Deck 12: Surgical Case Management

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Question
Which of the following would NOT be an appropriate method of performing a surgical scrub/skin preparation?

A) anatomical timed
B) brushless/waterless
C) counted strokes
D) medical hand wash
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Question
During the process of setting up the sterile field, efficiency and economy of motion recommend that the surgical technologist (ST):

A) move items only once if possible
B) position back table close to door
C) place as many instruments on Mayo stand as possible
D) request that circulating RN open all supplies for case after ST is gowned and gloved
Question
What is the purpose of a radiofrequency tracking system in the operating room?

A) Aid in chargeable items being input into system.
B) Assist CSPD personnel in locating instrument trays.
C) Prevent potential for patient misidentification.
D) Reduce possibility of retained foreign objects.
Question
Which term describes the condition of a surgical technologist's skin following skin prep?

A) debrided
B) medically clean
C) surgically clean
D) sterile
Question
Which gloving method should be performed by the surgical technologist after donning a sterile gown and before setting up the back table?

A) assisted gloving
B) closed gloving
C) open gloving
D) triple gloving
Question
The patient undergoing laparotomy should be prepped:

A) in a side-to-side motion from bedside level to bedside level
B) in vertical strokes from superior prep margins to inferior prep margins
C) from the periphery inward toward the incision site in a circular motion
D) from the incision site outward toward the periphery in a circular motion
Question
Up to what area of the arms does a surgical technologist scrub?

A) 1 inch below the elbows
B) 2 inches below the elbows
C) 1 inch above the elbows
D) 2 inches above the elbows
Question
During the surgical skin prep, areas that are considered contaminated should:

A) not be scrubbed at all
B) need no special attention
C) be scrubbed separately or last
D) be scrubbed vigorously and first
Question
Which of the following describes the configuration of a Mayo stand cover?

A) flat
B) rigid
C) cylindrical
D) wraparound
Question
An assistant may be needed to properly perform which type of surgical skin prep?

A) circumferential extremity
B) midline vertical abdominal
C) two-step prep with scrub and paint
D) vaginal/perineal prep in lithotomy position
Question
Which type of sterile gown uses battery-powered ventilation for the wearer?

A) reusable cloth
B) impervious backed
C) full coverage system
D) disposable fluid resistant
Question
Which of the following statements regarding hair removal is INCORRECT?

A) Hair must be shaved from every incisional and ECG lead site.
B) Hair removal should be performed as close to the time of the procedure as possible.
C) Hair removal is dependent upon surgeon's preference, patient factors, and surgical site.
D) Hair removal using a razor can result in microabrasions and increased microbial count.
Question
Which of the following techniques of counting sponges on the sterile field is an example of best practice?

A) Count packages, leaving paper bands around and intact to prevent mixing of sponges before use.
B) Count quietly and to yourself, and record totals with a skin marker on the back table cover.
C) Remove paper bands around sponges; separate each sponge into separate piles while counting aloud with RN.
D) Remove paper bands around sponges, hold pack in hand and fan out to separate, and then count aloud while touching each sponge.
Question
Which component of personal protective equipment (PPE) has shown the ability to decrease disease transmission from needle punctures?

A) double gloving
B) full coverage system
C) lead aprons/shields
D) splash guard mask
Question
Which towel is placed first when squaring off the operative site?

A) inferior margin
B) superior margin
C) same side as person applying towels
D) opposite side from person applying towels
Question
The main purpose of the surgical skin prep is to:

A) provide a visible area of paint where the incision will be made
B) reduce the microbial count on the skin to an irreducible minimum
C) remove all resident and transient flora from the planned incision site
D) sterilize the patient's skin to prevent post-op surgical site infections
Question
In preparing a patient for surgery, which of the following should be removed to facilitate oxygen blood level assessment?

A) dentures
B) hearing aids
C) nail polish
D) makeup
Question
What is the appropriate method for delivering a sterile item to the back table from a peel package?

A) Open peel pack away from self, using top flap to cover hand and arm; open item over center of back table.
B) Open package laterally, and carefully slide item over glued edge onto top of back table.
C) Open package toward self; then project item into air, aiming for back table.
D) Open package laterally and completely; gently toss item without touching glued edge or going over back table.
Question
What is the term used when a surgical team member who is on standby must return to the facility to do a case?

A) called in
B) called up
C) pulled in
D) pulled up
Question
Which position is routinely used for flexible colonoscopy procedures and may be performed on the patient's stretcher?

A) Fowler's
B) Kraske
C) lithotomy
D) Sims'
Question
What would be the likely result of positioning the patient's arms on armboards at a greater than 90° angle from the torso?

A) brachial plexus hyperextension
B) foot drop
C) hamstring strain
D) restriction of respiratory freedom
Question
What is the term used for the area beneath the fingernails that is cleaned with a pick during the surgical scrub?

A) subacromial
B) subdermal
C) sublingual
D) subungual
Question
When transporting a patient on a stretcher through the OR suite corridors, which method should be followed?

A) Pull the stretcher with the patient facing feet first and the patient flat and restrained.
B) Pull the stretcher with the patient facing head first and the patient flat and restrained.
C) Push the stretcher with the patient facing feet first in the position most comfortable for the patient.
D) Push the stretcher with the patient facing head first in the position most comfortable for the patient.
Question
Which method of gloving is appropriate for placement of a urinary catheter as part of the skin prep?

