Deck 21: Orthopedic Surgery

Question 1

Which bone is the largest found in the foot and is commonly called the heel?

A) acetabulum
B) calcaneus
C) patella
D) talus

Answer 1

B

Question 2

Which joint is an example of a ball-and-socket joint?

A) atlantoaxial
B) femoroacetabular
C) patellofemoral
D) temporomandibular

Answer 2

B

Question 3

Which mineral is stored in the bones and constantly being removed to maintain necessary blood levels?

A) calcium
B) iron
C) magnesium
D) zinc

Answer 3

A

Question 4

What is the medical term for spongy bone?

A) cancellous
B) cortical
C) cranial
D) cuboid

Question 5

The elbow is categorized as which type of joint?

A) amphiarthrosis
B) coxarthrosis
C) diarthrosis
D) synarthrosis

Question 6

What type of bone is the patella?

A) flat
B) irregular
C) long
D) sesamoid

Question 7

In which joint would a bucket handle tear be found?

A) ankle
B) hip
C) knee
D) wrist

Question 8

Which joint is an example of a condyloid joint?

A) acromioclavicular
B) femoroacetabular
C) patellofemoral
D) temporomandibular

Question 9

What is the name of a nonpathological small sac that contains synovial fluid?

A) bursa
B) canaliculi
C) ganglion
D) osteocytes

Question 10

In adults, red bone marrow that produces red blood cells is mainly found in which type(s) of bone?

A) flat and irregular
B) long and short
C) sesamoid only
D) irregular only

Question 11

Which of the following is a long bone that is the largest in the human body?

A) cranium
B) femur
C) ilium
D) scapula

Question 12

What is a serious bone infection that may result from a compound fracture and become chronic later?

A) osteoarthritis
B) osteoclasts
C) osteomyelitis
D) osteophytes

Question 13

The proximal end of the radius and C1 on C2 vertebrae are examples of which type of diarthrosis?

A) gliding
B) hinge
C) pivot
D) saddle

Question 14

Carpal and tarsal bones are classified as which type of bone?

A) flat
B) irregular
C) long
D) short

Question 15

What is the outside covering of bones that provides some nourishment and protection from infection?

A) articular cartilage
B) enosteum
C) periosteum
D) synovial membrane

Question 16

The connections between the large bones of the skull are categorized as which type of joint?

A) amphiarthrosis
B) coxarthrosis
C) diarthrosis
D) synarthrosis

Question 17

Where is the area of active bone growth?

A) cortex
B) diaphysis
C) epiphyseal plate
D) medullary canal

Question 18

Which hormone stimulates osteoclasts to break down bone and increase reabsorption of calcium when serum levels are low?

A) estrogen
B) follicle stimulating
C) human growth
D) parathyroid

Question 19

What is the term for small, loose bodies in the knee that are constant irritants and may cause excess synovial production, pain, and locking up?

A) ganglion cysts
B) genu valgum
C) joint mice
D) bunions

Question 20

Which of the following is the hard, dense bone that surrounds the marrow cavity?

A) cancellous
B) cortical
C) cranial
D) cuboid

Question 21

Which condition is commonly known as "bowlegged"?

A) coxa valga
B) genu varum
C) hallus valgus
D) tallipes varus

Question 22

Which of the following pathologies is related to a specific autoimmune process that attacks the joints in the body?

A) arthralgia
B) derangement
C) osteoarthritis
D) rheumatoid arthritis

Question 23

Which of the following would be increased on a serum analysis and indicative of a malignant neoplasm of bone marrow?

A) Bence Jones protein
B) human leukocyte antigen
C) serum phosphorus
D) serum urate

Question 24

What is the medical term for a bony prominence projecting from a bone, as in a bunion?

A) arthrosis
B) exostosis
C) osteoclast
D) varum

Question 25

Hallus valgus is a condition in which there is a turning outward from the midline found in the:

A) great toe
B) wrist
C) foot
D) hip

Question 26

What is the MOST common cause of bone fractures?

A) poor nutrition
B) osteoporosis
C) osteosarcoma
D) trauma

Question 27

The term C-arm refers to a(n):

A) casting technique
B) extremity deformity
C) fluoroscopic machine
D) OR table positioning device

Question 28

Which of the following diagnostic procedures does NOT use ionizing radiation?

A) arthrography
B) bone scan
C) CT scan
D) MRI scan

Question 29

Which type of fracture is characterized as partial and may result from activities such as jumping or jogging?

A) avulsion
B) comminuted
C) greenstick
D) oblique

Question 30

In which stage of normal bone healing is there bridging of the fracture site, and cartilage and immature bone provide support?

