Deck 7: Preventing Perioperative Disease and Transmission

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Question
When nested basin sets are being sterilized, how should they be placed in the steam sterilizer?

A) fold side down with a towel used to separate them
B) fold side down with tape holding them together securely
C) facing upright with a towel used to separate them
D) facing upright with tape holding them together securely
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Question
Contamination caused by passage of microorganisms through a sterilized package by way of moisture wicking is termed:

A) saturation
B) strike-through
C) solubilization
D) sequestration
Question
Which type of packaging system has filters and removable locking devices?

A) nonwoven wrapped
B) paper-plastic peel packs
C) rigid containers
D) woven wrapped
Question
Which of the following chemicals is a high-level disinfectant when items are immersed for 20 to 30 minutes and a sterilant if items remain immersed for 10 hours?

A) glutaraldehyde
B) isopropyl alcohol
C) quaternary ammonium compounds
D) sodium hypochlorite
Question
Which term means the number of microbes or amount of organic debris on an object at any given time?

A) asepsis
B) bioburden
C) infection
D) sepsis
Question
Which of the following is the type of dating system that denotes the number of the calendar day in 1 through 365/366?

A) alphanumeric
B) Cartesian
C) Julian
D) military
Question
What is the weight that AAMI has recommended instrument sets should NOT exceed?

A) 10 pounds
B) 15 pounds
C) 20 pounds
D) 25 pounds
Question
What term refers to a barrier, such as plastic-backed table cover, that does NOT allow for passage of liquid through it?

A) integral
B) insoluble
C) impervious
D) imperceptible
Question
Which of the following diseases is NOT a form of transmissible spongiform encephalopathy?

A) Creutzfeldt-Jakob
B) mad cow
C) scrapie
D) toxic shock
Question
When opening a wrapped item such as a gown on a Mayo stand, the contents and wrapper are considered sterile up to what distance from the edge of the wrapper?

A) all the way to the edge
B) 1 inch from the edge
C) 2 inches from the edge
D) Only the item itself is sterile.
Question
Cidex™ is the trade name for which of the following methods of sterilization?

A) ethylene oxide
B) glutaraldehyde
C) hydrogen peroxide gas plasma
D) peracetic acid
Question
Which sterilization method presents the greatest exposure risk to CSPD personnel, is expensive, and requires the longest total cycle time?

A) ethylene oxide
B) hydrogen peroxide gas plasma
C) peracetic acid
D) saturated steam under pressure
Question
Which type of wrapper material is compatible with the hydrogen peroxide gas plasma sterilization method?

A) cloth
B) muslin
C) paper
D) Tyvek
Question
The biological indicator (BI) for the steam sterilization method is:

A) DART
B) Bowie-Dick
C) Bacillus atrophaeus
D) Geobacillus stearothermophilus
Question
Which part of the instrument reprocessing cycle is performed intraoperatively?

A) mechanical decontamination
B) steam sterilization
C) ultrasonic washer
D) wiping with sterile water
Question
What is the relationship of steam pressure to temperature in a steam sterilizer?

A) Increased pressure increases temperature.
B) Increased temperature increases pressure.
C) Decreased pressure increases temperature.
D) Decreased temperature increases pressure.
Question
Which sterilization method is most commonly used, safest, least expensive, and appropriate for the majority of surgical instruments?

A) ethylene oxide
B) ionizing radiation
C) peracetic acid
D) saturated steam
Question
The physical or chemical process by which all living microorganisms, including spores, are killed is:

A) decontamination
B) disinfection
C) sanitization
D) sterilization
Question
What is the type of process the ultrasonic cleaner uses to dislodge minute particles of soil and organic debris?

A) cavitation
B) chelation
C) emulsification
D) solubilization
Question
How should air hoses of powered instruments or fiber-optic light cords be placed in rigid container trays for sterilization?

A) bound tightly with rubber bands
B) bound loosely with electrical tape
C) coiled loosely in perforated or mesh basket
D) coiled tightly in sealed peel-pack inside tray
Question
Which of the following is NOT a classification of patient care items?

A) critical
B) hypercritical
C) noncritical
D) semicritical
Question
During manual cleaning of surgical instruments, what type of solution should be used?

A) cold water, detergent, and enzymatic cleaner with high pH
B) lukewarm water, detergent, and enzymatic cleaner with neutral pH
C) hot water, detergent, and enzymatic cleaner with high pH
D) cold sterile water and enzymatic solution with low pH
Question
What is the term for the process of lubricating stiffened stainless steel surgical instruments by immersion in a water-soluble solution?

A) bathing
B) dunking
C) greasing
D) milking
Question
Which types of instruments must be cleaned with bristle-brushes on wires, pipe cleaners, or handheld pressure guns?

A) microsurgical scissors
B) self-retaining retractors
C) suction tip lumens
D) tissue forceps
Question
What is the term for inanimate objects that harbor microorganisms that contribute to environmental contamination?

A) flora
B) fomites
C) vectors
D) viruses
Question
All of the following are environmental specifications for the decontamination room in CSPD EXCEPT:

A) air exchange rate, minimum of 10 per hour
B) humidity between 35% and 72%
C) positive air pressure maintained
D) temperature between 64°F and 70°F
Question
Which of the following would be appropriate for use on animate surfaces?

A) antiseptic
B) decontaminant
C) disinfectant
D) sterilant
Question
Which of the following would be appropriate for soaking instruments covered with bioburden during a surgical procedure?

A) isopropyl alcohol
B) peracetic acid
C) sterile saline
D) sterile water
Question
What is a potential risk of placing surgical instruments of dissimilar metallic type together in a washer sterilizer cycle?

A) alarm triggered by washer sterilizer
B) bioburden contamination
C) electrolytic conduction reaction
D) static electrical spark
Question
Which of the following cleaning methods for surgical instrumentation relies on bubbles imploding, creating a vacuum that dislodges minute particles in crevices of instruments?

