnipen
sulfasalazine
Omnipen
nystatin
Omnipen
cephalexin
Omnipen
ampicillin
Omnipen
amikacin
Omnipen
ganciclovir
Omnipen
amoxicillin
Omnipen
nitrofurantoin
Omnipen
enfuvirtide
Omnipen
sulfisoxazole
Omnipen
cetirizine
Omnipen
dimenhydrinate
Omnipen
diphenhydramine
Omnipen
loratadine
Omnipen
fexofenadine
Allegra
stage III anesthesia
Allegra
stage IV anesthesia
Allegra
convulsion
Allegra
seizure
Allegra
stage I anesthesia
Allegra
sulfasalazine
Allegra
nystatin
Allegra
cephalexin
Allegra
ampicillin
Allegra
amikacin
Allegra
ganciclovir
Allegra
amoxicillin
Allegra
nitrofurantoin
Allegra
enfuvirtide
Allegra
sulfisoxazole
Allegra
cetirizine
Allegra
dimenhydrinate
Allegra
diphenhydramine
Allegra
loratadine
Allegra
fexofenadine
Keflex
stage III anesthesia
Keflex
stage IV anesthesia
Keflex
convulsion
Keflex
seizure
Keflex
stage I anesthesia
Keflex
sulfasalazine
Keflex
nystatin
Keflex
cephalexin
Keflex
ampicillin
Keflex
amikacin
Keflex
ganciclovir
Keflex
amoxicillin
Keflex
nitrofurantoin
Keflex
enfuvirtide
Keflex
sulfisoxazole
Keflex
cetirizine
Keflex
dimenhydrinate
Keflex
diphenhydramine
Keflex
loratadine
Keflex
fexofenadine
medullary depression begins
stage III anesthesia
medullary depression begins
stage IV anesthesia
medullary depression begins
convulsion
medullary depression begins
seizure
medullary depression begins
stage I anesthesia
medullary depression begins
sulfasalazine
medullary depression begins
nystatin
medullary depression begins
cephalexin
medullary depression begins
ampicillin
medullary depression begins
amikacin
medullary depression begins
ganciclovir
medullary depression begins
amoxicillin
medullary depression begins
nitrofurantoin
medullary depression begins
enfuvirtide
medullary depression begins
sulfisoxazole
medullary depression begins
cetirizine
medullary depression begins
dimenhydrinate
medullary depression begins
diphenhydramine
medullary depression begins
loratadine
medullary depression begins
fexofenadine
delirium and hypertension
stage III anesthesia
delirium and hypertension
stage IV anesthesia
delirium and hypertension
convulsion
delirium and hypertension
seizure
delirium and hypertension
stage I anesthesia
delirium and hypertension
sulfasalazine
delirium and hypertension
nystatin
delirium and hypertension
cephalexin
delirium and hypertension
ampicillin
delirium and hypertension
amikacin
delirium and hypertension
ganciclovir
delirium and hypertension
amoxicillin
delirium and hypertension
nitrofurantoin
delirium and hypertension
enfuvirtide
delirium and hypertension
sulfisoxazole
delirium and hypertension
cetirizine
delirium and hypertension
dimenhydrinate
delirium and hypertension
diphenhydramine
delirium and hypertension
loratadine
delirium and hypertension
fexofenadine
Zyrtec
stage III anesthesia
Zyrtec
stage IV anesthesia
Zyrtec
convulsion
Zyrtec
seizure
Zyrtec
stage I anesthesia
Zyrtec
sulfasalazine
Zyrtec
nystatin
Zyrtec
cephalexin
Zyrtec
ampicillin
Zyrtec
amikacin
Zyrtec
ganciclovir
Zyrtec
amoxicillin
Zyrtec
nitrofurantoin
Zyrtec
enfuvirtide
Zyrtec
sulfisoxazole
Zyrtec
cetirizine
Zyrtec
dimenhydrinate
Zyrtec
diphenhydramine
Zyrtec
loratadine
Zyrtec
fexofenadine
Mycostatin
stage III anesthesia
Mycostatin
stage IV anesthesia
Mycostatin
convulsion
Mycostatin
seizure
Mycostatin
stage I anesthesia
Mycostatin
sulfasalazine
Mycostatin
nystatin
Mycostatin
cephalexin
Mycostatin
ampicillin
Mycostatin
amikacin
Mycostatin
ganciclovir
Mycostatin
amoxicillin
Mycostatin
nitrofurantoin
Mycostatin
enfuvirtide
Mycostatin
sulfisoxazole
Mycostatin
cetirizine
Mycostatin
dimenhydrinate
Mycostatin
diphenhydramine
Mycostatin
loratadine
Mycostatin
fexofenadine
Cytovene
stage III anesthesia
Cytovene
stage IV anesthesia
Cytovene
convulsion
Cytovene
seizure
Cytovene
stage I anesthesia
Cytovene
sulfasalazine
Cytovene
nystatin
Cytovene
cephalexin
Cytovene
ampicillin
Cytovene
amikacin
Cytovene
ganciclovir
Cytovene
amoxicillin
Cytovene
nitrofurantoin
Cytovene
enfuvirtide
Cytovene
sulfisoxazole
Cytovene
cetirizine
Cytovene
dimenhydrinate
Cytovene
diphenhydramine
Cytovene
loratadine
Cytovene
fexofenadine
Adulfidine
stage III anesthesia
Adulfidine
stage IV anesthesia
Adulfidine
convulsion
Adulfidine
seizure
Adulfidine
stage I anesthesia
Adulfidine
sulfasalazine
Adulfidine
nystatin
Adulfidine
cephalexin
Adulfidine
ampicillin
Adulfidine
amikacin
Adulfidine
ganciclovir
Adulfidine
amoxicillin
Adulfidine
nitrofurantoin
Adulfidine
enfuvirtide
Adulfidine
sulfisoxazole
Adulfidine
cetirizine
Adulfidine
dimenhydrinate
Adulfidine
diphenhydramine
Adulfidine
loratadine
Adulfidine
fexofenadine
Amikin
stage III anesthesia
Amikin
stage IV anesthesia
Amikin
convulsion
Amikin
seizure
Amikin
stage I anesthesia
Amikin
sulfasalazine
Amikin
nystatin
Amikin
cephalexin
Amikin
ampicillin
Amikin
amikacin
Amikin
ganciclovir
Amikin
amoxicillin
Amikin
nitrofurantoin
