Deck 2: ITIL Foundation

Question 1

Which of the following are sources of best practice? 1. Academic research
2) Internal experience
3) Industry practices

A) All of the above
B) 1 and 3 only
C) 1 and 2 only
D) 2 and 3 only

Answer 1

All of the above

Question 2

In which core ITIL publication can you find detailed descriptions of service catalogue management, information security management, and supplier management?

A) Service strategy
B) Service design
C) Service transition
D) Service operation

Answer 2

Service design

Question 3

Which one of the following is NOT an aim of the change management process?

A) To ensure the impact of changes are understood
B) To ensure that changes are recorded and evaluated
C) To ensure that all changes to configuration items (CIs) are recorded in the configuration management system (CMS)
D) To deliver and manage IT services at agreed levels to business users

Answer 3

To deliver and manage IT services at agreed levels to business users

Question 4

Which of the following provide value to the business from service strategy?
1) Enabling the service provider to have a clear understanding of what levels of service will make their customers successful
2) Enabling the service provider to respond quickly and effectively to changes in the business environment
3) Support the creation of a portfolio of quantified services

A) All of the above
B) 1 and 3 only
C) 1 and 2 only
D) 2 and 3 only

Question 5

Which of the following would be examined by a major problem review?
1) Things that were done correctly
2) Things that were done incorrectly
3) How to prevent recurrence
4) What could be done better in the future

A) 1 only
B) 2 and 3 only
C) 1, 2 and 4 only
D) All of the above

Question 6

Which of the following statements about service asset and configuration management is/are CORRECT? 1. A configuration item (CI) can exits as part of any numbers other CIs at the same time
2) Choosing which CIs to record will depend on the level of control an organization wishes to exert.

A) 1 only
B) 2 only
C) Both of the above
D) Neither of the above

Question 7

Which of the following is the BEST reason for categorizing incidents?

A) To establish trends for use in problem management and other IT service management (ITSM) activities
B) To ensure service levels are met and breaches of agreements are avoided
C) To enable the incident management database to be partitioned for greater efficiency
D) To identify whether the user is entitled to log an incident for this particular service

Question 8

Which one of the following is the purpose of service level management?

A) To carry out the service operations activities needed to support current IT services
B) To ensure that sufficient capacity is provided to deliver the agreed performance of services
C) To create and populate a service catalogue
D) To ensure that an agreed level of IT service is provided for all current IT services

Question 9

Which of these should a change model include? 1. The steps that should be taken to handle the change
2) Responsibilities; who should do what, including escalation
3) Timescales and thresholds for completion of the actions
4) Complaints procedures

A) 1, 2 and 3 only
B) All of the above
C) 1 and 3 only
D) 2 and 4 only

Question 10

What is a RACI model used for?

A) Performance analysis
B) Recording configuration items
C) Monitoring services
D) Defining roles and responsibilities

Question 11

Which of the following CANNOT be provided by a tool?

A) Knowledge
B) Information
C) Wisdom
D) Data

Question 12

The remediation plan should be evaluated at what point in the change lifecycle?

A) Before the change is approved
B) Immediately after the change has failed and needs to be backed out
C) After implementation but before the post implementation review
D) After the post implementation review has identified a problem with the change

Question 13

Which one of the following activities does application management perform?

A) Defining where the vendor of an application should be located
B) Ensuring that the required functionality is available to achieve the required business outcome
C) Deciding who the vendor of the storage devices will be
D) Agreeing the service levels for the service supported by the application

Question 14

A known error has been created after diagnosis of a problem was complete but before a workaround has been found. Is this a valid approach?

A) Yes: for information purposes, a known error record can be created at any time it is prudent to do so
B) No: the Known Error should be created before the problem is logged
C) No: a known error record is created when the original incident is raised
D) No: a known error record should be created with the next release of the service

Question 15

Which one of the following is NOT an objective of problem management?

A) Minimizing the impact of incidents that cannot be prevented
B) Preventing problems and resulting incidents from happening
C) Eliminating recurring incidents
D) Restoring normal service operation as quickly as possible

Question 16

Access management is closely related to which other process?

A) Capacity management only
B) 3rd line support
C) Information security management
D) Change management

Question 17

Which of the following statements MOST correctly identifies the scope of design coordination activities?

A) Only changes that introduce new services
B) It is mandatory that all changes are subject to design coordination activity
C) Only changes to business critical systems
D) Any change that the organization believes could benefit

Question 18

What is the PRIMARY process for strategic communication with the service provider's customers?

A) Service catalogue management
B) Service portfolio management
C) Service desk
D) Business relationship management

Question 19

Which one of the following is the BEST description of a relationship in service asset and configuration management?