A) manual soak
B) ultrasonic cleaner
C) washer decontaminator
D) washer sterilizer
Question
Which type of chemical solution is made of catalysts that aid in breaking down proteinaceous debris such as blood and fat?

A) antiseptic
B) disinfectant
C) emulsifier
D) enzymatic
Question
Why are large steam sterilizers loaded with space between wrapped items or trays?

A) It ensures that the carts are not over-weighted.
B) It makes it easier to unload when the cycle is complete.
C) It allows adequate circulation and penetration of steam to all surfaces.
D) It allows for air to remain inside the packages to facilitate steam penetration.
Question
Why are items disinfected or sterilized in activated glutaraldehyde dried prior to submersion?

A) Moisture will prevent sterilant from reaching all surfaces.
B) Moisture will create a toxic chemical reaction with sterilant.
C) Moisture will cause air bubbles to form and prevent full contact.
D) Moisture will eventually dilute the concentration to ineffective levels.
Question
Before opening any sterilely packaged item, what is MOST important to verify about the package?

A) date sterilized
B) integrity of package
C) internal indicator/integrator
D) sterilization cycle number
Question
What is the term for the condition of a surgical technologist's skin after performing a surgical scrub?

A) bacteriostatic
B) nosocomial
C) surgically clean
D) terminally sterile
Question
What is the common name for the high-level disinfectant sodium hypochlorite?

A) ammonia
B) bleach
C) peroxide
D) vinegar
Question
Which type of surgical instrument must NEVER be immersed in any type of mechanical decontaminating equipment?

A) powered
B) stainless steel
C) titanium
D) tungsten-carbide
Question
What is another name for the intermediate-level disinfectant compound phenol?

A) amino acid
B) carbolic acid
C) muriatic acid
D) peracetic acid
Question
What is the term used to describe the process of removing all soiled linen, waste, and instruments from the room and cleaning of furniture, floors, or other contaminated surfaces in preparation for opening new supplies for a subsequent case?

A) changeover
B) concurrent cleaning
C) terminal cleaning
D) turnover
Question
Which of the following patient care items would be classified as noncritical?

A) colonoscopes
B) hypodermic needles
C) laryngoscopes
D) pulse oximeters
Question
A nonsterile person should approach a sterile area face forward while maintaining a distance of:

A) 6 inches
B) 12 inches
C) 2 feet
D) 6 feet
Question
The recommended biological indicator (BI) for hydrogen peroxide gas plasma is:

A) Bacillus atrophaeus
B) Bacillus subtilis
C) Geobacillus stearothermophilus
D) Staphylococcus aureus
Question
The Bowie-Dick test is performed for which sterilization method?

A) ethylene oxide gas
B) activated glutaraldehyde
C) hydrogen peroxide gas plasma
D) prevacuum air removal steam
Question
Which of the following concepts has replaced the previous system of assessing storage conditions and package integrity based on an arbitrary expiration designation?

A) double wrapping
B) event related
C) Julian dating
D) time related
Question
Where should the biological test pack be placed on the steam sterilization cart for the first run of the day?

A) top rack, back of sterilizer, under the injection valve
B) bottom rack, back of sterilizer, under the injection valve
C) top rack, front of sterilizer, over the drain
D) bottom rack, front of sterilizer, over the drain
Question
Which kind of quality control device consists of a paper that has been impregnated with a dye that changes color in the presence of a specified temperature and sterilant?

A) Cidex™ test strip
B) chemical indicator
C) mechanical readout
D) vial of spore population
Question
What would be the exposure phase time for an unwrapped instrument set with some lumens in a prevacuum/dynamic air removal steam autoclave?

A) 3 minutes
B) 4 minutes
C) 10 minutes
D) 30 minutes
Question
Which of the following statements regarding peracetic acid sterilized items is CORRECT?

A) Paper filters in the top lid and bottom of container must be changed for each cycle.
B) Items must be wrapped with Tyvek wrappers instead of cellulose-based wrappers.
C) Cassettes are not sealed, due to liquid immersion during the process, so they cannot be stored.
D) Aeration times will add hours to the total sterilization cycle time.
Question
What is the name of the outside area of an autoclave where steam is created before injection into the interior compartment?

A) aerator
B) chamber
C) gasket
D) jacket
Question
Which method of sterilization uses gamma rays or beta particles and is chiefly used by large manufacturing companies?

A) dry heat
B) ethylene oxide
C) hydrogen peroxide gas plasma
D) ionizing radiation
Question
Why are instruments placed in perforated or mesh-bottom trays for sterilization?

A) reduce tray weight
B) penetration of sterilant
C) easy grouping of instruments
D) easy removal of instruments
Question
When a sterilely attired surgical technologist drapes an unsterile table, he or she opens the drape:

A) away from him- or herself first
B) by shaking out folds first and laying it across table
C) toward him- or herself first
D) toward sides and pulls drape down well below edge
Question
Which of the following is the MOST important factor in a surgical technologist's role in preventing surgical site infections?

A) extensive knowledge of anatomy
B) high GPA while a student
C) participation in the "time out"
D) strict surgical conscience
Question
How long should the steam biological indicator be incubated before the reading is recorded?

A) 1 hour
B) 6 hours
C) 12 hours
D) 24 hours
Question
Which of the following is an acceptable position for placement of a scrubbed, gowned, and gloved surgical technologist's hands?

A) clasped together in front at waist level
B) grasping edge of draped back table with fingers coiled under table edge
C) hanging down at sides with hands below table level
D) tucked into axillary region (armpits)
Question
Personnel in CSPD who must move instruments from the ethylene oxide sterilizer to an aeration room should do which of the following with the cart to reduce their exposure to vented gases?

A) pull it
B) push it
C) cover it with plastic
D) open a window
Question
Sterilely attired surgical team members should pass one another in any of the following ways EXCEPT:

A) back to back
B) front to front
C) front to back
D) rotating 360° around
Question
What is the advantage of using ethylene oxide gas sterilization?

