Deck 6: Security, Associate (JNCIA-SEC)
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Deck 6: Security, Associate (JNCIA-SEC)
1
Which two statements are true about virtualized SRX Series devices? (Choose two.)
A) vSRX cannot be deployed in transparent mode.
B) cSRX can be deployed in routed mode.
C) cSRX cannot be deployed in routed mode.
D) vSRX can be deployed in transparent mode.
A) vSRX cannot be deployed in transparent mode.
B) cSRX can be deployed in routed mode.
C) cSRX cannot be deployed in routed mode.
D) vSRX can be deployed in transparent mode.
cSRX can be deployed in routed mode.
vSRX can be deployed in transparent mode.
vSRX can be deployed in transparent mode.
2
What are two valid JIMS event log sources? (Choose two.)
A) Microsoft Windows Server 2012 audit logs
B) Microsoft Active Directory server event logs
C) Microsoft Exchange Server event logs
D) Microsoft Active Directory audit logs
A) Microsoft Windows Server 2012 audit logs
B) Microsoft Active Directory server event logs
C) Microsoft Exchange Server event logs
D) Microsoft Active Directory audit logs
Microsoft Active Directory server event logs
Microsoft Exchange Server event logs
Microsoft Exchange Server event logs
3
Click the Exhibit button.
Which two statements are true about the configuration shown in the exhibit? (Choose two.)
A) The session is removed from the session table after 10 seconds of inactivity.
B) The session is removed from the session table after 10 milliseconds of inactivity.
C) Aggressive aging is triggered if the session table reaches 95% capacity.
D) Aggressive aging is triggered if the session table reaches 80% capacity.

A) The session is removed from the session table after 10 seconds of inactivity.
B) The session is removed from the session table after 10 milliseconds of inactivity.
C) Aggressive aging is triggered if the session table reaches 95% capacity.
D) Aggressive aging is triggered if the session table reaches 80% capacity.
The session is removed from the session table after 10 seconds of inactivity.
Aggressive aging is triggered if the session table reaches 95% capacity.
Aggressive aging is triggered if the session table reaches 95% capacity.
4
Which statement describes the AppTrack module in AppSecure?
A) The AppTrack module provides enforcement with the ability to block traffic, based on specific applications.
B) The AppTrack module provides control by the routing of traffic, based on the application.
C) The AppTrack module identifies the applications that are present in network traffic.
D) The AppTrack module provides visibility and volumetric reporting of application usage on the network.
A) The AppTrack module provides enforcement with the ability to block traffic, based on specific applications.
B) The AppTrack module provides control by the routing of traffic, based on the application.
C) The AppTrack module identifies the applications that are present in network traffic.
D) The AppTrack module provides visibility and volumetric reporting of application usage on the network.
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5
You want to deploy vSRX in Amazon Web Services (AWS) virtual private clouds (VPCs). Which two statements are true in this scenario? (Choose two.)
A) The vSRX devices serving as local enforcement points for VPCs can be managed by a centralized Junos Space Network Director instance.
B) MPLS LSPs can be used to connect vSRXs in different VPCs.
C) IPsec tunnels can be used to connect vSRX in different VPCs.
D) The vSRX devices serving as local enforcement points for VPCs can be managed by a centralized Junos Space Security Director instance.
A) The vSRX devices serving as local enforcement points for VPCs can be managed by a centralized Junos Space Network Director instance.
B) MPLS LSPs can be used to connect vSRXs in different VPCs.
C) IPsec tunnels can be used to connect vSRX in different VPCs.
D) The vSRX devices serving as local enforcement points for VPCs can be managed by a centralized Junos Space Security Director instance.
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6
Which statement is true about high availability (HA) chassis clusters for the SRX Series device?
A) Cluster nodes require an upgrade to HA compliant Routing Engines.
B) Cluster nodes must be connected through a Layer 2 switch.
C) There can be active/passive or active/active clusters.
D) HA clusters must use NAT to prevent overlapping subnets between the nodes.
A) Cluster nodes require an upgrade to HA compliant Routing Engines.
B) Cluster nodes must be connected through a Layer 2 switch.
C) There can be active/passive or active/active clusters.
D) HA clusters must use NAT to prevent overlapping subnets between the nodes.
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7
Click the Exhibit button.
Which two statements describe the output shown in the exhibit? (Choose two.)
A) Node 0 is passing traffic for redundancy group 1.
B) Redundancy group 1 experienced an operational failure.
C) Redundancy group 1 was administratively failed over.
D) Node 1 is passing traffic for redundancy group1.

