Deck 1: Certified Software Business Analyst

Question 1

Following are the attributes of a good requirement, EXCEPT:

A) Stable
B) Modifiable
C) Ambiguous
D) Traceable

Answer 1

C

Question 2

Quality Requirements are generally:

A) Analogue (a range of acceptable values)
B) Binary (on or off, present or not)
C) Either Analogue or Binary
D) None of the above

Answer 2

A

Question 3

The role of the facilitator is:

A) To help guide a group through a discussion
B) Not be judgmental
C) Create a productive environment
D) All of the above
E) None of the above

Answer 3

D

Question 4

Despite the best efforts to minimize the impact and probability of risk, some risks will always remain. Such risks are called:

A) Operational Risks
B) Residual Risks
C) Business Risks
D) Market Risks

Question 5

Which Use Case convention is used to insert another Use Case that defines an alternative path?

A) Include
B) Extend
C) Exception
D) System

Question 6

Which function ensures the integrity of the requirements change process?

A) Business Analyst
B) Manager
C) Sponsor
D) Change Control Board

Question 7

Guidelines are not enforceable.

Question 8

Pat is documenting the way data will be transformed from an existing system in order to become more compatible with the new system. What type of requirement is he documenting?

A) Quality Requirement
B) Business Requirement
C) Both of the above
D) None of the above

Question 9

The attributes of a good requirement include:

A) Traceable
B) Correct
C) Complete
D) Unambiguous
E) All of the above

Question 10

Business Event Model is an excellent first step in determining what is to be:

Question 11

Creating a baseline of current performance is part of planning phase.

Question 12

The application of the Pareto Principle helps to focus an organization's attention on the critical few issues or activities that will result in the greatest benefit. What percentage are typically referred to as the "critical few"?

A) 20%
B) 40%
C) 60%
D) 80%

Question 13

Communication tools for the Business Analyst include:

A) Brainstorming
B) Focus Groups
C) Negotiating
D) All of the above
E) None of the above

Question 14

For the following scenario which approach is best suited? Projects where it is difficult to obtain solid requirements due to an unstable environment, especially those in which the requirements will continue to emerge as the product is used.

A) Agile
B) V-Model
C) Prototype
D) Waterfall

Question 15

The number of participants in JAD sessions are typically higher as compared to other facilitation sessions.

Question 16

Which technique is used to reduce the total number of items to a manageable number and to have the resulting items in a priority sequence?

A) Group Ranking
B) Affinity Diagram
C) Brainstorming

Question 17

A Business Analyst needs to have good communication and interpersonal skills. Example(s) of communication and interpersonal skills include:

A) Listening
B) Interviewing
C) Testing
D) Only A and B
E) A, B, and C

Question 18

Which of the following is the best tools for planning, tracking, and reporting time related activities?

A) Gantt Charts
B) Control Charts
C) Histogram
D) Run Chart

Question 19

Reliability is closely correlated with the functional attribute of correctness.

Question 20

Which of the following is a tool used for project planning?

A) Delphi technique
B) Peer Review
C) Expected Value Technique
D) Work Breakdown Structure (WBS)

Question 21

A valid use of an IT measurement program is to record quantitative data that will be used in an employee performance appraisal.

Question 22

____ organizations receive their funding through the collection of taxes, fees and assessments and the sale of properties such as admissions to parks and monuments.

A) For Profit
B) Not for Profit
C) Government
D) Private

Question 23

Which of the following statements about reviews is true?

A) Reviews cannot be performed on user requirements specifications
B) Reviews are the least effective way of testing code
C) Reviews are unlikely to find faults in test plans
D) Reviews should be performed on specifications, code, and test plans

Question 24

Poor communication is often the cause of imprecise specifications. In the contracting process, the most critical point where the specifications have the maximum chance for being misinterpreted is:

A) During the planning phase when little is fully understood about the project's requirements
B) The interface between the project team and supplies of services or products
C) During close-out when all parties are attempting to terminate operations and move all assets
D) At meetings and conferences when the agenda limits the subjects to be discussed

Question 25

"Training on the use of new materials" is an example of:

A) Environmental, Competitive, and Regulatory Costs
B) Materials and Supplies Costs  
C) Machines, Equipment, and Hardware Costs
D) Methods, Processes, and Procedures Costs

Question 26

The following formats are used to express Return on Investment (ROI), EXCEPT:

A) Return on Assets (ROA)
B) Revenue
C) Return on Equity (ROE)
D) Internal Rate of Return

Question 27

The systematic write-off of an asset over its useful like or some other predefined period is called:

A) Gap Analysis
B) ROA
C) ROI
D) Cash Flow
E) Amortization and Depreciation

Question 28

Performance Based Contracting (PBC) helps:

A) In vendor identification
B) Manage custom developed product
C) All of the products developed by outside individuals
D) Manages the interaction between a software vendor and a requesting organization

Question 29

Which of the following is NOT true?