A) It is the safest method of sterilization.
B) It has the shortest total cycle time.
C) It is the least expensive method.
D) It is safe for heat- and moisture-sensitive items.
Question
Which of the following should NEVER be processed by immediate-use (flash) sterilization methods?

A) ebonized laser instruments
B) implantable devices
C) stainless steel suction tips
D) titanium microinstrumentation
Question
Which method of chemical sterilization has limitations based on the challenge of diffusion into narrow lumens?

A) ethylene oxide gas
B) glutaraldehyde
C) hydrogen peroxide gas plasma
D) peracetic acid
Question
Match between columns
Fungal infection caused by bread mold; sometimes seen in immune-suppressed organ transplant patients
Prokaryotes
Fungal infection caused by bread mold; sometimes seen in immune-suppressed organ transplant patients
Viruses
Fungal infection caused by bread mold; sometimes seen in immune-suppressed organ transplant patients
Flagella
Fungal infection caused by bread mold; sometimes seen in immune-suppressed organ transplant patients
Staphylococcus aureus
Fungal infection caused by bread mold; sometimes seen in immune-suppressed organ transplant patients
Prions
Fungal infection caused by bread mold; sometimes seen in immune-suppressed organ transplant patients
Helminths
Fungal infection caused by bread mold; sometimes seen in immune-suppressed organ transplant patients
Zygomycosis
Fungal infection caused by bread mold; sometimes seen in immune-suppressed organ transplant patients
Clostridium perfringens
Fungal infection caused by bread mold; sometimes seen in immune-suppressed organ transplant patients
Helicobacter pylori
Fungal infection caused by bread mold; sometimes seen in immune-suppressed organ transplant patients
Spores
Bacterial species that can survive in environmental extremes and whose genetic material is enclosed within a protein capsule until conditions are favorable for reproduction
Prokaryotes
Bacterial species that can survive in environmental extremes and whose genetic material is enclosed within a protein capsule until conditions are favorable for reproduction
Viruses
Bacterial species that can survive in environmental extremes and whose genetic material is enclosed within a protein capsule until conditions are favorable for reproduction
Flagella
Bacterial species that can survive in environmental extremes and whose genetic material is enclosed within a protein capsule until conditions are favorable for reproduction
Staphylococcus aureus
Bacterial species that can survive in environmental extremes and whose genetic material is enclosed within a protein capsule until conditions are favorable for reproduction
Prions
Bacterial species that can survive in environmental extremes and whose genetic material is enclosed within a protein capsule until conditions are favorable for reproduction
Helminths
Bacterial species that can survive in environmental extremes and whose genetic material is enclosed within a protein capsule until conditions are favorable for reproduction
Zygomycosis
Bacterial species that can survive in environmental extremes and whose genetic material is enclosed within a protein capsule until conditions are favorable for reproduction
Clostridium perfringens
Bacterial species that can survive in environmental extremes and whose genetic material is enclosed within a protein capsule until conditions are favorable for reproduction
Helicobacter pylori
Bacterial species that can survive in environmental extremes and whose genetic material is enclosed within a protein capsule until conditions are favorable for reproduction
Spores
Anaerobic gram-positive bacteria responsible for gas gangrene, cellulitis, and fasciitis
Prokaryotes
Anaerobic gram-positive bacteria responsible for gas gangrene, cellulitis, and fasciitis
Viruses
Anaerobic gram-positive bacteria responsible for gas gangrene, cellulitis, and fasciitis
Flagella
Anaerobic gram-positive bacteria responsible for gas gangrene, cellulitis, and fasciitis
Staphylococcus aureus
Anaerobic gram-positive bacteria responsible for gas gangrene, cellulitis, and fasciitis
Prions
Anaerobic gram-positive bacteria responsible for gas gangrene, cellulitis, and fasciitis
Helminths
Anaerobic gram-positive bacteria responsible for gas gangrene, cellulitis, and fasciitis
Zygomycosis
Anaerobic gram-positive bacteria responsible for gas gangrene, cellulitis, and fasciitis
Clostridium perfringens
Anaerobic gram-positive bacteria responsible for gas gangrene, cellulitis, and fasciitis
Helicobacter pylori
Anaerobic gram-positive bacteria responsible for gas gangrene, cellulitis, and fasciitis
Spores
Long, thin structure attached to the outside of a cell; motility achieved by whipping motion
Prokaryotes
Long, thin structure attached to the outside of a cell; motility achieved by whipping motion
Viruses
Long, thin structure attached to the outside of a cell; motility achieved by whipping motion
Flagella
Long, thin structure attached to the outside of a cell; motility achieved by whipping motion
Staphylococcus aureus
Long, thin structure attached to the outside of a cell; motility achieved by whipping motion
Prions
Long, thin structure attached to the outside of a cell; motility achieved by whipping motion
Helminths
Long, thin structure attached to the outside of a cell; motility achieved by whipping motion
Zygomycosis
Long, thin structure attached to the outside of a cell; motility achieved by whipping motion
Clostridium perfringens
Long, thin structure attached to the outside of a cell; motility achieved by whipping motion
Helicobacter pylori
Long, thin structure attached to the outside of a cell; motility achieved by whipping motion
Spores
Aerobic, gram-negative bacilli responsible for many gastric ulcers
Prokaryotes
Aerobic, gram-negative bacilli responsible for many gastric ulcers
Viruses
Aerobic, gram-negative bacilli responsible for many gastric ulcers
Flagella
Aerobic, gram-negative bacilli responsible for many gastric ulcers
Staphylococcus aureus
Aerobic, gram-negative bacilli responsible for many gastric ulcers
Prions
Aerobic, gram-negative bacilli responsible for many gastric ulcers
Helminths
Aerobic, gram-negative bacilli responsible for many gastric ulcers
Zygomycosis
Aerobic, gram-negative bacilli responsible for many gastric ulcers
Clostridium perfringens
Aerobic, gram-negative bacilli responsible for many gastric ulcers
Helicobacter pylori
Aerobic, gram-negative bacilli responsible for many gastric ulcers
Spores
Organism most commonly associated with surgical site infections
Prokaryotes
Organism most commonly associated with surgical site infections