A) Node 0 is passing traffic for redundancy group 1.
B) Redundancy group 1 experienced an operational failure.
C) Redundancy group 1 was administratively failed over.
D) Node 1 is passing traffic for redundancy group1.
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8
Which two statements describe application-layer gateways (ALGs)? (Choose two.)
A) ALGs are designed for specific protocols that require multiple sessions.
B) ALGs are used with protocols that use multiple ports.
C) ALGs can only be configured using Security Director.
D) ALGs are designed for specific protocols that use a single TCP session.
A) ALGs are designed for specific protocols that require multiple sessions.
B) ALGs are used with protocols that use multiple ports.
C) ALGs can only be configured using Security Director.
D) ALGs are designed for specific protocols that use a single TCP session.
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9
Click the Exhibit button.
Referring to the exhibit, you want to deploy Sky ATP with Policy Enforcer to block infected hosts at the access layer. To complete this task, where should you configure the default gateway for the User-1 device?
A) the irb interface on QFX-2
B) the irb interface on QFX-1
C) the interface of QFX-1 that connects to User-1
D) the interface on SRX-1 that connects to QFX-2

A) the irb interface on QFX-2
B) the irb interface on QFX-1
C) the interface of QFX-1 that connects to User-1
D) the interface on SRX-1 that connects to QFX-2
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10
What are two types of attack objects used by IPS on SRX Series devices? (Choose two.)
A) protocol anomaly-based attacks
B) spam-based attacks
C) signature-based attacks
D) DDoS-based attacks
A) protocol anomaly-based attacks
B) spam-based attacks
C) signature-based attacks
D) DDoS-based attacks
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11
What information does JIMS collect from domain event log sources? (Choose two.)
A) For user login events, JIMS collects the username and group membership information.
B) For device login events. JIMS collects the devide IP address and operating system version.
C) For device login events, JIMS collects the device IP address and machine name information.
D) For user login events, JIMS collects the login source IP address and username information.
A) For user login events, JIMS collects the username and group membership information.
B) For device login events. JIMS collects the devide IP address and operating system version.
C) For device login events, JIMS collects the device IP address and machine name information.
D) For user login events, JIMS collects the login source IP address and username information.
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12
What are two elements of a custom IDP/IPS attack object? (Choose two.)
A) the attack signature
B) the severity of the attack
C) the destination zone
D) the exempt rulebase
A) the attack signature
B) the severity of the attack
C) the destination zone
D) the exempt rulebase
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13
Which statement is true about JATP incidents?
A) Incidents have an associated threat number assigned to them.
B) Incidents are sorted by category, followed by severity.
C) Incidents consist of all the events associated with a single threat.
D) Incidents are always automatically mitigated.
A) Incidents have an associated threat number assigned to them.
B) Incidents are sorted by category, followed by severity.
C) Incidents consist of all the events associated with a single threat.
D) Incidents are always automatically mitigated.
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14
Which two statements describe how rules are used with Juniper Secure Analytics? (Choose two.)
A) When a rule is triggered, JSA can respond by sending an e-mail to JSA administrators.
B) Rules are defined on Junos Space Security Director, and then pushed to JSA log collectors.
C) A rule defines matching criteria and actions that should be taken when an events matches the rule.
D) When a rule is triggered, JSA can respond by blocking all traffic from a specific source address.
A) When a rule is triggered, JSA can respond by sending an e-mail to JSA administrators.
B) Rules are defined on Junos Space Security Director, and then pushed to JSA log collectors.
C) A rule defines matching criteria and actions that should be taken when an events matches the rule.
D) When a rule is triggered, JSA can respond by blocking all traffic from a specific source address.
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15
What are two examples of RTOs? (Choose two.)
A) IPsec SA entries
B) session table entries
C) fabric link probes
D) control link heartbeats
A) IPsec SA entries
B) session table entries
C) fabric link probes
D) control link heartbeats
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16
Which three features are parts of Juniper Networks' AppSecure suite? (Choose three.)
A) AppQoE
B) APBR
C) Secure Application Manager
D) AppQoS
E) AppFormix
A) AppQoE
B) APBR
C) Secure Application Manager
D) AppQoS
E) AppFormix
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17
Click the Exhibit button.
Referring to the configuration shown in the exhibit, which two statements are true? (Choose two.)
A) The log is being stored on the local Routing Engine.
B) The log is being sent to a remote server.
C) The syslog is configured for a user facility. The syslog is configured for a user facility.
D) The syslog is configured for an info facility. The syslog is configured for an info

