Deck 3: ISTQB-ISEB Certified Tester Foundation Level (BH0-010)

Question 1

Which of the following types of defect are typically found in reviews rather than in dynamic testing? a) Deviations from standards. b) Defects in interface implementation. c) Poor maintainability of code. d) Poor performance of the system. e) Defects in requirements.

A) a, c and e
B) a, b and d
C) b, d and e
D) a, c and d

Answer 1

A

Question 2

Which of the following is a MAJOR task of evaluating exit criteria and reporting?

A) Writing a test summary report for stakeholders
B) Logging the outcome of test execution
C) Repeating test activities as a result of action taken for each discrepancy.
D) Evaluating testability of the requirements and system

Answer 2

A

Question 3

Which of the following statements is true?

A) Testing cannot prove that software is incorrect.
B) Testing can prove that software is either correct or incorrect.
C) Testing cannot prove that software is correct.
D) Testing can prove that software is correct.

Answer 3

C

Question 4

Which of the following statements describe why experience-based test design techniques are useful? a) They can help derive test cases based on analysis of specification documents. b) They can identify tests not easily captured by formal techniques. c) They make good use of tester knowledge, intuition and experience. d) They are an effective alternative to formal test design techniques.

A) a and b
B) b and d
C) c and d
D) b and c

Question 5

Which of the following are the typical defects found by static analysis tools? a) Variables that are never used. b) Security vulnerabilities. c) Poor performance. d) Unreachable code. e) Business processes not followed.

A) b, c and d are true; a and e are false
B) a is true; b, c, d and e are false
C) c, d and e are true; a and b are false
D) a, b and d are true; c and e are false

Question 6

Which statement about combinations of inputs and preconditions is true for a large system?

A) It is easy to test them all in a short time
B) It is not practically possible to test them all
C) It is not possible to test any of them
D) It is essential to test them all in order to do good testing

Question 7

Which ordering of the list below gives increasing levels of test independence? a) Tests designed by a fellow-member of the design team. b) Tests designed by a different group within the organization. c) Tests designed by the code author. d) Tests designed by different organization.

A) c, a, b, d.
B) d, b, a, c
C) c, a, d, b.
D) a, c, d, b.

Question 8

Which statement BEST describes the role of testing?

A) Testing ensures that the right version of code is delivered
B) Testing can be used to assess quality.
C) Testing shows that the software is error free.
D) Testing improves quality in itself.

Question 9

The above table shows 6 test procedures (P to U) that must now be entered into a test execution schedule. Business severity is regarded as the most important element in determining the sequence of the test procedures, but other dependencies must also be taken into consideration. Regression testing can only be run once all other tests have completed. Which of the following represents the MOST effective sequence for the test execution schedule (where the first entry in the sequence is the first procedure to be run, the second entry is the second to be run and so on)?

A) Q, P, S, R, U, T.
B) R, S, U, P, Q, T.
C) R, P, S, U, T, Q.
D) P, Q, R, S, U, T

Question 10

Which ADDITIONAL test level could be introduced into a standard V-model after system testing?

A) System Integration Testing
B) Acceptance Testing
C) Regression Testing
D) Component Integration Testing

Question 11

Which of the following is a standard for test documentation?

A) IEEE Std. 1028
B) EEE Std. 1044
C) ISO 9126.
D) IEEE Std. 829

Question 12

Which of the following is LEAST likely to be included in an incident report?

A) Suggestions for correcting the problem
B) Degree of impact on stakeholder interests.
C) Date the incident was discovered.
D) Life cycle process in which the incident was discovered

Question 13

Under what circumstances would you plan to perform maintenance testing? a) As part of a migration of an application from one platform to another. b) As part of a planned enhancement release. c) When the test scripts need to be updated. d) For data migration associated with the retirement of a system

A) a, b and c
B) b, c and d
C) a, b and d
D) a, c and d

Question 14

Given the following sample of pseudo code: 01 Input number of male rabbits 02 Input number of female rabbits 03 If male rabbits > 0 and female rabbits > 0 then 04 Input Do you want to breed (Yes / No) 05 If breed = "No" 06 Print deep male and female rabbits apart! 07 End if 08 End If. Which of the following test cases will ensure that statement "06" is executed?