A) Describes the topography of the hardware
B) Describes how the configuration items (CIs) work together to deliver the services
C) Defines which software should be installed on a particular piece of hardware
D) Defines how version numbers should be used in a release

Question 20

What are customers of IT services who work in the same organization as the service provider known as?

A) Strategic customers
B) External customers
C) Valued customers
D) Internal customers

Question 21

Which process is involved in monitoring an IT service and detecting when the performance drops below acceptable limits?

A) Service asset and configuration management
B) Event management
C) Service catalogue management
D) Problem management

Question 22

What is the BEST description of the purpose of the service operation stage of the service lifecycle?

A) To decide how IT will engage with suppliers during the service lifecycle
B) To proactively prevent all outages to IT services
C) To design and build processes that will meet business needs
D) To deliver and manage IT services at agreed levels to business users and customers

Question 23

What is the primary focus of the business management?

A) Management, control and prediction of the performance, utilization and capacity of individual elements of IT technology
B) Review of all capacity supplier agreements and underpinning contracts with supplier management
C) Management, control and prediction of the end-to-end performance and capacity of the live, operational IT services
D) Future business requirements for IT services are quantified, designed, planned and implemented in a timely fashion

Question 24

In which of the following should details of a workaround be documented?

A) The service level agreement (SLA)
B) The problem record
C) The availability management information system
D) The IT service plan

Question 25

Which one of the following is NOT a responsibility of the service transition stage of the service lifecycle?

A) To ensure that a service can be managed and operated in accordance with constraints specified during design
B) To design and develop capabilities for service management
C) To provide good-quality knowledge and information about services
D) To plan the resources required to manage a release

Question 26

Which of the following BEST describes technical management?

A) A function responsibilities for facilities management and building control systems
B) A function that provides hardware repair services for technology involved in the delivery of service to customers
C) Senior managers responsibilities for all staff within the technical support function
D) A function that includes providing technical expertise and overall management of the IT infrastructure

Question 27

In terms of adding value to the business, which one of the following describes service operation s contribution?

A) The cost of the service is designed, predicted and validated
B) Measures for optimization are identified
C) Service value is modeled
D) Service value is visible to customers

Question 28

Which one of the following is it the responsibility of supplier management to negotiate and agree?

A) Service level agreements (SLAs)
B) Third-party contracts
C) The service portfolio
D) Operational level agreements (OLAs)

Question 29

Which stage of the service lifecycle is MOST concerned with defining policies and objectives?

A) Service design
B) Service transition
C) Continual service improvement
D) Service operation

Question 30

Which one of the following statements BEST describes a definitive media library (DML)?

A) A secure location where definitive hardware spares are held
B) A secure library where definitive authorized versions of all media configuration items (CIs) are stored and protected
C) A database that contains definitions of all media CIs
D) A secure library where definitive authorized versions of all software and back-ups are stored and protected

Question 31

Which one of the following is NOT a characteristic of a process?

A) It is measureable
B) It delivers specific results
C) It responds to specific events
D) It structure an organization

Question 32

Which areas of service management can benefit from automation? 1. Design and modeling
2) Reporting
3) Pattern recognition and analysis
4) Detection and monitoring

A) 1, 2 and 3 only
B) 1, 3 and 4 only
C) 2, 3 and 4 only
D) All of the above

Question 33

Which of the following is not a service desk type recognized in the service operation volume of ITIL?

A) Local
B) Centralized
C) Outsourced
D) Virtual

Question 34

Which process has the purpose to ensure that, by managing the risks could seriously affect IT services, the IT service provider can always provide minimum agreed business-related service levels?

A) Change management
B) IT service continuity management
C) Financial management for IT services
D) Service catalog management

Question 35

Which of the following are types of service defined in ITIL? 1. Enabling
2) Core
3) Enhancing
4) Computer

A) 1, 3 and 4 only
B) 2, 3 and 4 only
C) 1, 2 and 4 only
D) 1, 2 and 3 only

Question 36

Which one of the following is the BEST definition of reliability?

A) The availability of a service or component
B) The level of risk that affects a service or process
C) How long a service or configuration item (CI) can perform its function without failing
D) How quickly a service or component can be restored to normal working order

Question 37

Which one of the following are the two primary elements that create value for customers?

A) Value on investment (VOI) and return on investment (ROI)
B) Customer and user satisfaction
C) Service requirements and warranty
D) Resources and capabilities

Question 38

Which one of the following do major incidents require?

A) Separate procedures
B) Less urgency
C) Longer timescales
D) Less documentation

Question 39

Which one of the following is the BEST description of a service request?