A) The log is being stored on the local Routing Engine.
B) The log is being sent to a remote server.
C) The syslog is configured for a user facility. The syslog is configured for a user facility.
D) The syslog is configured for an info facility. The syslog is configured for an info
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18
You must ensure that all encrypted traffic passing through your SRX device uses strong protocols and ciphers. Which feature should you implement to satisfy this requirement?
A) SSL proxy
B) AppSecure
C) JIMS
D) JATP
A) SSL proxy
B) AppSecure
C) JIMS
D) JATP
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19
You are asked to improve resiliency for individual redundancy groups in an SRX4600 chassis cluster. Which two features would accomplish this task? (Choose two.)
A) IP address monitoring
B) control link recovery
C) interface monitoring
D) dual fabric links
A) IP address monitoring
B) control link recovery
C) interface monitoring
D) dual fabric links
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20
A routing change occurs on an SRX Series device that involves choosing a new egress interface. In this scenario, which statement is true for all affected current sessions?
A) The current session are torn dowm only if the policy-rematch option has been enabled. The current session are torn dowm only if the policy-rematch option has been enabled.
B) The current sessions do not change.
C) The current sessions are torn down and go through first path processing based on the new route.
D) The current sessions might change based on the corresponding security policy.
A) The current session are torn dowm only if the policy-rematch option has been enabled. The current session are torn dowm only if the policy-rematch option has been enabled.
B) The current sessions do not change.
C) The current sessions are torn down and go through first path processing based on the new route.
D) The current sessions might change based on the corresponding security policy.
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21
The DNS ALG performs which three functions? (Choose three.)
A) The DNS ALG performs the IPv4 and IPV6 address transformations.
B) The DNS ALG performs DNS doctoring.
C) The DNS ALG modifies the DNS payload in NAT mode.
D) The DNS ALG performs DNSSEC.
E) The DNS ALG performs DNS load balancing.
A) The DNS ALG performs the IPv4 and IPV6 address transformations.
B) The DNS ALG performs DNS doctoring.
C) The DNS ALG modifies the DNS payload in NAT mode.
D) The DNS ALG performs DNSSEC.
E) The DNS ALG performs DNS load balancing.
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22
Which two settings must be enabled on the hypervisor in a vSRX deployment to ensure proper chassis cluster operation? (Choose two.)
A) Control links must operate in promiscuous mode.
B) Control links must have an MTU of 9000.
C) Fabric links must operate in promiscuous mode.
D) Fabric links must have an MTU of 9000.
A) Control links must operate in promiscuous mode.
B) Control links must have an MTU of 9000.
C) Fabric links must operate in promiscuous mode.
D) Fabric links must have an MTU of 9000.
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23
What is the default timeout period for a TCP session in the session table of a Junos security device?
A) 1 minute
B) 60 minutes
C) 15 minutes
D) 30 minutes
A) 1 minute
B) 60 minutes
C) 15 minutes
D) 30 minutes
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24
What are two management methods for cSRX? (Choose two.)
A) Network Director
B) J-Web
C) CLI
D) Contrail
A) Network Director
B) J-Web
C) CLI
D) Contrail
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25
You want to collect events and flows from third-party vendors. Which solution should you deploy to accomplish this task?
A) Log Director
B) JSA
C) Policy Enforcer
D) Contrail
A) Log Director
B) JSA
C) Policy Enforcer
D) Contrail
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26
When referencing a SSL proxy profile in a security policy, which two statements are correct? (Choose two.)
A) A security policy can reference both a client-protection SSL proxy profile and a server-protection proxy profile.
B) If you apply an SSL proxy profile to a security policy and forget to apply any Layer7 services to the security policy, any encrypted traffic that matches the security policy is not decrypted.
C) A security policy can only reference a client-protection SSL proxy profile or a server-protection SSL proxy profile.
D) If you apply an SSL proxy profile to a security policy and forget to apply any Layer7 services to the security policy, any encrypted traffic that matches the security policy is decrypted.
A) A security policy can reference both a client-protection SSL proxy profile and a server-protection proxy profile.
B) If you apply an SSL proxy profile to a security policy and forget to apply any Layer7 services to the security policy, any encrypted traffic that matches the security policy is not decrypted.
C) A security policy can only reference a client-protection SSL proxy profile or a server-protection SSL proxy profile.
D) If you apply an SSL proxy profile to a security policy and forget to apply any Layer7 services to the security policy, any encrypted traffic that matches the security policy is decrypted.
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27
In an Active/Active chassis cluster deployment, which chassis cluster component is responsible for RG0 traffic?
A) the backup routing engine of the primary node
B) the master routing engine of the secondary node
C) the primary node
D) the secondary node
A) the backup routing engine of the primary node
B) the master routing engine of the secondary node
C) the primary node
D) the secondary node
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28
Click the Exhibit button.
Referring to the exhibit, which statement is true?
A) IDP blocks root users. IDP blocks root users.
B) IDP closes the connection on matched sessions.
C) IDP ignores the connection on matched sessions.
D) IDP blocks all users.

