Deck 3: Mens Bodies

Question 1

The primary reason that the reproductive anatomy in males is simpler than that in females is that

A) male organs are external.
B) males do not need structures for pregnancy.
C) male organs develop from female organs.
D) female organs develop from male organs.
E) male reproductive organs do not change during puberty.

Answer 1

B

Question 2

Refer to the figure.
The correct labels for the numbered structures are

A) 1: frenulum; 2: glans; 3: corpus spongiosum; 4: corona; 5: shaft
B) 1: corona; 2: glans; 3: frenulum; 4: scrotum; 5: corpus spongiosum
C) 1: glans; 2: frenulum; 3: corona; 4: corpus spongiosum; 5: scrotum
D) 1: corona; 2: frenulum; 3: glans; 4: corpus spongiosum; 5: shaft
E) 1: glans; 2: corona; 3: frenulum; 4: shaft; 5: corpus spongiosum

Answer 2

E

Question 3

The most erotically sensitive areas of a man's genitals are the

A) scrotum and testicles.
B) corona and frenulum.
C) corpus spongiosum and corpora cavernosa.
D) penile shaft and testicles.
E) urethra and urethral opening.

Answer 3

B

Question 4

Which function do the penis and the female clitoris have in common?

A) Excretion of urine
B) Sexual arousal
C) Delivery of sex cells
D) Production of sex cells
E) Production of hormones

Question 5

The male urethra releases both urine and semen. This indicates that the urethra is connected to the

A) bladder only.
B) reproductive glands only.
C) bladder and reproductive glands.
D) corpora cavernosa and bladder.
E) pelvic floor muscles and reproductive glands.

Question 6

If a man's corpora cavernosa are unable to fill with blood, which function of the penis will be most affected?

A) Excretion of urine
B) Discharge of semen
C) Erection of the penis
D) Erotic stimulation of the penis
E) Release of sperm from the body

Question 7

After a penile piercing, a young man develops an infection that causes nerve damage to the genital end-bulbs. This will most likely lead to difficulty in

A) achieving an erection.
B) retracting the foreskin.
C) keeping the glans clean.
D) achieving erotic sensation in the penile shaft.
E) achieving erotic sensation in the glans.

Question 8

The World Health Organization (WHO) recommends use of adult male circumcision in Africa for

A) population control.
B) cosmetic reasons.
C) reducing the spread of HIV.
D) honoring cultural traditions.
E) reducing urinary tract infections.

Question 9

Parents might choose to circumcise their male infant to provide partial protection against

A) Peyronie's disease.
B) rectal cancer.
C) enlarged prostate.
D) sexually transmitted infections.
E) physical damage to the penis.

Question 10

Which statement best describes the stance on circumcision held by the American Academy of Pediatrics, the American College of Obstetricians and Gynecologists, and the U.S. Centers for Disease Control and Prevention?

A) The benefits of circumcision in newborns outweigh the risks.
B) Parents who circumcise are reducing their son's future ability to experience sexual satisfaction.
C) Parents who circumcise are putting their son at risk for future medical problems.
D) Both female genital cutting and male circumcision should be opposed for ethical reasons.
E) Newborn circumcision provides no health benefits; older boys should decide about circumcision for themselves.

Question 11

A circumcised male is slightly more likely than an uncircumcised male to suffer from which condition?

A) Urinary tract infection
B) Sexually transmitted disease
C) Buildup of smegma
D) Penile insensitivity
E) Erectile dysfunction

Question 12

Which condition involving the penis would require treatment with cleaning and antibiotics, rather than with surgery?

A) Balanitis
B) Phimosis
C) Paraphimosis
D) Peyronie's disease
E) Diphallia

Question 13

A man has been diagnosed with a certain type of human papillomavirus and his doctor has recommended a minor surgical procedure to deal with a consequence of the infection. He is most likely suffering from

A) balanitis.
B) phimosis.
C) penile cancer.
D) paraphimosis.
E) Peyronie's disease.

Question 14

A man suffers from a penile condition that his doctor is treating as an emergency that could lead to tissue death. The man is most likely suffering from

A) diphallia.
B) balanitis.
C) paraphimosis.
D) Peyronie's disease.
E) penile cancer.

Question 15

The presence of smegma on the male penis usually results from

A) masturbation.
B) infection of the urethra.
C) infection of the foreskin.
D) failure to wash under the foreskin.
E) the post-circumcision healing process.