A) A request from a user for information, advice or for a standard change
B) Anything that the customer wants and is prepared to pay for
C) Any request or demand that is entered by a user via a self-help web-based interface
D) Any request for change (RFC) that is low-risk and which can be approved by the change manager without a change advisory board (CAB) meeting

Question 40

Which of the following are managed by facilities management? 1. Hardware within a data centre or computer room
2) Applications
3) Power and cooling equipment
4) Recovery sites

A) 1, 2 and 3 only
B) All of the above
C) 1, 3 and 4 only
D) 1 and 3 only

Question 41

Implementation of IT1L service management requires the preparation and planning of the effective and efficient use of "the four Ps." What are these four Ps?

A) People, process, partners, performance
B) Performance, process, products, problems
C) People, process, products, partners
D) People, products, perspective, partners

Question 42

Which processes are responsible for the regular review of underpinning contracts?

A) Supplier management and service level management
B) Supplier management and change management
C) Availability management and service level management
D) Supplier management and availability management

Question 43

Which one of the following activities is NOT part of the Deming Cycle?

A) Act
B) Plan
C) Do
D) Co-ordinate

Question 44

Which one of the following is an objective of service transition?

A) To negotiate service levels for new services
B) To ensure that service changes create the expected business value
C) To minimize the impact of service outages on day-to-day business activities
D) To plan and manage entries in the service catalogue

Question 45

Which one of the following is the BEST description of the purpose of the service operation stage of the service lifecycle?

A) To decide how IT will engage with suppliers during the service lifecycle
B) To proactively prevent all outages to IT services
C) To design and build processes which will meet business needs
D) To deliver and manage IT services at agreed levels to business users and customers

Question 46

Which of the following availability management activities is/are considered to be proactive as opposed to reactive? 1. Monitoring system availability
2) Designing availability into a proposed solution

A) None of the above
B) Both of the above
C) 1 only
D) 2 only

Question 47

In which of the following areas would ITIL complementary guidance provide assistance? 1. Adapting best practice for specific industry sectors
2) Integrating ITIL with other operating models

A) Both of the above
B) Neither of the above
C) Option 1 only
D) Option 2 only

Question 48

Which one of the following statements is CORRECT?

A) The configuration management system is part of the known error database
B) The service knowledge management system is part of the configuration management system
C) The configuration management system is part of the service knowledge management system
D) The configuration management system is part of the configuration management database

Question 49

Which one of the following is the BEST description of a major incident?

A) An incident which is so complex that it requires root cause analysis before a workaround can be found
B) An incident which requires a large number of people to resolve
C) An incident logged by a senior manager
D) An incident which has a high priority or a high impact on the business

Question 50

Which one of the following is the BEST description of a service level agreement (SLA)?

A) The part of a contract that specifies the responsibilities of each party
B) An agreement between the service provider and an internal organization
C) An agreement between a service provider and an external supplier
D) An agreement between the service provider and their customer

Question 51

Which one of the following is an objective of release and deployment management?

A) To standardize methods and procedures used for efficient and prompt handling of all changes
B) To ensure all changes to service assets and configuration items (CIs) are recorded in the configuration management system (CMS)
C) To ensure that the overall business risk of change is optimized
D) To define and agree release and deployment plans with customers and stakeholders

Question 52

Which one of the following is NOT the responsibility of service catalogue management?

A) Ensuring that information in the service catalogue is accurate
B) Ensuring that service level agreements are maintained
C) Ensuring that information in the service catalogue is consistent with information in the service portfolio
D) Ensuring that all operational services are recorded in the service catalogue

Question 53

Which one of the following generates demand for services?

A) Infrastructure trends
B) Patterns of business activity (PBA)
C) Cost of providing support
D) Service level agreements (SLA)

Question 54

Which of the following should IT service continuity strategy be based on? 1. Design of the service metrics
2) Business continuity strategy
3) Business impact analysis (BIA)
4) Risk assessment

A) 1, 2 and 4 only
B) 1, 2 and 3 only
C) 2, 3 and 4 only
D) 1, 3 and 4 only

Question 55

Which one of the following is the BEST definition of an event?

A) Any change of state that has significance for the management of a configuration item (CI) or IT service
B) An unplanned interruption to an IT service or a reduction in the quality of an IT service
C) The unknown cause of one or more incidents that have an impact on an IT service
D) Reducing or eliminating the cause of an incident or problem

Question 56

Which one of the following would NOT involve event management?

A) Intrusion detection
B) Recording and monitoring environmental conditions in the data centre
C) Recording service desk staff absence
D) Monitoring the status of configuration items

Question 57

What is the BEST description of an operational level agreement (OLA)?

A) An agreement between the service provider and another part of the same organization
B) An agreement between the service provider and an external organization
C) A document that describes to a customer how services will be operated on a day-to-day basis
D) A document that describes business services to operational staff

Question 58

The multi-level SLA' is a three-layer structure. Which one of the following layers is NOT part of this type of SLA?