A) IDP blocks root users. IDP blocks root users.
B) IDP closes the connection on matched sessions.
C) IDP ignores the connection on matched sessions.
D) IDP blocks all users.
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29
Your manager asks you to find employees that are watching YouTube during office hours. Which AppSecure component would you configure to accomplish this task?
A) AppQoE
B) AppFW
C) AppTrack
D) AppQoS
A) AppQoE
B) AppFW
C) AppTrack
D) AppQoS
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30
Click the Exhibit button.
The output shown in the exhibit is displayed in which format?
A) syslog
B) sd-syslog
C) binary
D) WELF

A) syslog
B) sd-syslog
C) binary
D) WELF
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31
Which two statements describe JSA? (Choose two.)
A) Security Director must be used to view third-party events rom JSA flow collectors.
B) JSA supports events and flows from Junos devices, including third-party devices.
C) JSA events must be manually imported into Security Directory using an SSH connection.
D) JSA can be used as a log node with Security Director or as a standalone solution.
A) Security Director must be used to view third-party events rom JSA flow collectors.
B) JSA supports events and flows from Junos devices, including third-party devices.
C) JSA events must be manually imported into Security Directory using an SSH connection.
D) JSA can be used as a log node with Security Director or as a standalone solution.
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32
Which two protocols are supported for Sky ATP advanced anti-malware scanning? (Choose two.)
A) POP3
B) MAPI
C) IMAP
D) SMTP
A) POP3
B) MAPI
C) IMAP
D) SMTP
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33
You want to use Sky ATP to protect your network; however, company policy does not allow you to send any files to the cloud. Which Sky ATP feature should you use in this situation?
A) Only use on-premises local Sky ATP server anti-malware file scanning.
B) Only use cloud-based Sky ATP file hash lookups.
C) Only use on-box SRX anti-malware file scanning.
D) Only use cloud-based Sky ATP file blacklists.
A) Only use on-premises local Sky ATP server anti-malware file scanning.
B) Only use cloud-based Sky ATP file hash lookups.
C) Only use on-box SRX anti-malware file scanning.
D) Only use cloud-based Sky ATP file blacklists.
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34
You are asked to enable AppTrack to monitor application traffic from hosts in the User zone destined to hosts in the Internet zone. In this scenario, which statement is true?
A) You must enable the AppTrack feature within the Internet zone configuration.
B) You must enable the AppTrack feature within the ingress interface configuration associated with the Internet zone.
C) You must enable the AppTrack feature within the interface configuration associated with the User zone.
D) You must enable the AppTrack feature within the User zone configuration.
A) You must enable the AppTrack feature within the Internet zone configuration.
B) You must enable the AppTrack feature within the ingress interface configuration associated with the Internet zone.
C) You must enable the AppTrack feature within the interface configuration associated with the User zone.
D) You must enable the AppTrack feature within the User zone configuration.
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35
Which two functions are performed by Juniper Identity Management Service (JIMS)? (Choose two.)
A) JIMS synchronizes Active Directory authentication information between a primary and secondary JIMS server.
B) JIMS forwards Active Directory authentication information to SRX Series client devices.
C) JIMS collects and maintains a database of authentication information from Active Directory domains.
D) JIMS replicates Active Directory authentication information to non-trusted Active Directory domain controllers.
A) JIMS synchronizes Active Directory authentication information between a primary and secondary JIMS server.
B) JIMS forwards Active Directory authentication information to SRX Series client devices.
C) JIMS collects and maintains a database of authentication information from Active Directory domains.
D) JIMS replicates Active Directory authentication information to non-trusted Active Directory domain controllers.
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36
You are deploying the Junos application firewall feature in your network. In this scenario, which two elements are mapped to applications in the application system cache? (Choose two.)
A) destination port
B) source port
C) destination IP address
D) source IP address
A) destination port
B) source port
C) destination IP address
D) source IP address
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37
What are two examples of RTOs? (Choose two.)
A) IPsec SA entries
B) session table entries
C) fabric link probes
D) control link heartbeats
A) IPsec SA entries
B) session table entries
C) fabric link probes
D) control link heartbeats
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38
Click the Exhibit button.
Referring to the SRX Series flow module diagram shown in the exhibit, where is IDP/IPS processed?
A) Forwarding Lookup
B) Services ALGs
C) Screens
D) Security Policy

A) Forwarding Lookup
B) Services ALGs
C) Screens
D) Security Policy
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39
You must configure JSA to accept events from an unsupported third-party log source. In this scenario, what should you do?
A) Separate event collection and flow collection on separate collectors.
B) Configure an RPM for a third-party device service module.
C) Configure JSA to silently discard unsupported log types.
D) Configure a universal device service module.
A) Separate event collection and flow collection on separate collectors.
B) Configure an RPM for a third-party device service module.
C) Configure JSA to silently discard unsupported log types.
D) Configure a universal device service module.
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40
Click the Exhibit button.
Referring to the exhibit, which two devices are considered to be part of the secure fabric site with Policy Enforcer? (Choose two.)
A) Server-2
B) SRX-1
C) Server-1
D) QFX-1

A) Server-2
B) SRX-1
C) Server-1
D) QFX-1
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41
Which three features are parts of Juniper Networks' AppSecure suite? (Choose three.)
A) AppQoE
B) APBR
C) Secure Application Manager
D) AppQoS
E) AppFormix
A) AppQoE
B) APBR
C) Secure Application Manager
D) AppQoS
E) AppFormix
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42
Click the Exhibit button.
The output shown in the exhibit is displayed in which format?
A) syslog
B) WELF
C) binary
D) sd-syslog

