Deck 15: Trauma, Mobile, and Surgical Radiography

Question 1

A fracture that occurs through the pedicles of the axis (C2),with or without displacement of C2 or C3,is termed _____ fracture.

A) odontoid
B) clay shoveler's
C) Jefferson
D) hangman's

Answer 1

hangman's

Question 2

Which of the following fractures involves the distal fifth metacarpal?

A) Boxer's
B) Barton's
C) Pott's
D) Smith's

Answer 2

Boxer's

Question 3

A fragment of bone that is separated or pulled away by the attached tendon or ligament is termed a(n)_____ fracture.

A) avulsion
B) chip
C) depressed
D) epiphyseal

Answer 3

avulsion

Question 4

Which of the following imaging modalities is often used to diagnose pulmonary emboli?

A) Ultrasound
B) MRI (magnetic resonance imaging)
C) Nuclear medicine
D) None of the above

Question 5

Which term describes a misalignment of a distal fracture fragment that is angled toward the midline?

A) Anatomic apposition
B) Varus deformity
C) Valgus deformity
D) Distraction

Question 6

A bruise type of injury with a possible avulsion fracture is termed a(n):

A) subluxation.
B) apposition.
C) contusion.
D) luxation.

Question 7

Which imaging modality is often used to diagnose an ectopic pregnancy?

A) Ultrasound
B) Nuclear medicine
C) MRI
D) CT (computed tomography)

Question 8

Which type of fracture is defined as being crushed at the site of impact,producing two or more fragments?

A) Comminuted
B) Compound
C) Complete
D) Torus

Question 9

Which of the following fractures usually involves the spine?

A) Depressed
B) Comminuted
C) Stellate
D) Compression

Question 10

Which of the following is not a fracture but a subluxation?

A) Hutchinson's
B) Nursemaids' elbow
C) Monteggia's
D) None of the above

Question 11

Which of the following fractures is described as an incomplete fracture with the cortex broken on one side of the bone?

A) Bayonet
B) Torus
C) Avulsion
D) Greenstick

Question 12

A fracture in which the bone is broken into three pieces,with the middle fragment fractured at both ends,is termed _____ fracture.

A) segmental
B) butterfly
C) splintered
D) impacted

Question 13

With high-level fluoroscopy (HLF),the maximum exposure rate cannot exceed 20 R/min.

Question 14

Which fracture is also called a "march fracture"?

A) Pott
B) Stress
C) Trimalleolar
D) Burst

Question 15

Which of the following terms best describes a partial dislocation of a joint?

A) Subluxation
B) Luxation
C) Apposition
D) Angulation

Question 16

_____ is used to create an x-ray beam that activates at timed increments to reduce exposure during C-arm fluoroscopy.

A) Pulse mode
B) Road-mapping
C) Magnification mode
D) Boost digital spot

Question 17

Because of radiation exposure to the head and neck region,the C-arm should not be placed in the posteroanterior (PA)projection tube alignment.

Question 18

Which type of procedure would be performed in surgery to realign a fracture?

A) Open reduction
B) Closed reduction
C) Internal fixation
D) Compound reduction

Question 19

Which of the following fractures is often called a reverse Colles' with anterior displacement of the distal radius?

A) Pott's
B) Trimalleolar
C) Tripod
D) Smith's

Question 20

Generally,only one joint needs to be included for follow-up studies of a long bone fracture.

Question 21

A patient enters the ED with severe trauma to the abdomen.The ED physician is concerned about bleeding in the abdomen with associated possible free intra-abdominal air.The patient is unable to stand or sit erect.Which position best demonstrates the condition?

A) AP supine
B) Dorsal decubitus
C) Ventral decubitus
D) Lateral decubitus

Question 22

A radiographer receives 400 mR/hr standing 1 foot from a C-arm fluoroscopy unit.What is the exposure rate if the radiographer moves to a distance of 3 feet?

A) 100 to 150 mR/hr
B) 75 to 100 mR/hr
C) 25 to 50 mR/hr
D) Less than 10 mR/hr

Question 23

Postreduction projections of the upper and lower limbs generally require only the joint nearest to the fracture site.

Question 24

What is the minimum distance a technologist should stand away from the x-ray tube during an exposure when using a mobile x-ray unit?

A) 1 foot
B) 3 feet
C) 6 feet
D) 10 feet

Question 25

A patient enters the ED with a possible fractured sternum.The patient is supine and unable to lie prone.Which of the following routines best demonstrates the sternum?