A) Customer level
B) Service level
C) Corporate level
D) Configuration level

Question 59

Which of the following is an objective/are objectives of the service strategy stage of the service lifecycle? 1. Providing an understanding of what strategy is
2) Ensuring a working relationship between the customer and service provider
3) Defining how value is created

A) 1 only
B) 2 only
C) 3 only
D) All of the above

Question 60

Which process is responsible for controlling, recording and reporting on the relationships between components of the IT infrastructure?

A) Service level management
B) Change management
C) Incident management
D) Service asset and configuration management

Question 61

Which of the following identifies the purpose of design coordination?

A) Provide a single point of control for all activities and processes within the service design stage of the lifecycle
B) Ensuring all service designs have availability designed into them
C) Designing of all the links between every service design process and all other processes in the service lifecycle
D) Control of all supplier relationships from design right through to the production environment

Question 62

Looking for ways to improve process efficiency and cost effectiveness is a purpose of which part of the service lifecycle?

A) Service operation
B) Service transition
C) Continual service improvement
D) Service strategy

Question 63

Which of the following activities are performed by a desk? 1. Logging details of incidents and service requests
2) Providing first-line investigation and diagnosis
3) Restoring service
4) Implementing all standard changes

A) All of the above
B) 1, 2 and 3 only
C) 2 and 4 only
D) 3 and 4 only

Question 64

From the perspective of the service provider, who is the person or group that agrees their service targets?

A) The user
B) The customer
C) The supplier
D) The administrator

Question 65

Which process has the following objective, 'Produce service design packages (SDPs) based on service charters and change requests'?

A) Service transition planning and support
B) Design coordination
C) Service level management
D) Change management

Question 66

Which one of the following activities would be performed by access management?

A) Providing physical security for staff at data centers and other buildings
B) Managing access to computer rooms and other secure locations
C) Managing access to the service desk
D) Managing the rights to use a service or group of services

Question 67

Which of the following are within the scope of service asset and configuration management? 1. Identification of configuration items (CIs)
2) Recording relationships between CIs
3) Recording and control of virtual CIs
4) Approving finance for the purchase of software to support service asset and configuration management

A) 1, 2 and 3 only
B) All of the above
C) 1, 2 and 4 only
D) 3 and 4 only

Question 68

Which one of the following is the BEST description of a service-based service level agreement (SLA)?

A) An agreement with an individual customer group, covering all the services that they use
B) An agreement that covers one service for a single customer
C) An agreement that covers service specific issues in a multi-level SLA structure
D) An agreement that covers one service for all customers of that service

Question 69

Which process would maintain policies, standards and models for service transition activities and processes?

A) Change management
B) Capacity management
C) Service transition planning and support
D) Release management

Question 70

What is the act of transforming resources and capabilities into valuable service better known as?

A) Service management
B) Incident management
C) Resource management
D) Service support

Question 71

Which of the following processes contributes MOST to quantifying the financial value of IT services to the business?

A) Service level management
B) Financial management
C) Demand management
D) Risk management

Question 72

Which stage of the continual service improvement (CSI) approach is BEST described by the phrase 'Understand and agree on the priorities for improvement based on a deeper development of the principles defined in the vision'?

A) Where are we now?
B) Where do we want to be?
C) How do we get there?
D) Did we get there?

Question 73

Which of the following activities would be performed by a process manager? 1. Monitoring and reporting on process performance
2) Identifying improvement opportunities
3) Appointing people to required roles

A) All of the above
B) 1 and 3 only
C) 1 and 2 only
D) 2 and 3 only

Question 74

Which of the following identifies the purpose of service transition planning and support?

A) Provide overall planning for service transitions and co-ordinate the resources they require
B) Ensure that all service transitions are properly authorized
C) Provide the resources to allow all infrastructure elements of a service transition to be recorded and tracked
D) To define testing scripts to ensure service transitions are unlikely to ever fail

Question 75

Which role is accountable for the operational management of a process?

A) Process practitioner
B) Process manager
C) Service manager
D) Change manager

Question 76

Which of the following is NOT a source of best practice?

A) Standards
B) Technology
C) Academic research
D) Internal experience

Question 77

Who is responsible for defining metrics for change management?

A) The change management process owner
B) The change advisory board (CAB)
C) The service owner
D) The continual service improvement manager

Question 78

Which of the following statements is CORRECT for every process? 1. It delivers its primary results to a customer or stakeholder
2) It defines activities that are executed by a single function

A) Both of the above
B) 1 only
C) Neither of the above
D) 2 only

Question 79

What is a service delivered between two business units in the same organization known as?

A) Strategic service
B) Delivered service
C) Internal service
D) External service

Question 80

Which of the following is the BEST description of a service-based service level agreement (SLA)?

A) The SLA covers one service, for all the customers of that service
B) The SLA covers an individual customer group for all services they use
C) An SLA that covers all customers for all services
D) An SLA for a service with no customers