Viruses
Organism most commonly associated with surgical site infections
Flagella
Organism most commonly associated with surgical site infections
Staphylococcus aureus
Organism most commonly associated with surgical site infections
Prions
Organism most commonly associated with surgical site infections
Helminths
Organism most commonly associated with surgical site infections
Zygomycosis
Organism most commonly associated with surgical site infections
Clostridium perfringens
Organism most commonly associated with surgical site infections
Helicobacter pylori
Organism most commonly associated with surgical site infections
Spores
Nonliving proteinaceous infectious particle; contains no DNA or RNA; responsible for transmissible spongiform encephalopathy
Prokaryotes
Nonliving proteinaceous infectious particle; contains no DNA or RNA; responsible for transmissible spongiform encephalopathy
Viruses
Nonliving proteinaceous infectious particle; contains no DNA or RNA; responsible for transmissible spongiform encephalopathy
Flagella
Nonliving proteinaceous infectious particle; contains no DNA or RNA; responsible for transmissible spongiform encephalopathy
Staphylococcus aureus
Nonliving proteinaceous infectious particle; contains no DNA or RNA; responsible for transmissible spongiform encephalopathy
Prions
Nonliving proteinaceous infectious particle; contains no DNA or RNA; responsible for transmissible spongiform encephalopathy
Helminths
Nonliving proteinaceous infectious particle; contains no DNA or RNA; responsible for transmissible spongiform encephalopathy
Zygomycosis
Nonliving proteinaceous infectious particle; contains no DNA or RNA; responsible for transmissible spongiform encephalopathy
Clostridium perfringens
Nonliving proteinaceous infectious particle; contains no DNA or RNA; responsible for transmissible spongiform encephalopathy
Helicobacter pylori
Nonliving proteinaceous infectious particle; contains no DNA or RNA; responsible for transmissible spongiform encephalopathy
Spores
Classification of parasites such as cysticerci (pork tapeworms) that can create lesions in the brain and soft tissues, which require surgical removal
Prokaryotes
Classification of parasites such as cysticerci (pork tapeworms) that can create lesions in the brain and soft tissues, which require surgical removal
Viruses
Classification of parasites such as cysticerci (pork tapeworms) that can create lesions in the brain and soft tissues, which require surgical removal
Flagella
Classification of parasites such as cysticerci (pork tapeworms) that can create lesions in the brain and soft tissues, which require surgical removal
Staphylococcus aureus
Classification of parasites such as cysticerci (pork tapeworms) that can create lesions in the brain and soft tissues, which require surgical removal
Prions
Classification of parasites such as cysticerci (pork tapeworms) that can create lesions in the brain and soft tissues, which require surgical removal
Helminths
Classification of parasites such as cysticerci (pork tapeworms) that can create lesions in the brain and soft tissues, which require surgical removal
Zygomycosis
Classification of parasites such as cysticerci (pork tapeworms) that can create lesions in the brain and soft tissues, which require surgical removal
Clostridium perfringens
Classification of parasites such as cysticerci (pork tapeworms) that can create lesions in the brain and soft tissues, which require surgical removal
Helicobacter pylori
Classification of parasites such as cysticerci (pork tapeworms) that can create lesions in the brain and soft tissues, which require surgical removal
Spores
Nonliving obligate intracellular parasites; contain either DNA or RNA, but not both
Prokaryotes
Nonliving obligate intracellular parasites; contain either DNA or RNA, but not both
Viruses
Nonliving obligate intracellular parasites; contain either DNA or RNA, but not both
Flagella
Nonliving obligate intracellular parasites; contain either DNA or RNA, but not both
Staphylococcus aureus
Nonliving obligate intracellular parasites; contain either DNA or RNA, but not both
Prions
Nonliving obligate intracellular parasites; contain either DNA or RNA, but not both
Helminths
Nonliving obligate intracellular parasites; contain either DNA or RNA, but not both
Zygomycosis
Nonliving obligate intracellular parasites; contain either DNA or RNA, but not both
Clostridium perfringens
Nonliving obligate intracellular parasites; contain either DNA or RNA, but not both
Helicobacter pylori
Nonliving obligate intracellular parasites; contain either DNA or RNA, but not both
Spores
Type of organisms whose organelles are not membrane bound; divide by binary fission; includes bacteria
Prokaryotes
Type of organisms whose organelles are not membrane bound; divide by binary fission; includes bacteria
Viruses
Type of organisms whose organelles are not membrane bound; divide by binary fission; includes bacteria
Flagella
Type of organisms whose organelles are not membrane bound; divide by binary fission; includes bacteria
Staphylococcus aureus
Type of organisms whose organelles are not membrane bound; divide by binary fission; includes bacteria
Prions
Type of organisms whose organelles are not membrane bound; divide by binary fission; includes bacteria
Helminths
Type of organisms whose organelles are not membrane bound; divide by binary fission; includes bacteria
Zygomycosis
Type of organisms whose organelles are not membrane bound; divide by binary fission; includes bacteria
Clostridium perfringens
Type of organisms whose organelles are not membrane bound; divide by binary fission; includes bacteria
Helicobacter pylori
Type of organisms whose organelles are not membrane bound; divide by binary fission; includes bacteria
Spores
Question
Sterilization process monitors include mechanical, chemical, and biological methods to ensure all parameters were met.
Question
The relative humidity in an ethylene oxide sterilizer should be below 30% to aid in the penetration of the gas through bacterial spores' protective coating.
Question
Internal chemical indicator/integrators should be placed in the center or most challenging portion of a tray for the sterilant to reach.
Question
Gravity displacement steam sterilizer cycles are much shorter than prevacuum cycles.
Question
In steam sterilization, thermal destruction of microbes is the result of the denaturation and coagulation of protein within the cells.
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Deck 7: Preventing Perioperative Disease and Transmission
1
When nested basin sets are being sterilized, how should they be placed in the steam sterilizer?