A) syslog
B) WELF
C) binary
D) sd-syslog
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43
Click the Exhibit button.
You are configuring an SRX chassis cluster with the node-specific hostname and management address. Referring to the exhibit, which configuration completes this requirement?
A)
B)
C)
D)

A)

B)

C)

D)

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44
Which two statements are true about virtualized SRX Series devices? (Choose two.)
A) vSRX cannot be deployed in transparent mode.
B) cSRX can be deployed in routed mode.
C) cSRX cannot be deployed in routed mode.
D) vSRX can be deployed in transparent mode.
A) vSRX cannot be deployed in transparent mode.
B) cSRX can be deployed in routed mode.
C) cSRX cannot be deployed in routed mode.
D) vSRX can be deployed in transparent mode.
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45
The AppQoE module of AppSecure provides which function?
A) The AppQoE module provides application-based routing.
B) The AppQoE module prioritizes important applications.
C) The AppQoE module provides routing, based on network conditions.
D) The AppQoE module blocks access to risky applications.
A) The AppQoE module provides application-based routing.
B) The AppQoE module prioritizes important applications.
C) The AppQoE module provides routing, based on network conditions.
D) The AppQoE module blocks access to risky applications.
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46
Which statement is true about JATP incidents?
A) Incidents have an associated threat number assigned to them.
B) Incidents are sorted by category, followed by severity.
C) Incidents consist of all the events associated with a single threat.
D) Incidents are always automatically mitigated.
A) Incidents have an associated threat number assigned to them.
B) Incidents are sorted by category, followed by severity.
C) Incidents consist of all the events associated with a single threat.
D) Incidents are always automatically mitigated.
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47
Which two solutions provide a sandboxing feature for finding zero-day malware threats? (Choose two.)
A) Sky ATP
B) UTM
C) JATP
D) IPS
A) Sky ATP
B) UTM
C) JATP
D) IPS
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48
Which two statements describe client-protection SSL proxy on an SRX Series device? (Choose two.)
A) The server-protection SSL proxy intercepts the server certificate.
B) The server-protection SSL proxy is also known as SSL reverse proxy.
C) The server-protection SSL proxy forwards the server certificate after modification.
D) The server-protection SSL proxy acts as the server from the client's perspective.
A) The server-protection SSL proxy intercepts the server certificate.
B) The server-protection SSL proxy is also known as SSL reverse proxy.
C) The server-protection SSL proxy forwards the server certificate after modification.
D) The server-protection SSL proxy acts as the server from the client's perspective.
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49
You are configuring a client-protection SSL proxy profile. Which statement is correct in this scenario?
A) A server certificate is not used but a root certificate authority is used.
B) A server certificate and root certificate authority are not used.
C) A server certificate is used but a root certificate authority is not used.
D) A server certificate and a root certificate authority are both used.
A) A server certificate is not used but a root certificate authority is used.
B) A server certificate and root certificate authority are not used.
C) A server certificate is used but a root certificate authority is not used.
D) A server certificate and a root certificate authority are both used.
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50
Your network uses a remote e-mail server that is used to send and receive e-mails for your users. In this scenario, what should you do to protect users from receiving malicious files through e-mail?
A) Deploy Sky ATP IMAP e-mail protection
B) Deploy Sky ATP MAPI e-mail protection
C) Deploy Sky ATP SMTP e-mail protection
D) Deploy Sky ATP POP3 e-mail protection
A) Deploy Sky ATP IMAP e-mail protection
B) Deploy Sky ATP MAPI e-mail protection
C) Deploy Sky ATP SMTP e-mail protection
D) Deploy Sky ATP POP3 e-mail protection
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51
What are two elements of a custom IDP/IPS attack object? (Choose two.)
A) the attack signature
B) the severity of the attack
C) the destination zone
D) the exempt rulebase
A) the attack signature
B) the severity of the attack
C) the destination zone
D) the exempt rulebase
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52
Which statement is true about high availability (HA) chassis clusters for the SRX Series device?
A) Cluster nodes require an upgrade to HA compliant Routing Engines.
B) Cluster nodes must be connected through a Layer 2 switch.
C) There can be active/passive or active/active clusters.
D) HA clusters must use NAT to prevent overlapping subnets between the nodes.
A) Cluster nodes require an upgrade to HA compliant Routing Engines.
B) Cluster nodes must be connected through a Layer 2 switch.
C) There can be active/passive or active/active clusters.
D) HA clusters must use NAT to prevent overlapping subnets between the nodes.
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53
Which statement describes the AppTrack module in AppSecure?
A) The AppTrack module provides enforcement with the ability to block traffic, based on specific applications.
B) The AppTrack module provides control by the routing of traffic, based on the application.
C) The AppTrack module identifies the applications that are present in network traffic.
D) The AppTrack module provides visibility and volumetric reporting of application usage on the network.
A) The AppTrack module provides enforcement with the ability to block traffic, based on specific applications.
B) The AppTrack module provides control by the routing of traffic, based on the application.
C) The AppTrack module identifies the applications that are present in network traffic.
D) The AppTrack module provides visibility and volumetric reporting of application usage on the network.
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54
You want to deploy vSRX in Amazon Web Services (AWS) virtual private clouds (VPCs). Which two statements are true in this scenario? (Choose two.)
A) The vSRX devices serving as local enforcement points for VPCs can be managed by a centralized Junos Space Network Director instance.
B) MPLS LSPs can be used to connect vSRXs in different VPCs.
C) IPsec tunnels can be used to connect vSRX in different VPCs.
D) The vSRX devices serving as local enforcement points for VPCs can be managed by a centralized Junos Space Security Director instance.
A) The vSRX devices serving as local enforcement points for VPCs can be managed by a centralized Junos Space Network Director instance.
B) MPLS LSPs can be used to connect vSRXs in different VPCs.
C) IPsec tunnels can be used to connect vSRX in different VPCs.
D) The vSRX devices serving as local enforcement points for VPCs can be managed by a centralized Junos Space Security Director instance.
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55
You must ensure that all encrypted traffic passing through your SRX device uses strong protocols and ciphers. Which feature should you implement to satisfy this requirement?
A) SSL proxy
B) AppSecure
C) JIMS
D) JATP
A) SSL proxy
B) AppSecure
C) JIMS
D) JATP
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56
Click the Exhibit button.
You need to have the JATP solution analyzer .jar, .xls, and .doc files. Referring to the exhibit, which two file types must be selected to accomplish this task? (Choose two.)
A) Java
B) library
C) document
D) executable