Question 16

A medical professional would most likely recommend which treatment for a man who is obsessively concerned that his penis is too small?

A) Tissue grafts
B) Fat injections
C) Psychotherapy
D) Cutting the suspensory ligament
E) Self-help methods such as jelqing

Question 17

A fracture of the penis refers to

A) a break in the cartilage that supports the penis.
B) leaking of fluids from the prostate into the crura.
C) an unnatural curvature of the penis.
D) a tear in the capsule of the corpus cavernosum.
E) leaking of blood from the corpus spongiosum into the urethra.

Question 18

The corona of the glans and the frenulum are the most sensitive parts of the penis, due to their high concentrations of

A) sweat glands.
B) blood vessels.
C) genital end-bulbs.
D) hormonal tissue.
E) corpus cavernosum tissue.

Question 19

The ability of genital end-bulbs to cause an erection is most likely due to their

A) location only in the glans and frenulum.
B) high density in the glans and frenulum.
C) response to chemicals such as nitric acid.
D) ability to trigger a brain response.
E) motor, as opposed to sensory, nerve impulses.

Question 20

Which method of achieving an erection is least likely to require the brain's involvement?

A) REM sleep
B) Looking at pornography
C) Watching an erotic movie
D) Tactile stimulation of the penis
E) Voluntary contraction of pelvic floor muscles

Question 21

A man cannot choose to have an erection. This is because erections are

A) controlled by the non-dominant side of the brain.
B) controlled by the autonomic nervous system.
C) controlled by the voluntary nervous system.
D) only possible with physical stimulation.
E) only possible with emotional stimulation.

Question 22

If blood flow into the two corpora cavernosa were blocked, how would the function of the penis most likely be affected?

A) Erection would not be possible.
B) Urination would not be possible.
C) Erection would occur only by physical stimulation.
D) The urethra would collapse and become nonfunctional.
E) Penile nerves would be nonfunctional.

Question 23

When the penis changes from erect to flaccid, the arteries of the penis change from

A) active to inactive.
B) inactive to active.
C) constricted to expanded.
D) expanded to constricted.
E) high pressure to low pressure.

Question 24

Nitroglycerin, used for some heart conditions, breaks down in the body to release nitric oxide. What side effect might this medication have on sexual activity in men?

A) No effect; it acts only on the heart
B) Increased ability to have an erection
C) Decreased ability to have an erection
D) Increased nocturnal emissions
E) Decreased sensitivity in the penis

Question 25

A condition in which the sinusoids of the corpora cavernosa are unable to collapse would result in

A) compression of the urethra.
B) priapism.
C) failure to achieve an erection.
D) continual blood flow into the penis.
E) increased blood flow into the corpus spongiosum.

Question 26

What is the most likely reason priapism is considered a medical emergency that must be treated within a few hours?

A) It is very painful.
B) It may be a sign of cancer.
C) It is likely to prevent urination.
D) It may cause death due to internal bleeding.
E) It may cause tissue damage due to decreased blood circulation.

Question 27

If a defect in the corpus spongiosum caused it to fill with more blood than normal, what would be the most likely effect on ejaculation?

A) It would be more rapid due to higher blood pressure.
B) It would be more intense due to higher blood pressure.
C) It would be prevented, due to compression of the urethra.
D) It would be more intense, due to compression of the urethra.
E) It would be prevented, due to inability to have an erection.

Question 28

Refer to the figure.
Based on the information in the graph, the nocturnal erections of a man who is temporarily unable to experience REM sleep would

A) increase in number.
B) decrease in number.
C) decrease in number but increase in strength.
D) increase in number but decrease in strength.
E) cease until REM sleep was restored.

Question 29

A man is paralyzed below the waist due to an injury that fully severed his spinal cord. Can this man experience an erection?

A) Yes, but only if the penis is physically stimulated.
B) Yes, but only if he has sexual thoughts or sees something stimulating.
C) Yes, but the erection will be controlled by voluntary, rather than autonomic, nerves.
D) No, because the brain is necessary for an erection to occur.
E) No, because the reflex must travel through both the brain and spinal cord.

Question 30

A man suffers an injury that prevents interaction between his brain and spinal cord, making him quadriplegic. How will this affect his ability to achieve an erection?