A) male rabbits = 1, female rabbits = 1, breed = Yes male rabbits = 1, female rabbits = 1, breed = "Yes"
B) male rabbits = 1, female rabbits = 1, breed = No male rabbits = 1, female rabbits = 1, breed = "No"
C) male rabbits = 1, female rabbits = 2, breed = Yes male rabbits = 1, female rabbits = 2, breed = "Yes"
D) male rabbits = 1, female rabbits = 0, breed = No male rabbits = 1, female rabbits = 0, breed = "No"

Question 15

Which of the following BEST describes a data-driven approach to the use of test execution tools?

A) Monitoring response times when the system contains a specified amount of data
B) Manipulation of databases and files to create test data
C) Using a generic script that reads test input data from a file
D) Recording test scripts and playing them back

Question 16

From a Testing perspective, what are the MAIN purposes of Configuration Management? a) Identifying the version of software under test. b) Controlling the version of testware items. c) Developing new testware items. d) Tracking changes to testware items. e) Analyzing the need for new testware items.

A) b, d and e.
B) b, c and d.
C) a, b and d.
D) a, c and e.

Question 17

Which of the following activities would improve how a tool is deployed within an organization? a) Defining best practice guidelines for users. b) Roll out the tool across the organization as quickly as possible to all users. c) Provide technical support to the test team for each type of tool. d) Introduce a system to monitor tool usage and user feedback. e) Ensure that the test process is not changed as result of the tool introduction.

A) a, b and c
B) a, c and d
C) c, d and e
D) b, d and e

Question 18

Which of the following is a specification-based technique?

A) Use Case Testing
B) Error Guessing.
C) Condition coverage
D) Statement Testing.

Question 19

During which activity of the Fundamental Test Process test process do you review the test basis?

A) Evaluating exit criteria and reporting.
B) Test implementation and execution
C) Test analysis and design
D) Test planning and control

Question 20

What is the USUAL sequence for performing the following activities during the Fundamental Test Process? a) Analyze the test basis documents. b) Define the expected results. c) Create the test execution schedule. d) Establish the traceability of the test conditions

A) d, a, c, b
B) a, d, b, c
C) a, b, c, d
D) a, b, d, c

Question 21

Which one of the following provides the BEST description of test design?

A) Identification of the features which should be tested
B) Specification of the test cases required to test a feature
C) Specification of the order in which test cases should be executed
D) Creation of a test suite

Question 22

Which of the following activities should be considered before purchasing a tool for an organization? a) Ensure that the tool does not have a negative impact on existing test processes. b) Produce a business justification examining both costs and benefits. c) Determine whether the vendor will continue to provide support for the tool. d) Introduce tool deployment activities into the testing schedule.

A) a and d
B) b and c
C) c and d
D) a and c

Question 23

A wholesaler sells printer cartridges. The minimum order quantity is 5. There is a 20% discount for orders of 100 or more printer cartridges. You have been asked to prepare test cases using various values for the number of printer cartridges ordered. Which of the following groups contain three test inputs that would be generated using Boundary Value Analysis?

A) 5, 6, 20
B) 4, 5, 80
C) 4, 5, 99
D) 1, 20, 100

Question 24

Which of the following would NOT NORMALLY be considered for a testing role on a project?

A) System operator
B) Developer
C) Configuration manager
D) Performance specialist

Question 25

Which of the following is a review process activity?

A) Individual preparation
B) Writing test conditions
C) Developing a test plan
D) Executing test scripts

Question 26

The flow graph below shows the logic of a program for which 100% statement coverage and 100% decision coverage is required on exit from component testing. The following test case has been run: Test Case 1 covering path A, B, D, G Which of the following ADDITIONAL test cases would need to be written to provide the required coverage?

A) Test Case 2 covering path A, C, D, E, F, E, G
B) Test Case 3 covering path A, B, D, E, G
C) Test Case 4 covering path A, C, D, E, G
D) Test Case 5 covering path A, C, D, G

Question 27

Which of the following are white-box test design techniques? a) Decision table testing. b) Decision coverage. c) Boundary value analysis. d) Error guessing. e) Statement testing.

A) a and e
B) b and d
C) b and e
D) e and d

Question 28

Which one of the following best describes risk-based testing?