A) inflammation
B) cellular proliferation
C) callus formation
D) remodeling

Question 31

How many stages are involved in normal osteogenesis?

A) two
B) three
C) five
D) eight

Question 32

Which of the following is an acute, emergent condition of compression of neural and vascular structures, usually occurring in the upper and lower extremities following traumatic fractures?

A) avascular necrosis
B) compartmental syndrome
C) delayed union
D) malunion

Question 33

Chondroma, giant cell, and osteoma are:

A) benign neoplasms
B) congenital deformities
C) malignant neoplasms
D) structural osteocyte components

Question 34

Which of the following means a partial separation or dislocation of a joint without any break in the skin?

A) complex
B) greenstick
C) luxation
D) subluxation

Question 35

Which medical term means moving a body part away from the midline?

A) flexion
B) abduction
C) adduction
D) supination

Question 36

The action of pointing and putting a toe in the water to check the temperature would be an example of which movement?

A) circumduction
B) eversion
C) plantar flexion
D) supination

Question 37

What is the term for the softening of bone in children that is commonly called rickets?

A) osteoarthritis
B) osteochondrosis
C) osteomalacia
D) osteomyelitis

Question 38

Which type of cast is applied often to children and immobilizes unilateral or bilateral hips and femurs?

A) spica
B) cylinder
C) long leg
D) short leg

Question 39

Which of the following factors related to bone growth and maintenance is responsible for mineral storage and utilization?

A) exercise
B) heredity
C) hormonal
D) nutrition

Question 40

Which of the following describes the appearance of a stellate bone fracture?

A) asterisk ( * )
B) back slash ( / )
C) spiral ( S )
D) transverse ( ~ )

Question 41

Which of the following is the longest bone in the upper extremity?

A) femur
B) humerus
C) radius
D) ulna

Question 42

Which type of suture would be contraindicated for attaching tendon to bone?

A) nylon (Nurolon)
B) polyglactin 910 (Vicryl)
C) polyester (Ethibond)
D) stainless steel

Question 43

Surgeons may call both Bennett and Hohmann retractors by which other name because of their shapes?

A) alligator
B) cobra
C) duck bill
D) rat tooth

Question 44

Which component of an arthroscopy system is specific to orthopedics and differs from most laparoscopy/MIS systems?

A) camera unit
B) video monitor/screen
C) fiber-optic light source
D) powered shaving system

Question 45

What is polymethyl methycrylate used for in orthopedic procedures?

A) antibiotic irrigation
B) bone cement
C) cast immobilization
D) external fixation

Question 46

All of the following are examples of equipment used postoperatively on the patient for pain reduction or stimulation of healing factors EXCEPT:

A) body exhaust suit
B) CPM machine
C) electric stimulator
D) TNS unit

Question 47

Which positioning device is frequently used for femoral nailing with leg traction and allows for placement of the C-arm?

A) Andrews table
B) fracture table
C) vacuum beanbag
D) Wilson frame

Question 48

Which agency requires the documentation and tracking of implantable orthopedic devices?

A) AAMI
B) CDC
C) EPA
D) FDA

Question 49

The acromion process involved in the acromioclavicular joint is part of which of the following bones?

A) clavicle
B) humerus
C) scapula
D) sternum

Question 50

Whose instructions for cleaning, lubricating, and sterilizing powered orthopedic instrumentation must be followed?

A) AAMI
B) facility policies
C) manufacturer
D) OSHA

Question 51

Which bone is commonly referred to as the collarbone?

A) clavicle
B) humerus
C) scapula
D) sternum

Question 52

What is the name of a small protuberance of a bone that is an attachment point for muscles or tendons?

A) condyle
B) groove
C) fossa
D) tubercle

Question 53

Which medium is frequently used in arthroscopies where the ESU may be used for hemostasis?

A) carbon dioxide
B) lactated Ringer's
C) nitrous oxide
D) normal saline

Question 54

Which of the following joints has the greatest range of motion?

A) acromioclavicular
B) coracoclavicular
C) glenohumeral
D) sternoclavicular

Question 55

Which orthopedic instrument has the appearance of a turkey foot or eagle's talon?

A) beaver knife handle
B) Bennett retractor
C) Lowman bone holder
D) Lambotte osteotome

Question 56

The infraspinatus, teres minor, subscapularis, and supraspinatus muscles collectively comprise the:

A) pelvic girdle
B) rotator cuff
C) sternal notch
D) thoracic cage

Question 57

Which piece of equipment is NOT attached to the arthroscope?