A) closed gloving
B) open gloving
C) double gloving
D) unsterile gloving
Question
What should the surgical technologist do with his or her gown and gloves in preparation for donning after scrubbing?

A) Open and toss gown and gloves into the basin set.
B) Open and toss gown and gloves onto the back table.
C) Open and toss gown and gloves onto unsterile Mayo stand.
D) Open gown wrapper on unsterile Mayo stand, and open and toss gloves onto gown.
Question
Radiation, convection, conduction, and evaporation are examples of:

A) instrument sterilization methods
B) mechanisms of intraoperative heat loss
C) methods of thermal hemostasis
D) surgical suite ventilation controls
Question
Where is the safety belt or strap placed on a patient in supine position on the OR table?

A) 2 inches proximal to the ankles
B) 2 inches distal to the knees
C) 2 inches proximal to the knees
D) 2 inches distal to the perineal region
Question
What is the temporary position for a female patient for placement of urinary catheter prior to abdominal hysterectomy?

A) frog-legged
B) jackknife
C) low lithotomy
D) semi-Fowler's
Question
Which of the following are NOT considered countable items for potential of retained foreign objects?

A) dressings
B) instruments
C) sharps
D) sponges
Question
What is the name of the common disposable surgical gown style?

A) cylindrical
B) turnaround
C) wraparound
D) circumferential
Question
The sitting position is a modification of which position?

A) Trendelenburg
B) lithotomy
C) Fowler's
D) Kraske
Question
What is the proper way to open a small, sterilely wrapped item for delivery to the sterile field?

A) First flap is pulled and opened away from self and tucked into palm, side flaps are pulled and tucked into palm, and last flap is pulled toward self and secured before tossing item onto field.
B) First flap is pulled and opened toward self, the side flaps are pulled open, and the last flap is pulled and opened away from self; then item is tossed onto field.
C) Right flap is pulled and tucked into palm, left flap is pulled and tucked, top flap is pulled and opened toward self, and the bottom flap is opened away from self and secured before tossing onto field.
D) Left flap is pulled and tucked into palm, right flap is pulled and tucked, top flap is pulled and opened away from self and tucked, and bottom flap is pulled toward self and secured before tossing item onto field.
Question
Before opening any supplies for delivery to the sterile field, what must be verified?

A) Removal of charge sticker
B) Initials of person who prepared item
C) Length of time item has been in storage
D) Package integrity being intact and not violated
Question
How many individuals are required to safely transfer a recently anesthetized patient from the OR table to the stretcher?

A) None--wait until patient can move him- or herself.
B) 2
C) 3
D) 4
Question
Which position requires anesthesia administration and intubation to be performed on the patient's stretcher prior to final positioning?

A) lateral
B) lithotomy
C) prone
D) supine
Question
For which position would the head of the OR table be moved to the foot before the patient is placed on the table?

A) Trendelenburg
B) lithotomy
C) lateral kidney
D) jackknife
Question
Which statement regarding instrument counts is CORRECT?

A) They should be counted while all still on back table.
B) They are unnecessary if only one tray is opened for use.
C) They are required by state law for every surgical procedure.
D) They have been replaced by routine practice of post-op x-ray to verify no retained instruments.
Question
What is the term for the normal resident microbial populations found on human skin?

A) bioburden
B) flora
C) fomites
D) biologicals
Question
Which of the following statements about lateral kidney positioning is INCORRECT?

A) The lower leg is flexed, the upper leg is straight, and a pillow is between them.
B) The lower leg is straight and the upper leg is flexed, with a pillow under the lower leg.
C) A small roll is placed under the nonoperative side axillary area to facilitate respiration.
D) The patient's flank is positioned over the kidney lift to provide greater exposure of the operative area.
Question
If a pack of sponges is found to have an incorrect number during the count process and the patient is on the OR table, what should be done?

A) Discard the sponge pack into a trash hamper.
B) Hand off the pack to the circulator who will remove it from the room.
C) Ask the circulator to record the actual number on the count board for closing count verification.
D) Hand off the pack to the circulator who will bag, label as incorrect, and isolate off field until case completion.
Question
Which of the following is NOT an example of blunt dissection of tissue?

A) Ray-Tec is used over gloved finger against tissue.
B) Kitner is loaded on a Pean clamp during herniorrhaphy.
C) Surgeon and assistant pull open peritoneum bilaterally.
D) Endo Shears are used through laparoscopic trocar to separate tissue.
Question
What is the comparison between a neonate's and an adult's normal pulse rate?

A) Neonate's pulse is twice as fast as an adult's.
B) Neonate's pulse is three times as fast as an adult's.
C) Neonate's pulse is half as fast as an adult's.
D) Neonate's pulse is typically the same as an adult's.
Question
Which of the following descriptions of how to pour liquids into a container on the sterile field is correct?