A) He will be able to achieve an erection under any circumstances.
B) He will be unable to achieve an erection under any circumstances.
C) He will be unable to achieve an erection by tactile stimulation of the penis.
D) He will be able to choose whether or not he achieves an erection.
E) He will be unable to achieve an erection by seeing or thinking about something erotic.

Question 31

A genetic condition results in the absence of sweat glands. How might this condition affect temperature regulation of the scrotum and testicles?

A) It would increase the temperature of both structures.
B) It would decrease the temperature of both structures.
C) It would not affect them; there are no sweat glands in this region.
D) It would not affect them; temperature is regulated only by the cremaster muscle.
E) It would increase scrotal temperature and decrease testicular temperature.

Question 32

The cremaster muscle helps maintain testicular temperature. What does the action of this muscle suggest about how it is controlled?

A) Control of the muscle is voluntary.
B) Control of the muscle is automatic.
C) Control of the muscle is hormonal.
D) The muscle activates only in response to cold.
E) The muscle activates only in response to heat.

Question 33

A disorder affecting the function of the seminiferous tubules would interfere with the

A) storage of sperm.
B) activation of sperm.
C) production of sperm.
D) production of testosterone.
E) production of seminal fluid.

Question 34

The architecture of the epididymis is such that

A) it forms an obstacle course which only allows the "fittest" sperm to pass through.
B) the spermatozoa pass through a single, convoluted tubule.
C) the spermatozoa pass through a complex network of tubules.
D) sperm bodies and tails join at the exit of the epididymis.
E) the most recently formed spermatozoa enter the vas deferens first.

Question 35

In a vasectomy, each vas deferens is cut and sealed off. This is an effective form of birth control because it

A) prevents sperm formation.
B) prevents semen formation.
C) prevents release of sperm into semen.
D) makes semen too acidic for sperm to function.
E) makes semen too basic for sperm to function.

Question 36

Testicular self-examination would likely be most effective for detecting which potential disorder of the testicles?

A) Orchitis
B) Epididymitis
C) A varicocele
D) Testicular cancer
E) Testicular torsion

Question 37

The testicular condition most likely to require removal of one or both testicles is

A) orchitis.
B) varicocele.
C) epididymitis.
D) testicular cancer.
E) testicular torsion.

Question 38

A man who has been exposed to a sexually transmitted disease is most at risk for

A) hydrocele.
B) varicocele.
C) epididymitis.
D) priapism.
E) testicular torsion.

Question 39

A man who is insensitive to estrogens would be most likely to suffer from

A) infertility.
B) stunted growth.
C) lowered sex drive.
D) excessive hair growth.
E) excessive muscle development.

Question 40

A man is extremely tall and thin. Tests show he also has a very low sperm count. This man most likely suffers from which hormonal condition?

A) Excess estrogen
B) Excess androgen
C) Excess progestin
D) Estrogen insensitivity
E) Androgen insensitivity

Question 41

A man receives a drug that blocks transformation of testosterone to DHT (5α-dihydrotestosterone). This treatment would most likely result in

A) a buildup of muscle tissue.
B) a change in distribution of body hair.
C) increasingly aggressive behavior.
D) increased energy due to improved oxygenation of blood.
E) no observable effect as they are essentially the same chemical.

Question 42

A pharmaceutical company is attempting to develop a drug to reduce sex drive in sex offenders. The most effective drug is likely to be one that

A) reduces progestin.
B) increases testosterone.
C) reduces testosterone and progestin.
D) increases testosterone and progestin.
E) reduces testosterone and increases progestin.

Question 43

Steroid drugs, including natural androgens and so-called designer drugs, are illegal in athletic competitions. The main reason is that steroids

A) decrease athletic performance, making games less interesting.
B) increase physical strength, giving users an unfair advantage.
C) cause side effects that decrease differences between genders.
D) cause side effects that increase differences between genders.
E) improve the physical and mental health of users.

Question 44

The hormone GnRH controls male hormone levels by acting on which structure?

A) Hypothalamus
B) Anterior pituitary
C) Seminiferous tubules
D) Interstitial cells
E) Prostate gland

Question 45

Hormones produced in the interstitial cells of the testes include

A) androgens only.
B) estrogens only.
C) androgens and estrogens.
D) estrogens and progestins.
E) androgens, estrogens, and progestins.