A) Testing as much of the system as possible in the time available
B) Targeting testing at the more critical areas of the system
C) Making full use of formal test case design techniques
D) Fixing as many defects as possible before go-live

Question 29

Which of the following activities would NORMALLY be undertaken during test planning? a) Scheduling test analysis and design. b) Designing Test Conditions. c) Monitoring test progress. d) Identifying the objectives of testing. e) Evaluating test tools. f) Selecting test metrics for monitoring and control.

A) b, c and d
B) a, d and f
C) a, d and e
D) b, c and f

Question 30

Which of the following account for most of the failures in a system?

A) They will be found in the smallest modules
B) They will be evenly distributed among all modules
C) They will be found in the largest modules
D) They will be found in a small proportion of modules

Question 31

Which statement is a valid explanation as to why black-box test design techniques can be useful?

A) They can help to derive test data based on analysis of the requirement specification
B) They can help derive test cases based on analysis of a component code structure
C) They can help to derive test conditions based on analysis of a system internal structure
D) They can help to reduce testing costs

Question 32

Why should expected results be defined before execution?

A) To assist in test automation
B) To improve test efficiency
C) To reduce the possibility of incorrect results
D) To improve design of the software

Question 33

Which of the following matches the activity (i to iv) to its most suitable type of tool (p to s)? i) Analysis of code structure. ii)Generation of test cases. iii)Simulation of the environment in which a component is run. iv)Analysis of test metrics. p) Test management. q) Test design tool. r) Static analysis tool. s) Test harness.

A) i-s, ii-p, iii-r, iv-q
B) i-r, ii-q, iii-s, iv-p
C) i-r, ii-s, iii-p, iv-q
D) i-q, ii-r, iii-s, iv-p

Question 34

Which one of the following statements about approaches to test estimation is true?

A) A metrics-based approach is based on data gathered from previous projects; an expert-based approach uses the knowledge of the owner of the tasks or experts
B) A metrics-based approach is based on creating a work-breakdown structure first; an expert-based approach is based on input from estimation experts
C) A metrics-based approach is based on data gathered from previous projects; an expert-based approach is based on a work-breakdown structure
D) A metrics-based approach is based on an analysis of the specification documents; an expert-based approach is based on the opinion of the most experienced tester in the organization

Question 35

Where may functional testing be performed?

A) At system and acceptance testing levels only
B) At all test levels
C) At all levels above integration testing
D) At the acceptance testing level only

Question 36

During which activity of the Fundamental Test Process test process do you determine the exit criteria?

A) Test analysis and design
B) Evaluating exit criteria and reporting
C) Test closure activities
D) Test planning and control

Question 37

For which of the following is Impact Analysis ESPECIALLY important?

A) Maintenance Testing
B) Unit Testing
C) System Testing
D) User Acceptance Testing

Question 38

A candidate sits an exam with 40 questions. To pass, the candidate must answer at least 25 questions correctly. To gain a distinction, a mark of 32 or above must be achieved. Which of these groups of exam scores would fall into three different equivalence classes?

A) 32, 36, 40
B) 0, 27, 36
C) 0, 24, 32
D) 25, 32, 40

Question 39

Which characteristics BEST describe a walkthrough?

A) Documented, includes peers and experts
B) Formal process collects metrics
C) Defined roles, led by trained moderator
D) Led by the author, may be documented

Question 40

Which of the following is a project risk?

A) There are non-standard implementations of some features
B) We may not be able to get a contractor to join the test team as planned
C) The response times of the software may not be fast enough
D) The contract has a legal loophole which has affected the company profit

Question 41

A program level Master Test Plan states that a number of best practices must be adopted for its project life cycle models, irrespective of whether a sequential or iterative-incremental approach is adopted for each project. Which of the following life cycle related best practices would you expect to see in the Master Test Plan? a) There should be a testing activity that corresponds to each development activity. b) Each project should have four test levels if using a V-model. c) Test personnel should ensure that they are invited to review requirements and design documents as soon as draft versions are available. d) System testing must not be performed by the development teams.

A) a and b
B) a and c
C) b and d
D) c and d

Question 42

Which of the following would be MOST USEFUL in estimating the amount of re-testing and regression testing likely to be required? a) The purchase of an automated test execution tool. b) Time allocated for acceptance testing. c) Metrics from previous similar projects. d) Impact analysis.