A) Hold the bottle 6 inches above and over the basin.
B) Hold the bottle 6 inches above but with only the lip of the bottle over the basin.
C) Hold the bottle 12 inches above and over the basin.
D) Hold the bottle 12 inches above and with only the lip of the bottle over the basin.
Question
Match between columns
Referring to the apex of the heart; used as a method of reading a pulse rate
Impervious
Referring to the apex of the heart; used as a method of reading a pulse rate
Neutral zone
Referring to the apex of the heart; used as a method of reading a pulse rate
Depilatory
Referring to the apex of the heart; used as a method of reading a pulse rate
Apical
Referring to the apex of the heart; used as a method of reading a pulse rate
Tachypnea
Referring to the apex of the heart; used as a method of reading a pulse rate
Auscultation
Referring to the apex of the heart; used as a method of reading a pulse rate
Torsion
Referring to the apex of the heart; used as a method of reading a pulse rate
Lateral recumbent
Referring to the apex of the heart; used as a method of reading a pulse rate
Perfusion
Referring to the apex of the heart; used as a method of reading a pulse rate
Perineum
The act of listening to sounds within organs or areas of the body
Impervious
The act of listening to sounds within organs or areas of the body
Neutral zone
The act of listening to sounds within organs or areas of the body
Depilatory
The act of listening to sounds within organs or areas of the body
Apical
The act of listening to sounds within organs or areas of the body
Tachypnea
The act of listening to sounds within organs or areas of the body
Auscultation
The act of listening to sounds within organs or areas of the body
Torsion
The act of listening to sounds within organs or areas of the body
Lateral recumbent
The act of listening to sounds within organs or areas of the body
Perfusion
The act of listening to sounds within organs or areas of the body
Perineum
The ability to prevent penetration of fluid through material, resulting in contamination
Impervious
The ability to prevent penetration of fluid through material, resulting in contamination
Neutral zone
The ability to prevent penetration of fluid through material, resulting in contamination
Depilatory
The ability to prevent penetration of fluid through material, resulting in contamination
Apical
The ability to prevent penetration of fluid through material, resulting in contamination
Tachypnea
The ability to prevent penetration of fluid through material, resulting in contamination
Auscultation
The ability to prevent penetration of fluid through material, resulting in contamination
Torsion
The ability to prevent penetration of fluid through material, resulting in contamination
Lateral recumbent
The ability to prevent penetration of fluid through material, resulting in contamination
Perfusion
The ability to prevent penetration of fluid through material, resulting in contamination
Perineum
The position in which an individual is lying on his or her side; also called decubitus
Impervious
The position in which an individual is lying on his or her side; also called decubitus
Neutral zone
The position in which an individual is lying on his or her side; also called decubitus
Depilatory
The position in which an individual is lying on his or her side; also called decubitus
Apical
The position in which an individual is lying on his or her side; also called decubitus
Tachypnea
The position in which an individual is lying on his or her side; also called decubitus
Auscultation
The position in which an individual is lying on his or her side; also called decubitus
Torsion
The position in which an individual is lying on his or her side; also called decubitus
Lateral recumbent
The position in which an individual is lying on his or her side; also called decubitus
Perfusion
The position in which an individual is lying on his or her side; also called decubitus
Perineum
Area designated for placement of sharps to prevent intraoperative injury to sterile team members
Impervious
Area designated for placement of sharps to prevent intraoperative injury to sterile team members
Neutral zone
Area designated for placement of sharps to prevent intraoperative injury to sterile team members
Depilatory
Area designated for placement of sharps to prevent intraoperative injury to sterile team members
Apical
Area designated for placement of sharps to prevent intraoperative injury to sterile team members
Tachypnea
Area designated for placement of sharps to prevent intraoperative injury to sterile team members
Auscultation
Area designated for placement of sharps to prevent intraoperative injury to sterile team members
Torsion
Area designated for placement of sharps to prevent intraoperative injury to sterile team members
Lateral recumbent
Area designated for placement of sharps to prevent intraoperative injury to sterile team members
Perfusion
Area designated for placement of sharps to prevent intraoperative injury to sterile team members
Perineum
The area between the anus and scrotum in males or between the anus and vulva in females
Impervious
The area between the anus and scrotum in males or between the anus and vulva in females
Neutral zone
The area between the anus and scrotum in males or between the anus and vulva in females
Depilatory
The area between the anus and scrotum in males or between the anus and vulva in females
Apical
The area between the anus and scrotum in males or between the anus and vulva in females
Tachypnea
The area between the anus and scrotum in males or between the anus and vulva in females
Auscultation
The area between the anus and scrotum in males or between the anus and vulva in females
Torsion
The area between the anus and scrotum in males or between the anus and vulva in females
Lateral recumbent
The area between the anus and scrotum in males or between the anus and vulva in females
Perfusion
The area between the anus and scrotum in males or between the anus and vulva in females
Perineum
Rapid breaths that rise with body temperature
Impervious
Rapid breaths that rise with body temperature
Neutral zone
Rapid breaths that rise with body temperature
Depilatory
Rapid breaths that rise with body temperature
Apical
Rapid breaths that rise with body temperature
Tachypnea
Rapid breaths that rise with body temperature
Auscultation
Rapid breaths that rise with body temperature
Torsion
Rapid breaths that rise with body temperature
Lateral recumbent
Rapid breaths that rise with body temperature
Perfusion
Rapid breaths that rise with body temperature
Perineum
The act or process of being twisted or rotated around an axis
Impervious
The act or process of being twisted or rotated around an axis
Neutral zone
The act or process of being twisted or rotated around an axis
Depilatory
The act or process of being twisted or rotated around an axis
Apical
The act or process of being twisted or rotated around an axis
Tachypnea
The act or process of being twisted or rotated around an axis
Auscultation
The act or process of being twisted or rotated around an axis
Torsion
The act or process of being twisted or rotated around an axis
Lateral recumbent
The act or process of being twisted or rotated around an axis
Perfusion
The act or process of being twisted or rotated around an axis
Perineum
The passage of fluid through the lymphatic system or blood vessels to an organ or tissues
Impervious
The passage of fluid through the lymphatic system or blood vessels to an organ or tissues
Neutral zone
The passage of fluid through the lymphatic system or blood vessels to an organ or tissues
Depilatory
The passage of fluid through the lymphatic system or blood vessels to an organ or tissues
Apical
The passage of fluid through the lymphatic system or blood vessels to an organ or tissues
Tachypnea
The passage of fluid through the lymphatic system or blood vessels to an organ or tissues
Auscultation
The passage of fluid through the lymphatic system or blood vessels to an organ or tissues
Torsion
The passage of fluid through the lymphatic system or blood vessels to an organ or tissues
Lateral recumbent
The passage of fluid through the lymphatic system or blood vessels to an organ or tissues
Perfusion
The passage of fluid through the lymphatic system or blood vessels to an organ or tissues
Perineum
Type of cream used as a hair removal method that does not cause microabrasions
Impervious
Type of cream used as a hair removal method that does not cause microabrasions
Neutral zone
Type of cream used as a hair removal method that does not cause microabrasions
Depilatory
Type of cream used as a hair removal method that does not cause microabrasions
Apical
Type of cream used as a hair removal method that does not cause microabrasions
Tachypnea
Type of cream used as a hair removal method that does not cause microabrasions
Auscultation
Type of cream used as a hair removal method that does not cause microabrasions
Torsion
Type of cream used as a hair removal method that does not cause microabrasions
Lateral recumbent
Type of cream used as a hair removal method that does not cause microabrasions
Perfusion
Type of cream used as a hair removal method that does not cause microabrasions
Perineum
Question
When turning the sterile gown, what is handed to the circulator that completes the gowning process?