A) Right posterior oblique (RPO) and lateral recumbent
B) AP and horizontal beam lateral
C) AP and LPO
D) LPO and horizontal beam lateral

Question 26

How should the CR be aligned for a trauma PA projection of the elbow?

A) Perpendicular to the interepicondylar plane
B) Parallel to the interepicondylar plane
C) Perpendicular to the palmar surface of the hand
D) None of the above; projection should be taken AP, not PA.

Question 27

How much rotation is required for an AP oblique projection of the sternum on a hypersthenic patient?

A) 20°
B) 25°
C) 30°
D) 15°

Question 28

A patient enters the ED with a possible shoulder dislocation.Because of his multiple injuries,the patient is unable to stand or sit erect.Which of the following routines best demonstrates the dislocation?

A) AP external and internal rotation projections
B) AP and transaxillary projections
C) AP and horizontal beam transthoracic lateral projections
D) AP and AP axial projections

Question 29

A patient comes to the ED with a possible abdominal aortic aneurysm.Which of the following projections of the abdomen best demonstrates it?

A) Erect abdomen
B) Dorsal decubitus
C) Right lateral decubitus
D) AP kidneys, ureter, bladder (KUB)-supine

Question 30

What is the primary disadvantage of performing a PA thumb over an AP projection?

A) May not demonstrate the entire thumb
B) Is more difficult to position
C) Results in an increase in object image receptor distance (OID)
D) Requires the use of a higher kV and greater exposure to patient

Question 31

Which of the following positions or projections best demonstrates free intra-abdominal air on the patient who cannot stand or sit erect?

A) Right lateral decubitus
B) AP supine
C) Left lateral decubitus
D) Dorsal decubitus

Question 32

A patient enters the emergency department (ED)with a possible pneumothorax of the right lung.The patient is unable to stand or sit erect.Which specific position should be performed to diagnose this condition?

A) Left lateral decubitus
B) Right lateral decubitus
C) Ventral decubitus
D) AP supine

Question 33

A 30° tilt of the C-arm x-ray tube from the vertical position will increase radiation exposure to the face and neck region of the operator standing next to the C-arm by approximately a factor of:

A) 2.
B) 3.
C) 4.
D) 6.

Question 34

Which one of the three cardinal rules of radiation protection is the most effective means of reducing exposure during mobile and surgical procedures?

A) Time
B) Shielding
C) Distance
D) None of the above; all are equally effective.

Question 35

What type of "holding breath" instructions should be given for an AP projection (patient supine)of the ribs located above the diaphragm?

A) Expose upon inspiration.
B) Expose upon expiration.
C) Suspend respiration and expose.
D) Perform a breathing technique.

Question 36

Which of the C-arm orientations in general results in the greatest exposure to the operator's head region if the distance from the patient is unchanged (patient is supine)?

A) Anteroposterior (AP) projection (x-ray tube above anatomy)
B) PA projection (x-ray tube below anatomy)
C) PA, 30° tilt away from operator
D) No significant difference

Question 37

How should the CR be aligned for an AP projection of the chest?

A) Perpendicular to the long axis of the sternum
B) Perpendicular to the plane of the image receptor (IR)
C) Perpendicular to the midcoronal plane
D) Parallel to the midsagittal plane

Question 38

A self-propelled,battery-driven mobile x-ray unit will generally go up a maximum incline of:

A) 2°.
B) 7°.
C) 10°.
D) 15°.

Question 39

Where should the operator (or surgeon)stand when using a C-arm fluoroscopy unit in a horizontal central ray (CR)position?

A) Intensifier end of the C-arm
B) X-ray tube end of the C-arm
C) Midway between the x-ray tube and the intensifier
D) Must stand back at least 6 feet from the patient

Question 40

A patient enters the ED with a fractured forearm.The physician reduces the fracture and places a fiberglass cast on the forearm.The initial analog technique was 55 kV and 5 mAs.Which of the following technical factors is best for the postreduction study?

A) 59 kV; 5 mAs
B) 62 kV; 5 mAs
C) 67 kV; 5 mAs
D) 72 kV; 5 mAs

Question 41

Which of the following projections will best demonstrate an air-fluid level within the skull with the patient recumbent?

A) Reverse Caldwell
B) AP axial
C) Horizontal beam lateral
D) AP 30°

Question 42

How is the CR aligned for the acanthiomeatal (reverse Waters)projection for the facial bones?