A) Java
B) library
C) document
D) executable
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57
You must configure JSA to accept events from an unsupported third-party log source. In this scenario, what should you do?
A) Separate event collection and flow collection on separate collectors.
B) Configure an RPM for a third-party device service module.
C) Configure JSA to silently discard unsupported log types.
D) Configure a universal device service module.
A) Separate event collection and flow collection on separate collectors.
B) Configure an RPM for a third-party device service module.
C) Configure JSA to silently discard unsupported log types.
D) Configure a universal device service module.
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58
Which two statements describe application-layer gateways (ALGs)? (Choose two.)
A) ALGs are designed for specific protocols that require multiple sessions.
B) ALGs are used with protocols that use multiple ports.
C) ALGs can only be configured using Security Director.
D) ALGs are designed for specific protocols that use a single TCP session.
A) ALGs are designed for specific protocols that require multiple sessions.
B) ALGs are used with protocols that use multiple ports.
C) ALGs can only be configured using Security Director.
D) ALGs are designed for specific protocols that use a single TCP session.
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59
What are two types of attack objects used by IPS on SRX Series devices? (Choose two.)
A) protocol anomaly-based attacks
B) spam-based attacks
C) signature-based attacks
D) DDoS-based attacks
A) protocol anomaly-based attacks
B) spam-based attacks
C) signature-based attacks
D) DDoS-based attacks
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60
Click the Exhibit button.
Which two statements describe the output shown in the exhibit? (Choose two.)
A) Node 0 is passing traffic for redundancy group 1.
B) Redundancy group 1 experienced an operational failure.
C) Redundancy group 1 was administratively failed over.
D) Node 1 is passing traffic for redundancy group1.

A) Node 0 is passing traffic for redundancy group 1.
B) Redundancy group 1 experienced an operational failure.
C) Redundancy group 1 was administratively failed over.
D) Node 1 is passing traffic for redundancy group1.
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61
Click the Exhibit button.
Referring to the exhibit, which statement is true?
A) Hosts are always able to communicate through the SRX Series device no matter the threat score assigned to them on the infected host feed.
B) Hosts are unable to communicate through the SRX Series device after being placed on the infected host feed with a high enough threat score.
C) Malicious HTTP file downloads are never blocked.
D) Malicious HTTP file downloads are always blocked.

A) Hosts are always able to communicate through the SRX Series device no matter the threat score assigned to them on the infected host feed.
B) Hosts are unable to communicate through the SRX Series device after being placed on the infected host feed with a high enough threat score.
C) Malicious HTTP file downloads are never blocked.
D) Malicious HTTP file downloads are always blocked.
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62
What is the default timeout period for a TCP session in the session table of a Junos security device?
A) 1 minute
B) 60 minutes
C) 15 minutes
D) 30 minutes
A) 1 minute
B) 60 minutes
C) 15 minutes
D) 30 minutes
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63
Which feature is used when you want to permit traffic on an SRX Series device only at specific times?
A) scheduler
B) pass-through authentication
C) ALGs
D) counters
A) scheduler
B) pass-through authentication
C) ALGs
D) counters
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64
Click the Exhibit button.
Referring to the exhibit, which statement is true?
A) IDP blocks root users. IDP blocks root users.
B) IDP closes the connection on matched sessions.
C) IDP ignores the connection on matched sessions.
D) IDP blocks all users.