A) a and b
B) b and c
C) a and d
D) c and d

Question 43

Which of the following statements describe why exploratory testing is a useful test design technique? a) It can help derive test cases based on the internal structure of systems. b) It is useful when there are limited specification documents available. c) It is useful when there testing is constrained due to time pressures. d) It is a cheaper alternative to more formal test design techniques.

A) b and c
B) a and c
C) b and d
D) c and d

Question 44

Which two of the following are attributes of structural testing? a) It is based on testing features described in a functional specification. b) It can include statement and decision testing. c) It can be carried out at all levels of testing. d) It can include debugging.

A) a and b
B) a and d
C) b and d
D) b and c

Question 45

What is the purpose of configuration management in testing? a) To choose and implement a suitable configuration management tool. b) To identify unique items of testware and their related developed software. c) To provide traceability between items of testware and developed software. d) To enable managers to configure the software. e) To control the versions of software released into the test environment.

A) a, c and e
B) a, b and d
C) b, c and d
D) b, c and e

Question 46

Which one of the following methods for test estimation rely on information captured from previous projects?

A) Test point-based
B) Expert-based
C) Metrics-based
D) Development effort-based

Question 47

Given the following sample of pseudo code: Input ExamScore If ExamScore <= 75 then      Print "Candidate has failed" Else      Print "Candidate has passed"      If ExamScore >= 120 then           Print "Candidate has achieved a distinction"      EndIf EndIf. What is the minimum number of test cases required to guarantee 100% decision coverage?

A) 2
B) 1
C) 3
D) 4

Question 48

Which of the following statements correctly describes the benefit of fault attacks?

A) They are more effective at finding faults than formal test design techniques
B) They are useful when there is limited experience in the test team
C) They can evaluate the reliability of a test object by attempting to force specific failures to occur
D) They are less structured than other experience-based techniques

Question 49

Arrive-and-Go airline wants to clarify its baggage handling policy, whilst maximizing revenues, and will introduce the following tariffs for all baggage per individual customer (weights are rounded up to the nearest 0.1Kg): The first 2Kg will be carried free of charge. The next 10 Kg will be carried for a flat charge of 0. An additional 15Kg will be charged a total charge of 7. Luggage over this amount will be charged at $5 per Kg, up to a maximum of 150Kg per person. No passenger may take more that 150Kg with them. Which of the following would constitute boundary values for baggage weights in the price calculation?

A) 0, 5.0, 10.0, 17.0
B) 2.0,9.9, 15.0, 26.9
C) 1.9, 12.0, 14.9, 150.0
D) 2.0, 12.1, 27.0, 150.1

Question 50

Which of the following are characteristics of good testing in any life cycle model? a) Every development activity has a corresponding test activity. b) Testers review development documents early. c) There are separate levels for component and system integration test. d) Each test level has objectives specific to that level. e) Each test level is based on the same test basis.

A) a, d and e
B) b, c and e
C) a, c and d
D) a, b and d

Question 51

A system requires 100% decision coverage at component testing for all modules. The following module has been tested with a single test case. The test case follows the path A, B, D, E, F, G. What level of decision coverage has been achieved?

A) 100%
B) 50%
C) 75%
D) 90%

Question 52

Which one of the following BEST describes a test control action?

A) Setting a completion date
B) Reporting on poor progress
C) Adding extra test scripts to a test suite
D) Retesting a defect fix

Question 53

An automated air-conditioner is programmed to turn its heating unit on when the temperature falls below 17 and to turn its refrigeration unit on when the temperature exceeds 26. The air-conditioner is designed to operate at temperatures between -10 and +40. Given the above specification, the temperature exceeds 26. The air-conditioner is designed to operate at temperatures between -10 and +40? Given the above specification, which of the following sets of values shows that the equivalence partition test design technique has been used correctly?

A) -11 Deg. C, -1 Deg. C, 18 Deg. C, 27 Deg. C, 51 Deg. C
B) -11 Deg. C, -1 Deg. C, 12 Deg. C, 18 Deg. C, 27 Deg. C, 51 Deg. C
C) -11 Deg. C, 18 Deg. C, 51 Deg. C
D) -1 Deg. C, 12 Deg. C, 18 Deg. C, 27 Deg. C 

Question 54

What does a test execution tool enable?