A) gloved hand
B) glove wrapper
C) gown tab or card
D) gown wrapper
Question
Which of the following statements regarding transfer of an awake, mobile patient from stretcher to OR table is INCORRECT?

A) Both table and stretcher must be locked to prevent movement during transfer.
B) One staff member is positioned on table side to receive patient and one on stretcher side to stabilize.
C) Instruct patient to keep the blanket on during transfer, preventing hypothermia and for privacy.
D) The safety strap is secured tightly across patient's waist to prevent possible fall due to narrow OR table.
Question
Which two members of the surgical team are responsible for performing the counts to prevent retained items?

A) circulator and surgeon
B) circulator and surgical technologist
C) surgeon and first assistant
D) surgeon and surgical technologist
Question
Trendelenburg, reverse Trendelenburg, Fowler's, and lithotomy are variations of which basic position?

A) decubitus
B) lateral
C) prone
D) supine
Question
What is the name of the device used to manually assess blood pressure?

A) electrocardiograph
B) glucometer
C) pulse oximeter
D) sphygmomanometer
Question
Best practice states that all of the following items remain sterile until the patient leaves the room, EXCEPT the:

A) back table
B) basin set
C) Mayo stand
D) surgical drapes
Question
The legs of a patient being placed in the lithotomy position should be raised and lowered slowly and simultaneously by two unsterile personnel.
Question
To secure the Mayo stand from moving during draping, what should be done?

A) Push the Mayo stand against the wall.
B) Step on one leg of the Mayo stand.
C) Have the circulator hold the Mayo stand post.
D) Grasp the back side of the tray with one hand.
Question
Which position would facilitate exposure of the operative area during a laparoscopic cholecystectomy?

A) Trendelenburg with slight tilt to the left
B) Trendelenburg with slight tilt to the right
C) reverse Trendelenburg with slight tilt to the left
D) reverse Trendelenburg with slight tilt to the right
Question
Which member of the surgical team gives permission for the patient to be positioned or transferred?

A) CRNA
B) circulator
C) CSFA
D) CST
Question
With what amount and which fluid is a 16 Fr., two-way Foley catheter with 5 cc balloon filled?

A) 5 mL of sterile water
B) 5 mL of sterile normal saline
C) 10 mL of sterile water
D) 10 mL of sterile normal saline
Question
Suction tubing and ESU cords are attached to the sterile drape with perforating towel clips to prevent contamination.
Question
Which table attachment is required to safely maintain a patient in the reverse Trendelenburg position?

A) anesthesia screen
B) kidney braces
C) padded footboard
D) shoulder braces
Question
The proper sequence for performing intraoperative and closing counts is operative site, Mayo stand, back table, basins, kick bucket or off field.
Question
What does the circulating nurse verify before the surgical technologist places the basket of instruments on the back table?

A) The internal indicator has changed color.
B) The filter on the container lid has changed color.
C) The filters on the bottom of the container are intact and the container is dry.
D) The numbers of instruments in the tray are correct on the count sheet from CSPD.
Question
The purpose of the preoperative skin prep is to sterilize the patient's skin to prevent surgical site infections.
Question
The ability to anticipate the needs of the surgeon is one of the most important skills for a surgical technologist to develop.
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Deck 12: Surgical Case Management
1
Which of the following would NOT be an appropriate method of performing a surgical scrub/skin preparation?