Amikin
enfuvirtide
Amikin
sulfisoxazole
Amikin
cetirizine
Amikin
dimenhydrinate
Amikin
diphenhydramine
Amikin
loratadine
Amikin
fexofenadine
Benadryl
stage III anesthesia
Benadryl
stage IV anesthesia
Benadryl
convulsion
Benadryl
seizure
Benadryl
stage I anesthesia
Benadryl
sulfasalazine
Benadryl
nystatin
Benadryl
cephalexin
Benadryl
ampicillin
Benadryl
amikacin
Benadryl
ganciclovir
Benadryl
amoxicillin
Benadryl
nitrofurantoin
Benadryl
enfuvirtide
Benadryl
sulfisoxazole
Benadryl
cetirizine
Benadryl
dimenhydrinate
Benadryl
diphenhydramine
Benadryl
loratadine
Benadryl
fexofenadine
Claritin
stage III anesthesia
Claritin
stage IV anesthesia
Claritin
convulsion
Claritin
seizure
Claritin
stage I anesthesia
Claritin
sulfasalazine
Claritin
nystatin
Claritin
cephalexin
Claritin
ampicillin
Claritin
amikacin
Claritin
ganciclovir
Claritin
amoxicillin
Claritin
nitrofurantoin
Claritin
enfuvirtide
Claritin
sulfisoxazole
Claritin
cetirizine
Claritin
dimenhydrinate
Claritin
diphenhydramine
Claritin
loratadine
Claritin
fexofenadine
Fuzeon
stage III anesthesia
Fuzeon
stage IV anesthesia
Fuzeon
convulsion
Fuzeon
seizure
Fuzeon
stage I anesthesia
Fuzeon
sulfasalazine
Fuzeon
nystatin
Fuzeon
cephalexin
Fuzeon
ampicillin
Fuzeon
amikacin
Fuzeon
ganciclovir
Fuzeon
amoxicillin
Fuzeon
nitrofurantoin
Fuzeon
enfuvirtide
Fuzeon
sulfisoxazole
Fuzeon
cetirizine
Fuzeon
dimenhydrinate
Fuzeon
diphenhydramine
Fuzeon
loratadine
Fuzeon
fexofenadine
refers to abnormal motor movements
stage III anesthesia
refers to abnormal motor movements
stage IV anesthesia
refers to abnormal motor movements
convulsion
refers to abnormal motor movements
seizure
refers to abnormal motor movements
stage I anesthesia
refers to abnormal motor movements
sulfasalazine
refers to abnormal motor movements
nystatin
refers to abnormal motor movements
cephalexin
refers to abnormal motor movements
ampicillin
refers to abnormal motor movements
amikacin
refers to abnormal motor movements
ganciclovir
refers to abnormal motor movements
amoxicillin
refers to abnormal motor movements
nitrofurantoin
refers to abnormal motor movements
enfuvirtide
refers to abnormal motor movements
sulfisoxazole
refers to abnormal motor movements
cetirizine
refers to abnormal motor movements
dimenhydrinate
refers to abnormal motor movements
diphenhydramine
refers to abnormal motor movements
loratadine
refers to abnormal motor movements
fexofenadine
Furalan
stage III anesthesia
Furalan
stage IV anesthesia
Furalan
convulsion
Furalan
seizure
Furalan
stage I anesthesia
Furalan
sulfasalazine
Furalan
nystatin
Furalan
cephalexin
Furalan
ampicillin
Furalan
amikacin
Furalan
ganciclovir
Furalan
amoxicillin
Furalan
nitrofurantoin
Furalan
enfuvirtide
Furalan
sulfisoxazole
Furalan
cetirizine
Furalan
dimenhydrinate
Furalan
diphenhydramine
Furalan
loratadine
Furalan
fexofenadine
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63
Explain primary and secondary hypertension.
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64
Explain highly active antiretroviral therapy (HAART).
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65
Bronchodilators are agents that ____________________ the diameter of the bronchial tubes.
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66
Explain angina pectoris and list the main groups of medications that can help achieve the treatment goals.
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67
What are the different types of epilepsy? List the major groups of drugs used to control seizures.
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68
Penicillins were amongst the first ____________________ developed.
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69
Presently, four classes of antiretroviral agents effective against ____________________ exist.
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70
Explain general anesthesia and define its four stages.
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71
Acyclovir and amantadine are examples of ____________________.
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72
The most common form of heart failure is often referred to as ____________________ heart failure.
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73
Azithromycin is an example of the types of medicines known as ____________________.
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74
Skeletal muscle relaxants work by blocking somatic ____________________ nerve impulses through depression of specific neurons within the central nervous system.
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75
Pepcid and Axid are examples of H2 receptor ____________________.
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76
An elevation of the cholesterol levels in the blood is called ____________________.
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