A) IDP blocks root users. IDP blocks root users.
B) IDP closes the connection on matched sessions.
C) IDP ignores the connection on matched sessions.
D) IDP blocks all users.
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65
How many nodes are configurable in a chassis cluster using SRX Series devices?
A) 2
B) 4
C) 6
D) 8
A) 2
B) 4
C) 6
D) 8
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66
When referencing a SSL proxy profile in a security policy, which two statements are correct? (Choose two.)
A) A security policy can reference both a client-protection SSL proxy profile and a server-protection proxy profile.
B) If you apply an SSL proxy profile to a security policy and forget to apply any Layer7 services to the security policy, any encrypted traffic that matches the security policy is not decrypted.
C) A security policy can only reference a client-protection SSL proxy profile or a server-protection SSL proxy profile.
D) If you apply an SSL proxy profile to a security policy and forget to apply any Layer7 services to the security policy, any encrypted traffic that matches the security policy is decrypted.
A) A security policy can reference both a client-protection SSL proxy profile and a server-protection proxy profile.
B) If you apply an SSL proxy profile to a security policy and forget to apply any Layer7 services to the security policy, any encrypted traffic that matches the security policy is not decrypted.
C) A security policy can only reference a client-protection SSL proxy profile or a server-protection SSL proxy profile.
D) If you apply an SSL proxy profile to a security policy and forget to apply any Layer7 services to the security policy, any encrypted traffic that matches the security policy is decrypted.
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67
Click the Exhibit button.
You have implemented SSL proxy client protection. After implementing this feature, your users are complaining about the warning message shown in the exhibit. Which action must you perform to eliminate the warning message?
A) Configure the SRX Series device as a trusted site in the client Web browsers.
B) Regenerate the SRX self-signed CA certificate and include the correct organization name.
C) Import the SRX self-signed CA certificate into the client Web browsers.
D) Import the SRX self-signed CA certificate into the SRX certificate public store.