A) anatomical timed
B) brushless/waterless
C) counted strokes
D) medical hand wash
D
2
During the process of setting up the sterile field, efficiency and economy of motion recommend that the surgical technologist (ST):

A) move items only once if possible
B) position back table close to door
C) place as many instruments on Mayo stand as possible
D) request that circulating RN open all supplies for case after ST is gowned and gloved
A
3
What is the purpose of a radiofrequency tracking system in the operating room?

A) Aid in chargeable items being input into system.
B) Assist CSPD personnel in locating instrument trays.
C) Prevent potential for patient misidentification.
D) Reduce possibility of retained foreign objects.
D
4
Which term describes the condition of a surgical technologist's skin following skin prep?

A) debrided
B) medically clean
C) surgically clean
D) sterile
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5
Which gloving method should be performed by the surgical technologist after donning a sterile gown and before setting up the back table?

A) assisted gloving
B) closed gloving
C) open gloving
D) triple gloving
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6
The patient undergoing laparotomy should be prepped:

A) in a side-to-side motion from bedside level to bedside level
B) in vertical strokes from superior prep margins to inferior prep margins
C) from the periphery inward toward the incision site in a circular motion
D) from the incision site outward toward the periphery in a circular motion
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7
Up to what area of the arms does a surgical technologist scrub?

A) 1 inch below the elbows
B) 2 inches below the elbows
C) 1 inch above the elbows
D) 2 inches above the elbows
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8
During the surgical skin prep, areas that are considered contaminated should:

A) not be scrubbed at all
B) need no special attention
C) be scrubbed separately or last
D) be scrubbed vigorously and first
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9
Which of the following describes the configuration of a Mayo stand cover?

A) flat
B) rigid
C) cylindrical
D) wraparound
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10
An assistant may be needed to properly perform which type of surgical skin prep?

A) circumferential extremity
B) midline vertical abdominal
C) two-step prep with scrub and paint
D) vaginal/perineal prep in lithotomy position
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11
Which type of sterile gown uses battery-powered ventilation for the wearer?

A) reusable cloth
B) impervious backed
C) full coverage system
D) disposable fluid resistant
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12
Which of the following statements regarding hair removal is INCORRECT?

A) Hair must be shaved from every incisional and ECG lead site.
B) Hair removal should be performed as close to the time of the procedure as possible.
C) Hair removal is dependent upon surgeon's preference, patient factors, and surgical site.
D) Hair removal using a razor can result in microabrasions and increased microbial count.
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13
Which of the following techniques of counting sponges on the sterile field is an example of best practice?

A) Count packages, leaving paper bands around and intact to prevent mixing of sponges before use.
B) Count quietly and to yourself, and record totals with a skin marker on the back table cover.
C) Remove paper bands around sponges; separate each sponge into separate piles while counting aloud with RN.
D) Remove paper bands around sponges, hold pack in hand and fan out to separate, and then count aloud while touching each sponge.
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14
Which component of personal protective equipment (PPE) has shown the ability to decrease disease transmission from needle punctures?

A) double gloving
B) full coverage system
C) lead aprons/shields
D) splash guard mask
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15
Which towel is placed first when squaring off the operative site?

A) inferior margin
B) superior margin
C) same side as person applying towels
D) opposite side from person applying towels
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16
The main purpose of the surgical skin prep is to:

A) provide a visible area of paint where the incision will be made
B) reduce the microbial count on the skin to an irreducible minimum
C) remove all resident and transient flora from the planned incision site
D) sterilize the patient's skin to prevent post-op surgical site infections
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17
In preparing a patient for surgery, which of the following should be removed to facilitate oxygen blood level assessment?

A) dentures
B) hearing aids
C) nail polish
D) makeup
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18
What is the appropriate method for delivering a sterile item to the back table from a peel package?

A) Open peel pack away from self, using top flap to cover hand and arm; open item over center of back table.
B) Open package laterally, and carefully slide item over glued edge onto top of back table.
C) Open package toward self; then project item into air, aiming for back table.
D) Open package laterally and completely; gently toss item without touching glued edge or going over back table.
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19
What is the term used when a surgical team member who is on standby must return to the facility to do a case?

A) called in
B) called up
C) pulled in
D) pulled up
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20
Which position is routinely used for flexible colonoscopy procedures and may be performed on the patient's stretcher?

A) Fowler's
B) Kraske
C) lithotomy
D) Sims'
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21
What would be the likely result of positioning the patient's arms on armboards at a greater than 90° angle from the torso?

A) brachial plexus hyperextension
B) foot drop
C) hamstring strain
D) restriction of respiratory freedom
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22
What is the term used for the area beneath the fingernails that is cleaned with a pick during the surgical scrub?

A) subacromial
B) subdermal
C) sublingual
D) subungual
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23
When transporting a patient on a stretcher through the OR suite corridors, which method should be followed?

A) Pull the stretcher with the patient facing feet first and the patient flat and restrained.
B) Pull the stretcher with the patient facing head first and the patient flat and restrained.
C) Push the stretcher with the patient facing feet first in the position most comfortable for the patient.
D) Push the stretcher with the patient facing head first in the position most comfortable for the patient.
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24
Which method of gloving is appropriate for placement of a urinary catheter as part of the skin prep?