A) Perpendicular to the plane of the IR
B) Parallel to the mentomeatal line
C) Parallel to the lips-meatal line
D) 15° cephalad angle to the orbitomeatal line

Question 43

A patient enters the ED on a backboard with multiple injuries,including an injury to the knee region with a possible stellate fracture noted on the examination requisition.Which of the following routines best demonstrates this injury safely?

A) AP and 30° flexed lateral knee projections
B) AP and 30° flexed lateral knee projections to include the proximal tibia-fibula
C) AP medial oblique and 30° flexed lateral knee projections
D) AP and horizontal beam lateral projections of the knee and patella without knee flexion

Question 44

How is the CR aligned for an axiolateral,inferosuperior (Danelius-Miller)projection?

A) Parallel to femoral neck
B) Perpendicular to femoral neck
C) At a 20° angle to the femoral neck
D) At a 45° angle to the femoral neck

Question 45

A patient enters the ED with a possible Monteggia fracture.Which of the following positioning routines should be performed?

A) AP and lateral cervical spine projections
B) AP and horizontal beam lateral skull projections
C) PA and lateral thumb projections
D) Horizontal beam PA and lateral forearm projections

Question 46

Which of the following projections best produces an unobstructed view of the fibular head and neck without rotation of the lower leg (with patient in supine position)?

A) AP knee projection
B) Horizontal beam lateral projection
C) AP projection with a CR 45° mediolateral angle
D) AP projection with a CR 45° lateromedial angle

Question 47

A patient enters the ED with a possible greenstick fracture.Which age group does this type of fracture usually affect?

A) Pediatric
B) Young adult
C) Middle-age
D) Geriatric

Question 48

Subluxation is best described as a:

A) dislocation of a bone from a joint.
B) forced wrenching or twisting of a joint.
C) partial dislocation.
D) loss of alignment resulting in some deformity of a long bone.

Question 49

A patient enters the ED with a possible blow-out fracture involving the orbits.The patient is restricted to a backboard because of trauma.Which of the following positioning routines should be performed?

A) AP 0° and horizontal beam lateral skull
B) AP modified acanthioparietal and horizontal beam lateral facial bone projections
C) AP 30° and axial and horizontal beam lateral skull
D) AP acanthioparietal and horizontal beam lateral facial bone projection

Question 50

What CR angulation should be used for an AP axial projection of the clavicle on an asthenic patient?

A) 10° cephalad
B) 15° caudal
C) 20° cephalad
D) 40° cephalad

Question 51

Focused grids are recommended for mobile chest studies.

Question 52

A patient's lower leg is in traction in the hospital bed.The orthopedic surgeon orders an AP mortise projection of the ankle.Because of the traction,the lower leg cannot be rotated.The leg is in a straight "foot up" position.What can the radiographer do to achieve this AP mortise projection?

A) Perform a horizontal beam lateral projection.
B) Perform a CR 15° to 20° lateromedial angle AP projection.
C) Perform a CR 15° to 2° mediolateral angle AP projection.
D) Loosen the traction device and oblique the ankle.

Question 53

A patient enters the ED with a possible cervical spine fracture.The initial AP and lateral projections were negative for fracture.The ED physician wants a projection to demonstrate the vertebral pedicles.Which of the following projections would demonstrate these structures safely?

A) AP axial projection with 35° to 40° cephalad angle
B) Ottonello projection
C) Articular pillar view projection
D) AP axial projection using 45° lateromedial and 15° cephalad angle

Question 54

A patient enters the ED with a possible fractured scapula.Because of her multiple injuries,the patient is on a backboard.Which of the following techniques is most helpful in providing a lateral view of the scapula if the patient is unable to rotate the affected shoulder adequately?

A) Perform a horizontal beam lateral.
B) Angle the CR parallel to the scapular spine.
C) Angle the CR lateromedial and parallel to the scapular body.
D) Angle the CR mediolateral and perpendicular to the scapular body.

Question 55

How much rotation of the body is generally required for an AP oblique,lateral scapular Y projection?

A) 10° to 15° from AP projection
B) 25° to 30° from AP projection
C) 35° to 40° from AP projection
D) 45° to 60° from AP projection

Question 56

Which of the following projections best demonstrates the C1-2 region if a patient is unable to open his or her mouth or flex/extend the neck?

A) AP axial projection with CR parallel to MML
B) AP axial projection with CR parallel to AML
C) AP axial projection with CR parallel to OML
D) AP axial projection with CR parallel to IOML

Question 57

An ankle series would best demonstrate a Pott fracture.