A) fold side down with a towel used to separate them
B) fold side down with tape holding them together securely
C) facing upright with a towel used to separate them
D) facing upright with tape holding them together securely
A
2
Contamination caused by passage of microorganisms through a sterilized package by way of moisture wicking is termed:

A) saturation
B) strike-through
C) solubilization
D) sequestration
B
3
Which type of packaging system has filters and removable locking devices?

A) nonwoven wrapped
B) paper-plastic peel packs
C) rigid containers
D) woven wrapped
C
4
Which of the following chemicals is a high-level disinfectant when items are immersed for 20 to 30 minutes and a sterilant if items remain immersed for 10 hours?

A) glutaraldehyde
B) isopropyl alcohol
C) quaternary ammonium compounds
D) sodium hypochlorite
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k this deck
5
Which term means the number of microbes or amount of organic debris on an object at any given time?

A) asepsis
B) bioburden
C) infection
D) sepsis
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k this deck
6
Which of the following is the type of dating system that denotes the number of the calendar day in 1 through 365/366?

A) alphanumeric
B) Cartesian
C) Julian
D) military
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7
What is the weight that AAMI has recommended instrument sets should NOT exceed?

A) 10 pounds
B) 15 pounds
C) 20 pounds
D) 25 pounds
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8
What term refers to a barrier, such as plastic-backed table cover, that does NOT allow for passage of liquid through it?

A) integral
B) insoluble
C) impervious
D) imperceptible
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9
Which of the following diseases is NOT a form of transmissible spongiform encephalopathy?

A) Creutzfeldt-Jakob
B) mad cow
C) scrapie
D) toxic shock
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10
When opening a wrapped item such as a gown on a Mayo stand, the contents and wrapper are considered sterile up to what distance from the edge of the wrapper?

A) all the way to the edge
B) 1 inch from the edge
C) 2 inches from the edge
D) Only the item itself is sterile.
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11
Cidex™ is the trade name for which of the following methods of sterilization?

A) ethylene oxide
B) glutaraldehyde
C) hydrogen peroxide gas plasma
D) peracetic acid
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12
Which sterilization method presents the greatest exposure risk to CSPD personnel, is expensive, and requires the longest total cycle time?

A) ethylene oxide
B) hydrogen peroxide gas plasma
C) peracetic acid
D) saturated steam under pressure
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13
Which type of wrapper material is compatible with the hydrogen peroxide gas plasma sterilization method?

A) cloth
B) muslin
C) paper
D) Tyvek
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14
The biological indicator (BI) for the steam sterilization method is:

A) DART
B) Bowie-Dick
C) Bacillus atrophaeus
D) Geobacillus stearothermophilus
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15
Which part of the instrument reprocessing cycle is performed intraoperatively?

A) mechanical decontamination
B) steam sterilization
C) ultrasonic washer
D) wiping with sterile water
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16
What is the relationship of steam pressure to temperature in a steam sterilizer?

A) Increased pressure increases temperature.
B) Increased temperature increases pressure.
C) Decreased pressure increases temperature.
D) Decreased temperature increases pressure.
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17
Which sterilization method is most commonly used, safest, least expensive, and appropriate for the majority of surgical instruments?

A) ethylene oxide
B) ionizing radiation
C) peracetic acid
D) saturated steam
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18
The physical or chemical process by which all living microorganisms, including spores, are killed is:

A) decontamination
B) disinfection
C) sanitization
D) sterilization
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19
What is the type of process the ultrasonic cleaner uses to dislodge minute particles of soil and organic debris?

A) cavitation
B) chelation
C) emulsification
D) solubilization
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20
How should air hoses of powered instruments or fiber-optic light cords be placed in rigid container trays for sterilization?

A) bound tightly with rubber bands
B) bound loosely with electrical tape
C) coiled loosely in perforated or mesh basket
D) coiled tightly in sealed peel-pack inside tray
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21
Which of the following is NOT a classification of patient care items?

A) critical
B) hypercritical
C) noncritical
D) semicritical
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22
During manual cleaning of surgical instruments, what type of solution should be used?

A) cold water, detergent, and enzymatic cleaner with high pH
B) lukewarm water, detergent, and enzymatic cleaner with neutral pH
C) hot water, detergent, and enzymatic cleaner with high pH
D) cold sterile water and enzymatic solution with low pH
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23
What is the term for the process of lubricating stiffened stainless steel surgical instruments by immersion in a water-soluble solution?

A) bathing
B) dunking
C) greasing
D) milking
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24
Which types of instruments must be cleaned with bristle-brushes on wires, pipe cleaners, or handheld pressure guns?

A) microsurgical scissors
B) self-retaining retractors
C) suction tip lumens
D) tissue forceps
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25
What is the term for inanimate objects that harbor microorganisms that contribute to environmental contamination?

A) flora
B) fomites
C) vectors
D) viruses
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26
All of the following are environmental specifications for the decontamination room in CSPD EXCEPT:

A) air exchange rate, minimum of 10 per hour
B) humidity between 35% and 72%
C) positive air pressure maintained
D) temperature between 64°F and 70°F
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27
Which of the following would be appropriate for use on animate surfaces?

A) antiseptic
B) decontaminant
C) disinfectant
D) sterilant
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28
Which of the following would be appropriate for soaking instruments covered with bioburden during a surgical procedure?

A) isopropyl alcohol
B) peracetic acid
C) sterile saline
D) sterile water
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29
What is a potential risk of placing surgical instruments of dissimilar metallic type together in a washer sterilizer cycle?

A) alarm triggered by washer sterilizer
B) bioburden contamination
C) electrolytic conduction reaction
D) static electrical spark
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30
Which of the following cleaning methods for surgical instrumentation relies on bubbles imploding, creating a vacuum that dislodges minute particles in crevices of instruments?