A) closed gloving
B) open gloving
C) double gloving
D) unsterile gloving
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25
What should the surgical technologist do with his or her gown and gloves in preparation for donning after scrubbing?

A) Open and toss gown and gloves into the basin set.
B) Open and toss gown and gloves onto the back table.
C) Open and toss gown and gloves onto unsterile Mayo stand.
D) Open gown wrapper on unsterile Mayo stand, and open and toss gloves onto gown.
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26
Radiation, convection, conduction, and evaporation are examples of:

A) instrument sterilization methods
B) mechanisms of intraoperative heat loss
C) methods of thermal hemostasis
D) surgical suite ventilation controls
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27
Where is the safety belt or strap placed on a patient in supine position on the OR table?

A) 2 inches proximal to the ankles
B) 2 inches distal to the knees
C) 2 inches proximal to the knees
D) 2 inches distal to the perineal region
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28
What is the temporary position for a female patient for placement of urinary catheter prior to abdominal hysterectomy?

A) frog-legged
B) jackknife
C) low lithotomy
D) semi-Fowler's
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29
Which of the following are NOT considered countable items for potential of retained foreign objects?

A) dressings
B) instruments
C) sharps
D) sponges
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30
What is the name of the common disposable surgical gown style?

A) cylindrical
B) turnaround
C) wraparound
D) circumferential
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31
The sitting position is a modification of which position?

A) Trendelenburg
B) lithotomy
C) Fowler's
D) Kraske
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32
What is the proper way to open a small, sterilely wrapped item for delivery to the sterile field?

A) First flap is pulled and opened away from self and tucked into palm, side flaps are pulled and tucked into palm, and last flap is pulled toward self and secured before tossing item onto field.
B) First flap is pulled and opened toward self, the side flaps are pulled open, and the last flap is pulled and opened away from self; then item is tossed onto field.
C) Right flap is pulled and tucked into palm, left flap is pulled and tucked, top flap is pulled and opened toward self, and the bottom flap is opened away from self and secured before tossing onto field.
D) Left flap is pulled and tucked into palm, right flap is pulled and tucked, top flap is pulled and opened away from self and tucked, and bottom flap is pulled toward self and secured before tossing item onto field.
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33
Before opening any supplies for delivery to the sterile field, what must be verified?

A) Removal of charge sticker
B) Initials of person who prepared item
C) Length of time item has been in storage
D) Package integrity being intact and not violated
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34
How many individuals are required to safely transfer a recently anesthetized patient from the OR table to the stretcher?

A) None--wait until patient can move him- or herself.
B) 2
C) 3
D) 4
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35
Which position requires anesthesia administration and intubation to be performed on the patient's stretcher prior to final positioning?

A) lateral
B) lithotomy
C) prone
D) supine
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36
For which position would the head of the OR table be moved to the foot before the patient is placed on the table?

A) Trendelenburg
B) lithotomy
C) lateral kidney
D) jackknife
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37
Which statement regarding instrument counts is CORRECT?

A) They should be counted while all still on back table.
B) They are unnecessary if only one tray is opened for use.
C) They are required by state law for every surgical procedure.
D) They have been replaced by routine practice of post-op x-ray to verify no retained instruments.
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38
What is the term for the normal resident microbial populations found on human skin?

A) bioburden
B) flora
C) fomites
D) biologicals
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39
Which of the following statements about lateral kidney positioning is INCORRECT?

A) The lower leg is flexed, the upper leg is straight, and a pillow is between them.
B) The lower leg is straight and the upper leg is flexed, with a pillow under the lower leg.
C) A small roll is placed under the nonoperative side axillary area to facilitate respiration.
D) The patient's flank is positioned over the kidney lift to provide greater exposure of the operative area.
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40
If a pack of sponges is found to have an incorrect number during the count process and the patient is on the OR table, what should be done?

A) Discard the sponge pack into a trash hamper.
B) Hand off the pack to the circulator who will remove it from the room.
C) Ask the circulator to record the actual number on the count board for closing count verification.
D) Hand off the pack to the circulator who will bag, label as incorrect, and isolate off field until case completion.
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41
Which of the following is NOT an example of blunt dissection of tissue?

A) Ray-Tec is used over gloved finger against tissue.
B) Kitner is loaded on a Pean clamp during herniorrhaphy.
C) Surgeon and assistant pull open peritoneum bilaterally.
D) Endo Shears are used through laparoscopic trocar to separate tissue.
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42
What is the comparison between a neonate's and an adult's normal pulse rate?

A) Neonate's pulse is twice as fast as an adult's.
B) Neonate's pulse is three times as fast as an adult's.
C) Neonate's pulse is half as fast as an adult's.
D) Neonate's pulse is typically the same as an adult's.
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43
Which of the following descriptions of how to pour liquids into a container on the sterile field is correct?