Question 58

The horizontal beam lateral lumbar spine projection requires a CR position that is:

A) perpendicular to the coronal plane.
B) perpendicular to the image receptor.
C) angled 5° to 7° cephalic.
D) angled 5° to 7° caudal.

Question 59

The AP reverse Caldwell projection for a trauma skull examination requires the CR be:

A) parallel to the orbitomeatal line.
B) 15° cephalad to the orbitomeatal line.
C) parallel to the infraorbitomeatal line.
D) parallel to the lips-meatal line.

Question 60

Ideally,the horizontal beam lateral projections for the cervical spine require a ____ source image receptor distance (SID).

A) 40 to 44-inch (102 to 113-cm)
B) 60 to 72-inch (153 to 183-cm)
C) 96-inch (245-cm)
D) 35 to 40-inch (89 to 102-cm)

Question 61

Which of the following is NOT an advantage of laparoscopic cholecystectomy?

A) It can be performed as an outpatient procedure.
B) The procedure is performed without anesthetic in radiology.
C) It is a less invasive procedure.
D) The patient can return home following procedure.

Question 62

OR tables are considered sterile only at the level of the tabletop.

Question 63

Asepsis is defined as a(n):

A) clean environment.
B) absence of infectious organisms.
C) sterile dressings and covers.
D) proper handwashing.

Question 64

A patient enters the ED with a radial head fracture and dislocation.The ED physician orders an elbow series.The elbow is flexed near 90° and is unable to extend it farther.Which of the following positioning routines would work best for this patient?

A) AP, lateral, and AP oblique-medial rotation positions
B) AP partial flexion, lateral, and trauma axiolateral (Coyle method) projections
C) AP acute flexion, AP oblique-lateral rotation, and lateral positions
D) Axiolateral projections, AP acute flexion, and lateral positions

Question 65

Which one of the following devices is best during a C-arm hip pinning procedure to protect the sterile environment?

A) Sterile towel over image intensifier
B) Sterile towel over x-ray tube
C) Shower curtain
D) Wiping down the entire C-arm with an antiseptic solution

Question 66

An aerosol cleaner should be used in cleaning the C-arm in surgery before a procedure.

Question 67

The primary clinical indication for an operative cholangiogram is:

A) biliary calculi.
B) jaundice.
C) pancreatitis.
D) hepatitis.

Question 68

The entire sterile gown,worn by the surgeon,is considered sterile.

Question 69

"Boost" exposures used during C-arm procedures are intended to:

A) decrease patient dose.
B) provide a road map effect.
C) increase brightness of image.
D) decrease the technologist's dose.

Question 70

An individual who prepares the sterile field and scrubs and gowns the members of the surgical team is a:

A) certified surgical technologist (CST).
B) circulator.
C) scrub.
D) surgical assistant.

Question 71

Shoe covers are not required in the presurgical or recovery areas.

Question 72

A health professional who prepares the operating room (OR)by supplying it with the appropriate supplies and instruments is a:

A) certified surgical technologist (CST).
B) circulator.
C) scrub.
D) surgical assistant.

Question 73

Only sterile items are allowed within the sterile field.

Question 74

Which of the following modifications must be made if the OR table is tilted while imaging during an operative cholangiogram using analog imaging?

A) Increase kV.
B) Decrease kV.
C) Turn grid crosswise.
D) Increase SID.

Question 75

Which one of the following structures is not typically visualized during an operative cholangiogram?

A) Hepatic ducts
B) Cystic duct
C) Common bile duct
D) Stensen duct

Question 76

Typically,how much contrast media is injected by the surgeon during an operative cholangiogram?

A) 1 to 2 mL
B) 6 to 8 mL
C) 10 to 12 mL
D) 15 to 20 mL

Question 77

When performing conventional imaging during an operative cholangiogram,the IR is placed in a special metal tray called a:

A) Smith tray.
B) Meyer's tray.
C) cholangiogram tray.
D) "pizza pan."

Question 78

Which of the following is not an essential attribute for the surgical radiographer?

A) Confidence
B) Mastery of positioning and technical concepts
C) Problem-solving skills
D) Mastery of essential nursing skills

Question 79

Which one of the following methods will best reduce patient dosage during a fluoroscopic procedure in surgery?

A) Increase mA.
B) Use intermittent fluoro.
C) Decrease kV.
D) Place x-ray tube above patient.

Question 80

What should a technologist do if the sterile environment is violated during a surgical procedure?

A) Note the violation on the examination requisition.
B) Inform the radiology supervisor.
C) Notify a member of the surgical team once the procedure has been completed.
D) Notify a member of the surgical team immediately.