A) manual soak
B) ultrasonic cleaner
C) washer decontaminator
D) washer sterilizer
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31
Which type of chemical solution is made of catalysts that aid in breaking down proteinaceous debris such as blood and fat?

A) antiseptic
B) disinfectant
C) emulsifier
D) enzymatic
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32
Why are large steam sterilizers loaded with space between wrapped items or trays?

A) It ensures that the carts are not over-weighted.
B) It makes it easier to unload when the cycle is complete.
C) It allows adequate circulation and penetration of steam to all surfaces.
D) It allows for air to remain inside the packages to facilitate steam penetration.
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33
Why are items disinfected or sterilized in activated glutaraldehyde dried prior to submersion?

A) Moisture will prevent sterilant from reaching all surfaces.
B) Moisture will create a toxic chemical reaction with sterilant.
C) Moisture will cause air bubbles to form and prevent full contact.
D) Moisture will eventually dilute the concentration to ineffective levels.
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34
Before opening any sterilely packaged item, what is MOST important to verify about the package?

A) date sterilized
B) integrity of package
C) internal indicator/integrator
D) sterilization cycle number
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35
What is the term for the condition of a surgical technologist's skin after performing a surgical scrub?

A) bacteriostatic
B) nosocomial
C) surgically clean
D) terminally sterile
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36
What is the common name for the high-level disinfectant sodium hypochlorite?

A) ammonia
B) bleach
C) peroxide
D) vinegar
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37
Which type of surgical instrument must NEVER be immersed in any type of mechanical decontaminating equipment?

A) powered
B) stainless steel
C) titanium
D) tungsten-carbide
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38
What is another name for the intermediate-level disinfectant compound phenol?

A) amino acid
B) carbolic acid
C) muriatic acid
D) peracetic acid
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39
What is the term used to describe the process of removing all soiled linen, waste, and instruments from the room and cleaning of furniture, floors, or other contaminated surfaces in preparation for opening new supplies for a subsequent case?

A) changeover
B) concurrent cleaning
C) terminal cleaning
D) turnover
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40
Which of the following patient care items would be classified as noncritical?

A) colonoscopes
B) hypodermic needles
C) laryngoscopes
D) pulse oximeters
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41
A nonsterile person should approach a sterile area face forward while maintaining a distance of:

A) 6 inches
B) 12 inches
C) 2 feet
D) 6 feet
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42
The recommended biological indicator (BI) for hydrogen peroxide gas plasma is:

A) Bacillus atrophaeus
B) Bacillus subtilis
C) Geobacillus stearothermophilus
D) Staphylococcus aureus
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43
The Bowie-Dick test is performed for which sterilization method?

A) ethylene oxide gas
B) activated glutaraldehyde
C) hydrogen peroxide gas plasma
D) prevacuum air removal steam
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44
Which of the following concepts has replaced the previous system of assessing storage conditions and package integrity based on an arbitrary expiration designation?

A) double wrapping
B) event related
C) Julian dating
D) time related
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45
Where should the biological test pack be placed on the steam sterilization cart for the first run of the day?

A) top rack, back of sterilizer, under the injection valve
B) bottom rack, back of sterilizer, under the injection valve
C) top rack, front of sterilizer, over the drain
D) bottom rack, front of sterilizer, over the drain
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46
Which kind of quality control device consists of a paper that has been impregnated with a dye that changes color in the presence of a specified temperature and sterilant?

A) Cidex™ test strip
B) chemical indicator
C) mechanical readout
D) vial of spore population
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47
What would be the exposure phase time for an unwrapped instrument set with some lumens in a prevacuum/dynamic air removal steam autoclave?

A) 3 minutes
B) 4 minutes
C) 10 minutes
D) 30 minutes
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48
Which of the following statements regarding peracetic acid sterilized items is CORRECT?

A) Paper filters in the top lid and bottom of container must be changed for each cycle.
B) Items must be wrapped with Tyvek wrappers instead of cellulose-based wrappers.
C) Cassettes are not sealed, due to liquid immersion during the process, so they cannot be stored.
D) Aeration times will add hours to the total sterilization cycle time.
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49
What is the name of the outside area of an autoclave where steam is created before injection into the interior compartment?

A) aerator
B) chamber
C) gasket
D) jacket
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50
Which method of sterilization uses gamma rays or beta particles and is chiefly used by large manufacturing companies?

A) dry heat
B) ethylene oxide
C) hydrogen peroxide gas plasma
D) ionizing radiation
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51
Why are instruments placed in perforated or mesh-bottom trays for sterilization?

A) reduce tray weight
B) penetration of sterilant
C) easy grouping of instruments
D) easy removal of instruments
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52
When a sterilely attired surgical technologist drapes an unsterile table, he or she opens the drape:

A) away from him- or herself first
B) by shaking out folds first and laying it across table
C) toward him- or herself first
D) toward sides and pulls drape down well below edge
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53
Which of the following is the MOST important factor in a surgical technologist's role in preventing surgical site infections?

A) extensive knowledge of anatomy
B) high GPA while a student
C) participation in the "time out"
D) strict surgical conscience
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54
How long should the steam biological indicator be incubated before the reading is recorded?

A) 1 hour
B) 6 hours
C) 12 hours
D) 24 hours
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55
Which of the following is an acceptable position for placement of a scrubbed, gowned, and gloved surgical technologist's hands?

A) clasped together in front at waist level
B) grasping edge of draped back table with fingers coiled under table edge
C) hanging down at sides with hands below table level
D) tucked into axillary region (armpits)
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56
Personnel in CSPD who must move instruments from the ethylene oxide sterilizer to an aeration room should do which of the following with the cart to reduce their exposure to vented gases?

A) pull it
B) push it
C) cover it with plastic
D) open a window
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57
Sterilely attired surgical team members should pass one another in any of the following ways EXCEPT:

A) back to back
B) front to front
C) front to back
D) rotating 360° around
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58
What is the advantage of using ethylene oxide gas sterilization?