A) Hold the bottle 6 inches above and over the basin.
B) Hold the bottle 6 inches above but with only the lip of the bottle over the basin.
C) Hold the bottle 12 inches above and over the basin.
D) Hold the bottle 12 inches above and with only the lip of the bottle over the basin.
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44
Match between columns
Referring to the apex of the heart; used as a method of reading a pulse rate
Impervious
Referring to the apex of the heart; used as a method of reading a pulse rate
Neutral zone
Referring to the apex of the heart; used as a method of reading a pulse rate
Depilatory
Referring to the apex of the heart; used as a method of reading a pulse rate
Apical
Referring to the apex of the heart; used as a method of reading a pulse rate
Tachypnea
Referring to the apex of the heart; used as a method of reading a pulse rate
Auscultation
Referring to the apex of the heart; used as a method of reading a pulse rate
Torsion
Referring to the apex of the heart; used as a method of reading a pulse rate
Lateral recumbent
Referring to the apex of the heart; used as a method of reading a pulse rate
Perfusion
Referring to the apex of the heart; used as a method of reading a pulse rate
Perineum
The act of listening to sounds within organs or areas of the body
Impervious
The act of listening to sounds within organs or areas of the body
Neutral zone
The act of listening to sounds within organs or areas of the body
Depilatory
The act of listening to sounds within organs or areas of the body
Apical
The act of listening to sounds within organs or areas of the body
Tachypnea
The act of listening to sounds within organs or areas of the body
Auscultation
The act of listening to sounds within organs or areas of the body
Torsion
The act of listening to sounds within organs or areas of the body
Lateral recumbent
The act of listening to sounds within organs or areas of the body
Perfusion
The act of listening to sounds within organs or areas of the body
Perineum
The ability to prevent penetration of fluid through material, resulting in contamination
Impervious
The ability to prevent penetration of fluid through material, resulting in contamination
Neutral zone
The ability to prevent penetration of fluid through material, resulting in contamination
Depilatory
The ability to prevent penetration of fluid through material, resulting in contamination
Apical
The ability to prevent penetration of fluid through material, resulting in contamination
Tachypnea
The ability to prevent penetration of fluid through material, resulting in contamination
Auscultation
The ability to prevent penetration of fluid through material, resulting in contamination
Torsion
The ability to prevent penetration of fluid through material, resulting in contamination
Lateral recumbent
The ability to prevent penetration of fluid through material, resulting in contamination
Perfusion
The ability to prevent penetration of fluid through material, resulting in contamination
Perineum
The position in which an individual is lying on his or her side; also called decubitus
Impervious
The position in which an individual is lying on his or her side; also called decubitus
Neutral zone
The position in which an individual is lying on his or her side; also called decubitus
Depilatory
The position in which an individual is lying on his or her side; also called decubitus
Apical
The position in which an individual is lying on his or her side; also called decubitus
Tachypnea
The position in which an individual is lying on his or her side; also called decubitus
Auscultation
The position in which an individual is lying on his or her side; also called decubitus
Torsion
The position in which an individual is lying on his or her side; also called decubitus
Lateral recumbent
The position in which an individual is lying on his or her side; also called decubitus
Perfusion
The position in which an individual is lying on his or her side; also called decubitus
Perineum
Area designated for placement of sharps to prevent intraoperative injury to sterile team members
Impervious
Area designated for placement of sharps to prevent intraoperative injury to sterile team members
Neutral zone
Area designated for placement of sharps to prevent intraoperative injury to sterile team members
Depilatory
Area designated for placement of sharps to prevent intraoperative injury to sterile team members
Apical
Area designated for placement of sharps to prevent intraoperative injury to sterile team members
Tachypnea
Area designated for placement of sharps to prevent intraoperative injury to sterile team members
Auscultation
Area designated for placement of sharps to prevent intraoperative injury to sterile team members
Torsion
Area designated for placement of sharps to prevent intraoperative injury to sterile team members
Lateral recumbent
Area designated for placement of sharps to prevent intraoperative injury to sterile team members
Perfusion
Area designated for placement of sharps to prevent intraoperative injury to sterile team members
Perineum
The area between the anus and scrotum in males or between the anus and vulva in females
Impervious
The area between the anus and scrotum in males or between the anus and vulva in females
Neutral zone
The area between the anus and scrotum in males or between the anus and vulva in females
Depilatory
The area between the anus and scrotum in males or between the anus and vulva in females
Apical
The area between the anus and scrotum in males or between the anus and vulva in females
Tachypnea
The area between the anus and scrotum in males or between the anus and vulva in females
Auscultation
The area between the anus and scrotum in males or between the anus and vulva in females
Torsion
The area between the anus and scrotum in males or between the anus and vulva in females
Lateral recumbent
The area between the anus and scrotum in males or between the anus and vulva in females
Perfusion
The area between the anus and scrotum in males or between the anus and vulva in females
Perineum
Rapid breaths that rise with body temperature
Impervious
Rapid breaths that rise with body temperature
Neutral zone
Rapid breaths that rise with body temperature
Depilatory
Rapid breaths that rise with body temperature
Apical
Rapid breaths that rise with body temperature
Tachypnea
Rapid breaths that rise with body temperature
Auscultation
Rapid breaths that rise with body temperature
Torsion
Rapid breaths that rise with body temperature
Lateral recumbent
Rapid breaths that rise with body temperature
Perfusion
Rapid breaths that rise with body temperature
Perineum
The act or process of being twisted or rotated around an axis
Impervious
The act or process of being twisted or rotated around an axis
Neutral zone
The act or process of being twisted or rotated around an axis
Depilatory
The act or process of being twisted or rotated around an axis
Apical
The act or process of being twisted or rotated around an axis
Tachypnea
The act or process of being twisted or rotated around an axis
Auscultation
The act or process of being twisted or rotated around an axis
Torsion
The act or process of being twisted or rotated around an axis
Lateral recumbent
The act or process of being twisted or rotated around an axis
Perfusion
The act or process of being twisted or rotated around an axis
Perineum
The passage of fluid through the lymphatic system or blood vessels to an organ or tissues
Impervious
The passage of fluid through the lymphatic system or blood vessels to an organ or tissues
Neutral zone
The passage of fluid through the lymphatic system or blood vessels to an organ or tissues
Depilatory
The passage of fluid through the lymphatic system or blood vessels to an organ or tissues
Apical
The passage of fluid through the lymphatic system or blood vessels to an organ or tissues
Tachypnea
The passage of fluid through the lymphatic system or blood vessels to an organ or tissues
Auscultation
The passage of fluid through the lymphatic system or blood vessels to an organ or tissues
Torsion
The passage of fluid through the lymphatic system or blood vessels to an organ or tissues
Lateral recumbent
The passage of fluid through the lymphatic system or blood vessels to an organ or tissues
Perfusion
The passage of fluid through the lymphatic system or blood vessels to an organ or tissues
Perineum
Type of cream used as a hair removal method that does not cause microabrasions
Impervious
Type of cream used as a hair removal method that does not cause microabrasions
Neutral zone
Type of cream used as a hair removal method that does not cause microabrasions
Depilatory
Type of cream used as a hair removal method that does not cause microabrasions
Apical
Type of cream used as a hair removal method that does not cause microabrasions
Tachypnea
Type of cream used as a hair removal method that does not cause microabrasions
Auscultation
Type of cream used as a hair removal method that does not cause microabrasions
Torsion
Type of cream used as a hair removal method that does not cause microabrasions
Lateral recumbent
Type of cream used as a hair removal method that does not cause microabrasions
Perfusion
Type of cream used as a hair removal method that does not cause microabrasions
Perineum
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45
When turning the sterile gown, what is handed to the circulator that completes the gowning process?