A) Use case development results in a series of related tests call scenarios
B) Failure scenarios are unsuccessful conclusions that result in the actor abandoning the goal
C) All the scenarios for a single Use Case must meet all of the interactions related to different goal or sub-goal
D) If there is only one path, with no opportunities, changes or errors, there will be no scenarios

Question 30

Which theory focuses on team development and behavior?

A) Dialectical Models
B) Simpson Models
C) Forming-Storming-Norming-Performing Model
D) Evolutionary Models

Question 31

What ISO standard was introduced to address the issue of Information Technology Service Management?

A) ISO 9000
B) ISO 20000
C) ISO 12207
D) ISO 9001
E) None of the above

Question 32

All of the following reasons are ways by which a Business Analyst can influence quality of the products, EXCEPT:

A) Identify and define a suitable requirements process
B) Obtain understanding on tools available for developing quality system
C) Identify as many requirements defects as possible as early as possible
D) None of the above

Question 33

Which of the following is NOT a source of defects in application code?

A) Implementation
B) Requirements
C) Design
D) Coding

Question 34

______is used to describe the extent to which an organization is willing to take risks.

A) Risk Averse
B) Risk Response
C) Risk Appetite
D) Risk Foundation

Question 35

A program validates a numeric field as follows: Values less than 10 are rejected, values between 10 and 21 are accepted, values greater than or equal to 22 are rejected. Which of the following input values covers the MOST boundary values?

A) 9,10,11,22
B) 9,10,21,22
C) 10,11,21,22
D) 10,11,20,21

Question 36

The Net Income (Loss) before taxes minus accounting tax effect on income is: ______

A) Income (Gross)
B) Net Income (Loss) before Taxes
C) Income (Loss) from Operations
D) Net Income (Loss)

Question 37

A Prototype is a:

A) Fully operational representation of a process or system
B) Limited operation representation of a process or system
C) Non-operational representation of a process or system
D) Flow diagram of a process or system

Question 38

A process that no one "owns" should be a candidate for elimination.

Question 39

___Methodology is focused on estimating project size from a functional or customer's perspective. It is designed to be independent on any specific language, operating system, or methodology.

A) LOC - Lines of Code
B) Top Down Analysis
C) Function Point Analysis
D) All of the above
E) None of the above

Question 40

The following are some of the characteristics of Special Causes, EXCEPT:

A) Non inherent within the system
B) Nor predictable
C) Can be assigned to a defect in the system
D) Has a random pattern of data points within the control limits

Question 41

One of the critical success factors is acquiring COTS software is that the vendor will continue to provide additional features in the future. This critical success factor is commonly referred to as:

A) Ease of Use
B) Expandability
C) Maintainability
D) Transferability
E) Reliability

Question 42

Which of the following is a Level 4 process area?

A) Organizational Process Definition
B) Quantitative Project Management
C) Risk Management
D) Decision Analysis and Resolution

Question 43

In the diagram, the arrow labeled A points to an event on the control chart which is:

A) Under Control
B) Over Control
C) Out of Control
D) In Control
E) Irrelevant

Question 44

When it is said that the Business Analysis must be fully "bilingual", what two languages does the BA need to "speak"?

A) English and Native Language of the Client
B) Information Technology and Business
C) Programming and Design
D) Quality Assurance and Quality Control

Question 45

ISO 20000-2 address the issue of ITSM for:

A) Code of Practice for Service Management
B) Specification for Service Management
C) Process Assessment
D) Process Improvement

Question 46

Fractional Reductions are also referred to as _____.

A) Hard Dollars
B) Soft Dollars
C) Actionable Savings
D) Reduced Response Time

Question 47

Which of the following is a White Box Technique?

A) Path Testing
B) Boundary Value Analysis
C) Equivalence Partitioning
D) State Transition Testing

Question 48

Which factors are within the control of the organization and essential to a successful project?

A) Critical Assumptions
B) Constraints
C) Dependencies
D) Critical Success Factors

Question 49

Goals have the following characteristics, EXCEPT:

A) Action
B) Measurable Results
C) Achievable Fast
D) Time Oriented

Question 50

Which is the following is For Profit Organization?

A) Museums
B) Religious Institutions
C) Charitable Foundations
D) Toyota