A) It is the safest method of sterilization.
B) It has the shortest total cycle time.
C) It is the least expensive method.
D) It is safe for heat- and moisture-sensitive items.
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59
Which of the following should NEVER be processed by immediate-use (flash) sterilization methods?

A) ebonized laser instruments
B) implantable devices
C) stainless steel suction tips
D) titanium microinstrumentation
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60
Which method of chemical sterilization has limitations based on the challenge of diffusion into narrow lumens?

A) ethylene oxide gas
B) glutaraldehyde
C) hydrogen peroxide gas plasma
D) peracetic acid
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61
Match between columns
Fungal infection caused by bread mold; sometimes seen in immune-suppressed organ transplant patients
Prokaryotes
Fungal infection caused by bread mold; sometimes seen in immune-suppressed organ transplant patients
Viruses
Fungal infection caused by bread mold; sometimes seen in immune-suppressed organ transplant patients
Flagella
Fungal infection caused by bread mold; sometimes seen in immune-suppressed organ transplant patients
Staphylococcus aureus
Fungal infection caused by bread mold; sometimes seen in immune-suppressed organ transplant patients
Prions
Fungal infection caused by bread mold; sometimes seen in immune-suppressed organ transplant patients
Helminths
Fungal infection caused by bread mold; sometimes seen in immune-suppressed organ transplant patients
Zygomycosis
Fungal infection caused by bread mold; sometimes seen in immune-suppressed organ transplant patients
Clostridium perfringens
Fungal infection caused by bread mold; sometimes seen in immune-suppressed organ transplant patients
Helicobacter pylori
Fungal infection caused by bread mold; sometimes seen in immune-suppressed organ transplant patients
Spores
Bacterial species that can survive in environmental extremes and whose genetic material is enclosed within a protein capsule until conditions are favorable for reproduction
Prokaryotes
Bacterial species that can survive in environmental extremes and whose genetic material is enclosed within a protein capsule until conditions are favorable for reproduction
Viruses
Bacterial species that can survive in environmental extremes and whose genetic material is enclosed within a protein capsule until conditions are favorable for reproduction
Flagella
Bacterial species that can survive in environmental extremes and whose genetic material is enclosed within a protein capsule until conditions are favorable for reproduction
Staphylococcus aureus
Bacterial species that can survive in environmental extremes and whose genetic material is enclosed within a protein capsule until conditions are favorable for reproduction
Prions
Bacterial species that can survive in environmental extremes and whose genetic material is enclosed within a protein capsule until conditions are favorable for reproduction
Helminths
Bacterial species that can survive in environmental extremes and whose genetic material is enclosed within a protein capsule until conditions are favorable for reproduction
Zygomycosis
Bacterial species that can survive in environmental extremes and whose genetic material is enclosed within a protein capsule until conditions are favorable for reproduction
Clostridium perfringens
Bacterial species that can survive in environmental extremes and whose genetic material is enclosed within a protein capsule until conditions are favorable for reproduction
Helicobacter pylori
Bacterial species that can survive in environmental extremes and whose genetic material is enclosed within a protein capsule until conditions are favorable for reproduction
Spores
Anaerobic gram-positive bacteria responsible for gas gangrene, cellulitis, and fasciitis
Prokaryotes
Anaerobic gram-positive bacteria responsible for gas gangrene, cellulitis, and fasciitis
Viruses
Anaerobic gram-positive bacteria responsible for gas gangrene, cellulitis, and fasciitis
Flagella
Anaerobic gram-positive bacteria responsible for gas gangrene, cellulitis, and fasciitis
Staphylococcus aureus
Anaerobic gram-positive bacteria responsible for gas gangrene, cellulitis, and fasciitis
Prions
Anaerobic gram-positive bacteria responsible for gas gangrene, cellulitis, and fasciitis
Helminths
Anaerobic gram-positive bacteria responsible for gas gangrene, cellulitis, and fasciitis
Zygomycosis
Anaerobic gram-positive bacteria responsible for gas gangrene, cellulitis, and fasciitis
Clostridium perfringens
Anaerobic gram-positive bacteria responsible for gas gangrene, cellulitis, and fasciitis
Helicobacter pylori
Anaerobic gram-positive bacteria responsible for gas gangrene, cellulitis, and fasciitis
Spores
Long, thin structure attached to the outside of a cell; motility achieved by whipping motion
Prokaryotes
Long, thin structure attached to the outside of a cell; motility achieved by whipping motion
Viruses
Long, thin structure attached to the outside of a cell; motility achieved by whipping motion
Flagella
Long, thin structure attached to the outside of a cell; motility achieved by whipping motion
Staphylococcus aureus
Long, thin structure attached to the outside of a cell; motility achieved by whipping motion
Prions
Long, thin structure attached to the outside of a cell; motility achieved by whipping motion
Helminths
Long, thin structure attached to the outside of a cell; motility achieved by whipping motion
Zygomycosis
Long, thin structure attached to the outside of a cell; motility achieved by whipping motion
Clostridium perfringens
Long, thin structure attached to the outside of a cell; motility achieved by whipping motion
Helicobacter pylori
Long, thin structure attached to the outside of a cell; motility achieved by whipping motion
Spores
Aerobic, gram-negative bacilli responsible for many gastric ulcers
Prokaryotes
Aerobic, gram-negative bacilli responsible for many gastric ulcers
Viruses
Aerobic, gram-negative bacilli responsible for many gastric ulcers
Flagella
Aerobic, gram-negative bacilli responsible for many gastric ulcers
Staphylococcus aureus
Aerobic, gram-negative bacilli responsible for many gastric ulcers
Prions
Aerobic, gram-negative bacilli responsible for many gastric ulcers
Helminths
Aerobic, gram-negative bacilli responsible for many gastric ulcers
Zygomycosis
Aerobic, gram-negative bacilli responsible for many gastric ulcers
Clostridium perfringens
Aerobic, gram-negative bacilli responsible for many gastric ulcers
Helicobacter pylori
Aerobic, gram-negative bacilli responsible for many gastric ulcers
Spores
Organism most commonly associated with surgical site infections
Prokaryotes