A) gloved hand
B) glove wrapper
C) gown tab or card
D) gown wrapper
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46
Which of the following statements regarding transfer of an awake, mobile patient from stretcher to OR table is INCORRECT?

A) Both table and stretcher must be locked to prevent movement during transfer.
B) One staff member is positioned on table side to receive patient and one on stretcher side to stabilize.
C) Instruct patient to keep the blanket on during transfer, preventing hypothermia and for privacy.
D) The safety strap is secured tightly across patient's waist to prevent possible fall due to narrow OR table.
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47
Which two members of the surgical team are responsible for performing the counts to prevent retained items?

A) circulator and surgeon
B) circulator and surgical technologist
C) surgeon and first assistant
D) surgeon and surgical technologist
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48
Trendelenburg, reverse Trendelenburg, Fowler's, and lithotomy are variations of which basic position?

A) decubitus
B) lateral
C) prone
D) supine
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49
What is the name of the device used to manually assess blood pressure?

A) electrocardiograph
B) glucometer
C) pulse oximeter
D) sphygmomanometer
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50
Best practice states that all of the following items remain sterile until the patient leaves the room, EXCEPT the:

A) back table
B) basin set
C) Mayo stand
D) surgical drapes
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51
The legs of a patient being placed in the lithotomy position should be raised and lowered slowly and simultaneously by two unsterile personnel.
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52
To secure the Mayo stand from moving during draping, what should be done?

A) Push the Mayo stand against the wall.
B) Step on one leg of the Mayo stand.
C) Have the circulator hold the Mayo stand post.
D) Grasp the back side of the tray with one hand.
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53
Which position would facilitate exposure of the operative area during a laparoscopic cholecystectomy?

A) Trendelenburg with slight tilt to the left
B) Trendelenburg with slight tilt to the right
C) reverse Trendelenburg with slight tilt to the left
D) reverse Trendelenburg with slight tilt to the right
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54
Which member of the surgical team gives permission for the patient to be positioned or transferred?

A) CRNA
B) circulator
C) CSFA
D) CST
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55
With what amount and which fluid is a 16 Fr., two-way Foley catheter with 5 cc balloon filled?

A) 5 mL of sterile water
B) 5 mL of sterile normal saline
C) 10 mL of sterile water
D) 10 mL of sterile normal saline
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56
Suction tubing and ESU cords are attached to the sterile drape with perforating towel clips to prevent contamination.
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57
Which table attachment is required to safely maintain a patient in the reverse Trendelenburg position?

A) anesthesia screen
B) kidney braces
C) padded footboard
D) shoulder braces
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58
The proper sequence for performing intraoperative and closing counts is operative site, Mayo stand, back table, basins, kick bucket or off field.
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59
What does the circulating nurse verify before the surgical technologist places the basket of instruments on the back table?

A) The internal indicator has changed color.
B) The filter on the container lid has changed color.
C) The filters on the bottom of the container are intact and the container is dry.
D) The numbers of instruments in the tray are correct on the count sheet from CSPD.
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60
The purpose of the preoperative skin prep is to sterilize the patient's skin to prevent surgical site infections.
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61
The ability to anticipate the needs of the surgeon is one of the most important skills for a surgical technologist to develop.
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