A) camera head
B) inflow and outflow tubing
C) light cord
D) powered shaver

Question 58

Which device is sometimes used for achieving and maintaining the lateral position?

A) Andrews table
B) beach chair positioner
C) vacuum beanbag
D) Wilson frame

Question 59

What is achieved by wrapping an extremity with an Esmarch bandage prior to inflation of pneumatic tourniquet?

A) anesthesia
B) antisepsis
C) extension
D) exsanguinations

Question 60

Which of the following statements regarding generally safe continuous tourniquet inflation time is CORRECT?

A) both upper and lower extremity = 1 hour
B) both upper and lower extremity = 1 1/2 hours
C) lower extremity = 1 hour; upper extremity = 1 1/2 hours
D) lower extremity = 1 1/2 hours; upper extremity = 1 hour

Question 61

Patients in which age group are MOST commonly candidates for total hip arthroplasty?

A) neonates
B) school-aged
C) ages 30 to 50
D) over 65 years

Question 62

Surgical repair for recurrent anterior shoulder dislocation include all of the following EXCEPT:

A) Bankart
B) Bristow
C) Colles'
D) Putti-Platt

Question 63

Which portion of the femur articulates with the acetabulum?

A) head
B) neck
C) greater trochanter
D) lesser trochanter

Question 64

A common system of instrumentation for open reduction of hip fractures is DHS, which stands for:

A) dislocated hip surgery
B) definitive hip support
C) dynamic hip screw
D) derotational hip stabilizer

Question 65

What is the name of the deep, round fossa of the hip joint?

A) acromium
B) acetabulum
C) tuberosity
D) trochanter

Question 66

Which positioning device will be used for ORIF of intertrochanteric femoral fracture?

A) Andrews table
B) fracture table
C) vacuum beanbag
D) Wilson frame

Question 67

What is a common surgical approach for Colles' fracture?

A) arthroscopy
B) carpal tunnel release
C) external fixation
D) open reduction internal fixation

Question 68

What tissue does the acetabular reamer remove?

A) cartilage
B) fascia
C) marrow
D) periosteum

Question 69

Which additional PPE is frequently worn by sterile team members during total joint procedures to prevent possible SSI?

A) impervious apron under gown
B) additional sterile sleeves
C) space suit or body exhaust suits
D) high-efficiency particulate air masks

Question 70

Axillary nerve injury or detachment of the deltoid from the acromion are:

A) indications for Bankart repair
B) normal outcomes of total shoulder repair
C) serious post-op complications of open acromioplasty
D) treated conservatively with steroids and physical therapy

Question 71

Which bone is involved in a Colles' fracture?

A) ulna
B) radius
C) scapula
D) humerus

Question 72

Which method of reducing a fracture carries the highest potential for surgical site infection?

A) percutaneous pinning of simple fracture
B) external fixator application for Colles' fracture
C) closed with cast application for greenstick fracture
D) open reduction, internal fixation for compound comminuted fracture

Question 73

Patients diagnosed with shoulder impingement syndrome would likely undergo:

A) acromioplasty
B) external fixation
C) open reduction, internal fixation
D) total shoulder arthroplasty

Question 74

Which of the following is NOT a bone of the pelvis?

A) ilium
B) pubis
C) femur
D) ischium

Question 75

Which instrument is used to remove marrow from the canal of long bones for placement of prostheses?

A) Brun curette
B) Gigli saw
C) intramedullary reamer
D) suction brush attachment

Question 76

A Bankart avulsion lesion involves which anatomical structure(s)?

A) labrum (cartilage)
B) rotator cuff (muscles)
C) bicipital groove (tendon)
D) acromioclavicular (bone spur)

Question 77

What should the surgical technologist do while the surgeon is using the oscillating saw during open acromioplasty?

A) Blot any bleeding bone surfaces carefully with sponge stick.
B) Collect bone chips in wound carefully with cupped tissue forceps.
C) Drip small amounts of irrigation onto blade to prevent overheating.
D) Suction smoke from operative site created by heated tissues.

Question 78

All of the following are indications for total shoulder arthroplasty EXCEPT:

A) chronic arthritis pain
B) humeral shaft fracture
C) osteonecrosis of humeral head
D) moderate impingement syndrome

Question 79

Which of the following is a commonly used self-retaining retractor used in total hip arthroplasty procedures?

A) Adson-Beckman
B) Charnley
C) Gelpi
D) Weitlaner

Question 80

Which instrument is used frequently in arthroscopies to examine and manipulate internal structures?

A) blunt probe
B) powered shaver
C) spinal needle
D) trocar cannula