A) Tests to be executed automatically, or semi automatically
B) Tests to be written without human intervention
C) Preparation of test data automatically
D) Manage test assets such as test conditions and test cases

Question 55

Which one of the following BEST describes the purpose of a priority rating in an incident report?

A) To show which parts of the system are affected by the incident
B) To show how quickly the problem should be fixed
C) To show how much it would cost to fix the defect
D) To show progress of testing

Question 56

Which of the following software work products would NOT TYPICALLY be examined using static analysis techniques? a) Design specification. b) Component code. c) Software model. d) Test procedure. e) Non-functional requirements specification.

A) a, c and d
B) a, d and e
C) b, c and d
D) a, b and e

Question 57

Which of the following is MOST clearly a characteristic of structure based (white-box) techniques?

A) Test cases are independent of each other
B) Test cases can be easily automated
C) Test cases are derived systematically from the delivered code
D) Test cases are derived systematically from specifications

Question 58

A failure has occurred during system testing and incident report must be raised. The following attributes are available for the report: a) Tester name. b) Date raised. c) Priority (to fix). d) Severity (impact on the system). e) Expected Results. f) Actual Results. g) Test case specification identifier. h) Failing software function. i) Tester recommendations. Which attributes would be the MOST effective to enable determination of WHEN the incident should be fixed and HOW MUCH effort might be required to apply the fix?

A) b, c, e, f, g
B) a, b, d, h, i
C) c, d, e, f, h
D) c, d, e, g, i

Question 59

Which of the following statements about black box and white box techniques is correct?

A) Decision Testing, Equivalence Partitioning and Condition Coverage are all black box techniques
B) Decision Table Testing, State Transition and Use Case Testing are all black box techniques
C) Decision Testing, Equivalence Partitioning and Statement Testing are all white box techniques
D) Boundary Value Analysis, State Transition and Statement Testing are all white box techniques

Question 60

Given the following fragment of code, how many tests are required for 100% statement coverage?

A) 1
B) 2
C) 3
D) 4

Question 61

Which of the following test activities are more likely to be undertaken by a test lead rather than a tester? a) Create test specifications. b) Schedule tests. c) Define metrics for measuring test progress. d) Prepare and acquire test data.

A) c and d
B) a and b
C) b and d
D) b and c

Question 62

Which one of the following is a characteristic of good testing in any lifecycle model?

A) Each test level has the same test objective.
B) There should be more testing activities than development activities.
C) Test design can only begin when development is complete.
D) Testers should begin to review documents as soon as drafts are available.

Question 63

Which of the following activities would improve how a tool is deployed within an organization? a) Roll out the tool across the organization as quickly as possible to all users. b) Provide technical support to the test team for each type of tool. c) Limit communication with the tool vendor to allow users to develop their own best practice. d) Make sure processes are improved to reflect a new tool. e) Regularly analyze how the tool is being used.

A) a, b and c
B) a, c and d
C) b, d and e
D) b, c and e

Question 64

Given the following decision table: What is the expected action for each of the following test cases?

A) Insure Joe offering no discount, insure Sue offering no discount
B) Insure Joe, offering a 10% discount and insure Sue offering a 10% discount
C) Do not insure Joe and insure Sue offering no discount
D) Do not insure Joe and insure Sue offering a 15% discount

Question 65

Which of the following pairs of factors is used to quantify risks?

A) Impact and Cost
B) Likelihood and Impact
C) Product and Project
D) Probability and Likelihood

Question 66

The flow graph below shows the logic of a program for which 100% statement coverage and 100% decision coverage is required on exit from component testing. The following test cases have been run: Which of the following statements related to coverage is correct?

A) Statement coverage is 100%; decision coverage is 100%.
B) Statement coverage is less than 100%; decision coverage is 100%.
C) Statement coverage is 100%; decision coverage is less than 100%.
D) Statement coverage and decision coverage are both less than 100%.

Question 67

Which one of the following is true of software development models?

A) There are always four test levels in the V-model.
B) In a Rapid Application Development (RAD) project, there are four test levels for each iteration.
C) In Agile development models, the number of test levels for an iteration can vary depending on the project.
D) There must be at least four test levels for any software development model.