A) Configure the SRX Series device as a trusted site in the client Web browsers.
B) Regenerate the SRX self-signed CA certificate and include the correct organization name.
C) Import the SRX self-signed CA certificate into the client Web browsers.
D) Import the SRX self-signed CA certificate into the SRX certificate public store.
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68
What are two management methods for cSRX? (Choose two.)
A) Network Director
B) J-Web
C) CLI
D) Contrail
A) Network Director
B) J-Web
C) CLI
D) Contrail
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69
After a software upgrade on an SRX5800 chassis cluster, you notice that both node0 and node1 are in the primary state, when node1 should be secondary. All control and fabric links are operating normally. In this scenario, which step must you perform to recover the cluster?
A) Execute the request system reboot command on node1. Execute the request system reboot command on node1.
B) Execute the request system software rollback command on node0. request system software rollback command on node0.
C) Execute the request system software add command on node1. request system software add
D) Execute the request system reboot command on node0.
A) Execute the request system reboot command on node1. Execute the request system reboot command on node1.
B) Execute the request system software rollback command on node0. request system software rollback command on node0.
C) Execute the request system software add command on node1. request system software add
D) Execute the request system reboot command on node0.
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70
You have deployed JSA and you need to view events and network activity that match rule criteria. You must view this data using a single interface. Which JSA feature should you use in this scenario?
A) Log Collector
B) Assets
C) Network Activity
D) Offense Manager
A) Log Collector
B) Assets
C) Network Activity
D) Offense Manager
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71
You are using the JIMS Administrator user interface to add multiple SRX client devices. You must share common configuration attributes across the SRX clients without having to re-enter those attributes for each SRX client instance. Which JIMS Administrator feature would be used to accomplish this task?
A) JIMS automation
B) JIMS templates
C) JIMS client profiles
D) JIMS client defaults
A) JIMS automation
B) JIMS templates
C) JIMS client profiles
D) JIMS client defaults
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72
You must block the lateral spread of Remote Administration Tools (RATs) that use SMB to propagate within the network, using the JATP solution. Which action would accomplish this task?
A) Configure a new anti-virus configuration rule.
B) Configure whitelist rules
C) Configure YARA rules.
D) Configure the SAML settings.
A) Configure a new anti-virus configuration rule.
B) Configure whitelist rules
C) Configure YARA rules.
D) Configure the SAML settings.
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73
What is the maximum number of supported interfaces on a vSRX hosted in a VMware environment?
A) 4
B) 10
C) 3
D) 12
A) 4
B) 10
C) 3
D) 12
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74
You are asked to enable AppTrack to monitor application traffic from hosts in the User zone destined to hosts in the Internet zone. In this scenario, which statement is true?
A) You must enable the AppTrack feature within the Internet zone configuration.
B) You must enable the AppTrack feature within the ingress interface configuration associated with the Internet zone.
C) You must enable the AppTrack feature within the interface configuration associated with the User zone.
D) You must enable the AppTrack feature within the User zone configuration.
A) You must enable the AppTrack feature within the Internet zone configuration.
B) You must enable the AppTrack feature within the ingress interface configuration associated with the Internet zone.
C) You must enable the AppTrack feature within the interface configuration associated with the User zone.
D) You must enable the AppTrack feature within the User zone configuration.
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75
You must fine tune an IPS security policy to eliminate false positives. You want to create exemptions to the normal traffic examination for specific traffic. Which two parameters are required to accomplish this task? (Choose two.)
A) source IP address
B) destination IP address
C) destination port
D) source port
A) source IP address
B) destination IP address
C) destination port
D) source port
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76
The DNS ALG performs which three functions? (Choose three.)
A) The DNS ALG performs the IPv4 and IPv6 address transformations.
B) The DNS ALG performs DNS doctoring.
C) The DNS ALG modifies the DNS payload in NAT mode.
D) The DNS ALG performs DNSSEC.
E) The DNS ALG performs DNS load balancing.
A) The DNS ALG performs the IPv4 and IPv6 address transformations.
B) The DNS ALG performs DNS doctoring.
C) The DNS ALG modifies the DNS payload in NAT mode.
D) The DNS ALG performs DNSSEC.
E) The DNS ALG performs DNS load balancing.
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77
Which three statements are true about the difference between cSRX-based virtual security deployments and vSRX-based virtual security deployments? (Choose three.)
A) vSRX provides Layer 2 to Layer 7 secure services and cSRX provides Layer 4 to Layer 7 secure services.
B) cSRX requires less storage and memory space for a given deployment than vSRX-based solutions.
C) cSRX-based solutions are more scalable than vSRX-based solutions.
D) vSRX and cSRX both provide Layer 2 to Layer 7 secure services.
E) vSRX provides faster deployment time and faster reboots compared to cSRX.
A) vSRX provides Layer 2 to Layer 7 secure services and cSRX provides Layer 4 to Layer 7 secure services.
B) cSRX requires less storage and memory space for a given deployment than vSRX-based solutions.
C) cSRX-based solutions are more scalable than vSRX-based solutions.
D) vSRX and cSRX both provide Layer 2 to Layer 7 secure services.
E) vSRX provides faster deployment time and faster reboots compared to cSRX.
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78
Click the Exhibit button.
You have configured the scheduler shown in the exhibit to prevent users from accessing certain websites from 1:00 PM to 3:00 PM Monday through Friday. This policy will remain in place until further notice. When testing the policy, you determine that the websites are still accessible during the restricted times. In this scenario, which two actions should you perform to solve the problem? (Choose two.)
A) Add the saturday exclude parameter and the sunday exclude parameter to ensure weekends are excluded from the schedule. Add the saturday exclude parameter and the sunday exclude parameter to ensure weekends are excluded from the schedule.
B) Use the 13:00 parameter and the 15:00 parameter when specifying the time. Use the 13:00 15:00 parameter when specifying the time.
C) Use the start-date parameter to specify the date for each Monday and use the stop-date parameter to specify the date for each Friday. start-date parameter to specify the date for each Monday and use the stop-date parameter to specify the date for each Friday.
D) Use the PM parameter when specifying the time in the schedule. PM parameter when specifying the time in the schedule.

A) Add the saturday exclude parameter and the sunday exclude parameter to ensure weekends are excluded from the schedule. Add the saturday exclude parameter and the sunday exclude parameter to ensure weekends are excluded from the schedule.
B) Use the 13:00 parameter and the 15:00 parameter when specifying the time. Use the 13:00 15:00 parameter when specifying the time.
C) Use the start-date parameter to specify the date for each Monday and use the stop-date parameter to specify the date for each Friday. start-date parameter to specify the date for each Monday and use the stop-date parameter to specify the date for each Friday.
D) Use the PM parameter when specifying the time in the schedule. PM parameter when specifying the time in the schedule.
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79
You want to collect events and flows from third-party vendors. Which solution should you deploy to accomplish this task?
A) Log Director
B) JSA
C) Policy Enforcer
D) Contrail
A) Log Director
B) JSA
C) Policy Enforcer
D) Contrail
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80
Click the Exhibit button.
Referring to the SRX Series flow module diagram shown in the exhibit, where is IDP/IPS processed?
A) Forwarding Lookup
B) Services ALGs
C) Screens
D) Security Policy

A) Forwarding Lookup
B) Services ALGs
C) Screens
D) Security Policy
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