Organism most commonly associated with surgical site infections
Viruses
Organism most commonly associated with surgical site infections
Flagella
Organism most commonly associated with surgical site infections
Staphylococcus aureus
Organism most commonly associated with surgical site infections
Prions
Organism most commonly associated with surgical site infections
Helminths
Organism most commonly associated with surgical site infections
Zygomycosis
Organism most commonly associated with surgical site infections
Clostridium perfringens
Organism most commonly associated with surgical site infections
Helicobacter pylori
Organism most commonly associated with surgical site infections
Spores
Nonliving proteinaceous infectious particle; contains no DNA or RNA; responsible for transmissible spongiform encephalopathy
Prokaryotes
Nonliving proteinaceous infectious particle; contains no DNA or RNA; responsible for transmissible spongiform encephalopathy
Viruses
Nonliving proteinaceous infectious particle; contains no DNA or RNA; responsible for transmissible spongiform encephalopathy
Flagella
Nonliving proteinaceous infectious particle; contains no DNA or RNA; responsible for transmissible spongiform encephalopathy
Staphylococcus aureus
Nonliving proteinaceous infectious particle; contains no DNA or RNA; responsible for transmissible spongiform encephalopathy
Prions
Nonliving proteinaceous infectious particle; contains no DNA or RNA; responsible for transmissible spongiform encephalopathy
Helminths
Nonliving proteinaceous infectious particle; contains no DNA or RNA; responsible for transmissible spongiform encephalopathy
Zygomycosis
Nonliving proteinaceous infectious particle; contains no DNA or RNA; responsible for transmissible spongiform encephalopathy
Clostridium perfringens
Nonliving proteinaceous infectious particle; contains no DNA or RNA; responsible for transmissible spongiform encephalopathy
Helicobacter pylori
Nonliving proteinaceous infectious particle; contains no DNA or RNA; responsible for transmissible spongiform encephalopathy
Spores
Classification of parasites such as cysticerci (pork tapeworms) that can create lesions in the brain and soft tissues, which require surgical removal
Prokaryotes
Classification of parasites such as cysticerci (pork tapeworms) that can create lesions in the brain and soft tissues, which require surgical removal
Viruses
Classification of parasites such as cysticerci (pork tapeworms) that can create lesions in the brain and soft tissues, which require surgical removal
Flagella
Classification of parasites such as cysticerci (pork tapeworms) that can create lesions in the brain and soft tissues, which require surgical removal
Staphylococcus aureus
Classification of parasites such as cysticerci (pork tapeworms) that can create lesions in the brain and soft tissues, which require surgical removal
Prions
Classification of parasites such as cysticerci (pork tapeworms) that can create lesions in the brain and soft tissues, which require surgical removal
Helminths
Classification of parasites such as cysticerci (pork tapeworms) that can create lesions in the brain and soft tissues, which require surgical removal
Zygomycosis
Classification of parasites such as cysticerci (pork tapeworms) that can create lesions in the brain and soft tissues, which require surgical removal
Clostridium perfringens
Classification of parasites such as cysticerci (pork tapeworms) that can create lesions in the brain and soft tissues, which require surgical removal
Helicobacter pylori
Classification of parasites such as cysticerci (pork tapeworms) that can create lesions in the brain and soft tissues, which require surgical removal
Spores
Nonliving obligate intracellular parasites; contain either DNA or RNA, but not both
Prokaryotes
Nonliving obligate intracellular parasites; contain either DNA or RNA, but not both
Viruses
Nonliving obligate intracellular parasites; contain either DNA or RNA, but not both
Flagella
Nonliving obligate intracellular parasites; contain either DNA or RNA, but not both
Staphylococcus aureus
Nonliving obligate intracellular parasites; contain either DNA or RNA, but not both
Prions
Nonliving obligate intracellular parasites; contain either DNA or RNA, but not both
Helminths
Nonliving obligate intracellular parasites; contain either DNA or RNA, but not both
Zygomycosis
Nonliving obligate intracellular parasites; contain either DNA or RNA, but not both
Clostridium perfringens
Nonliving obligate intracellular parasites; contain either DNA or RNA, but not both
Helicobacter pylori
Nonliving obligate intracellular parasites; contain either DNA or RNA, but not both
Spores
Type of organisms whose organelles are not membrane bound; divide by binary fission; includes bacteria
Prokaryotes
Type of organisms whose organelles are not membrane bound; divide by binary fission; includes bacteria
Viruses
Type of organisms whose organelles are not membrane bound; divide by binary fission; includes bacteria
Flagella
Type of organisms whose organelles are not membrane bound; divide by binary fission; includes bacteria
Staphylococcus aureus
Type of organisms whose organelles are not membrane bound; divide by binary fission; includes bacteria
Prions
Type of organisms whose organelles are not membrane bound; divide by binary fission; includes bacteria
Helminths
Type of organisms whose organelles are not membrane bound; divide by binary fission; includes bacteria
Zygomycosis
Type of organisms whose organelles are not membrane bound; divide by binary fission; includes bacteria
Clostridium perfringens
Type of organisms whose organelles are not membrane bound; divide by binary fission; includes bacteria
Helicobacter pylori
Type of organisms whose organelles are not membrane bound; divide by binary fission; includes bacteria
Spores
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62
Sterilization process monitors include mechanical, chemical, and biological methods to ensure all parameters were met.
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63
The relative humidity in an ethylene oxide sterilizer should be below 30% to aid in the penetration of the gas through bacterial spores' protective coating.
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64
Internal chemical indicator/integrators should be placed in the center or most challenging portion of a tray for the sterilant to reach.
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65
Gravity displacement steam sterilizer cycles are much shorter than prevacuum cycles.
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66
In steam sterilization, thermal destruction of microbes is the result of the denaturation and coagulation of protein within the cells.
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