Question 68

A simple gaming system has been specified as a set of use cases. It has been tested by the supplier and is now ready for user acceptance testing. The system is assessed as low risk and there is pressure to release the software into the market as soon as possible. Which of the following test techniques would be most appropriate for this testing?

A) State transition testing and decision testing
B) Equivalence partitioning and statement testing
C) Use case testing and exploratory testing
D) Decision table testing and exploratory testing

Question 69

Which of the following best describes the purpose of non-functional testing?

A) To measure characteristics of a system which give an indication of how the system performs its functions
B) To ensure that a system complies with the quality standards set by ISO 9126
C) To ensure that the system deals appropriately with software malfunctions
D) To measure the extent to which a system has been tested by functional testing

Question 70

Which of the following is a purpose of the review kick off activity?

A) Explain the objectives
B) Select the personnel group
C) Document results
D) Define entry and exit criteria

Question 71

In which activity of the Fundamental Test Process is the test environment set up?

A) Test implementation and execution.
B) Test planning and control
C) Test analysis and design
D) Evaluating exit criteria and reporting

Question 72

What should be the MAIN objective during development testing?

A) To cause as many failures as possible so that defects in the software are identified and can be fixed
B) To confirm that the system works as expected and that requirements have been met
C) To assess the quality of the software with no intention of fixing defects
D) To give information to stakeholders of the risk of releasing the system at a given time

Question 73

Which of the following statements is GENERALLY true of testing? a) Testing can show the presence of defects. b) Testing reduces the probability of uncovered defects. c) Testing can show that a previously present defect has been removed. d) Testing can prove that software is defect free.

A) a, b and c
B) a, b and d
C) a, c and d
D) b, c and d

Question 74

The above table shows 6 test procedures (P to U) that must now be entered into a test execution schedule. Business severity is regarded as the most important element in determining the sequence of the test procedures, but other dependencies must also be taken into consideration. Regression testing can only be run once all other tests have completed. Which of the following represents the MOST effective sequence for the test execution schedule (where the first entry in the sequence is the first procedure to be run, the second entry is the second to be run and so on)?

A) S, R, P, T, Q, U
B) P, R, T, Q, S, U
C) R, P, S, T, Q, U
D) P, Q, R, S, U, T

Question 75

Pair the correct test design techniques (i to v) with the category of techniques (x, y and z): i) Exploratory Testing ii) Equivalence Partitioning iii) Decision Testing iv) Use Case Testing v) Condition coverage x) Specification-based   y) Structure-based z) Experienced-based

A) x = i and ii; y = iii and v; z = iv.
B) x = i, ii and iv; y = v; z = iii
C) x = ii and iv; y = iii and v; z = i.
D) x = iii and iv; y = v; z = i and ii.

Question 76

Which of the following is a TYPICAL objective of a pilot project for introducing a testing tool into an organization?

A) To assess whether the benefits will be achieved at a reasonable cost
B) To identify the initial requirements of the tool
C) To select the most suitable tool for the intended purpose
D) To document test design and test execution processes

Question 77

Which of the following are characteristic of test management tools? a) They support traceability of tests to source documents. b) They provide an interface to test execution tools. c) They help to enforce coding standards. d) They manipulate databases and files to set up test data.

A) a and c
B) b and c
C) a and b
D) b and d

Question 78

Which of the following activities should be performed during the selection and implementation of a testing tool? a) Determine whether the organization existing test process needs to change. b) Conduct a proof of concept. c) Implement the selected tool on a project behind schedule to save time. d) Identify coaching and mentoring requirements for the use of the selected tool

A) a, b and c.
B) b, c and d.
C) a, c and d.
D) a, b and d.

Question 79

Given the following decision table: Which of the following test cases and expected results is VALID?

A) 23 year old in insurance class A Premium is 90 and excess is 2,500.
B) 51 year old in insurance class C Premium is 70 and excess is 500.
C) 31 year old in insurance class B Premium is 70 and excess is 2,500.
D) 43 year old in insurance class C Premium is 70 and excess is 1,000.

Question 80

Which of the following is an example of a product risk?

A) Software that does not perform its intended functions
B) Failure of a third party
C) Problems in defining the right requirements
D) Skill and staff shortages