Question 46

If a man's sperm have low mobility, he will likely have reduced fertility due to the inability of sperm to

A) move through the epididymis.
B) exit the vas deferens.
C) move through the seminiferous tubules.
D) reach the egg.
E) penetrate the egg.

Question 47

A Danish study showed that, between 1940 and 1990, average sperm counts dropped from 113 million to 66 million sperm per milliliter of semen. Further studies showed that by 2014, counts had declined to between 40 and 50 million per milliliter. Which factor do scientists consider the most likely cause of these rapidly declining sperm counts?

A) More frequent ejaculations
B) Conception by in vitro fertilization
C) Tight-fitting pants that increase scrotal temperatures
D) Mothers' lifestyles, including smoking, drinking, and obesity
E) Environmental pollutants, such as pesticides, that disrupt sex hormones

Question 48

Rapidly declining sperm counts and increasing numbers of misshapen and slow-moving sperm could combine to cause which trend in future human populations?

A) Lower birth rates
B) Higher birth rates
C) Starting families later
D) Starting families earlier
E) Expanding human populations

Question 49

Since the 1990s, which change related to male reproduction has not occurred?

A) Decline in sperm count
B) Decline in sperm motility
C) Decline in average penis size
D) Decline in ejaculate volume
E) Increase in misshapen sperm

Question 50

Between spermatogenesis and ejaculation, sperm passes through male reproductive structures in which order?

A) Seminiferous tubules  vas deferens  epididymis  urethra
B) Seminiferous tubules  epididymis  vas deferens  urethra
C) Interstitial cells  vas deferens  epididymis  urethra
D) Seminiferous tubules  interstitial cells  epididymis  vas deferens
E) Interstitial cells  epididymis  inguinal canal  urethra  vas deferens

Question 51

Which structure is most likely to increase pressure on and affect the function of the urethra?

A) Prostate gland
B) Interstitial cells
C) Seminal vesicles
D) Bulbourethral glands
E) Seminiferous tubules

Question 52

The tendency of aging men to have difficulty urinating is most commonly linked to

A) prostatitis.
B) prostate cancer.
C) enlarged prostate.
D) testicular atrophy.
E) declining levels of testosterone.

Question 53

By doing a digital prostate exam, a physician can determine if the prostate gland

A) is enlarged or lumpy.
B) is cancerous.
C) requires prostatectomy.
D) is producing PSA.
E) is producing excess testosterone.

Question 54

Radical prostatectomy as a treatment for prostate cancer may have a number of side effects. One of the most serious is

A) decreased sex drive.
B) uncontrolled ejaculation.
C) inability to produce sperm.
D) increase in urination.
E) inability to have an erection.

Question 55

A man has a condition in which his sperm cannot produce the energy to move independently. This suggests the presence of a defect in which part of the sperm?

A) DNA
B) Head
C) Midpiece
D) Flagellum
E) Acrosome

Question 56

Suppose that, during emission, all reservoirs except the seminal vesicles release their fluids. How would this failure of the seminal vesicles be likely to affect ejaculation?

A) Ejaculation would fail to occur.
B) Ejaculation would occur, but the man would not reach orgasm.
C) Ejaculation would occur, but much less semen would be released.
D) Ejaculation would occur normally, with other glands adding more fluid.
E) There would be no effect as emission and ejaculation are separate processes.

Question 57

During ejaculation, failure of which structure would be most likely to allow release of urine and semen simultaneously?

A) Bladder
B) Vas deferens
C) Penile urethra
D) Urethral sphincter
E) Pelvic floor muscles

Question 58

During sexual activity, the urethra and pelvic floor muscles contract. If this contraction does not occur, which function will be prevented?

A) Emission
B) Ejaculation
C) Closing of the urethral sphincter
D) Initial arousal
E) Relaxation after sexual climax

Question 59

If the PSA enzyme in semen is missing or inactive, which sexual function will the man likely be unable to complete?

A) Ejaculation
B) Capacitation of sperm
C) Immobilization of sperm
D) Mixing of fluids from different reproductive organs
E) Migration of sperm up the female reproductive tract

Question 60

Secretions of the prostate and bulbourethral glands help to regulate which condition or function in both the male and female reproductive tracts?

A) pH
B) Arousal
C) Lubrication
D) Ejaculation
E) Temperature

Question 61

Which substance makes up the greatest percentage of semen?

A) Sperm
B) Prostate secretions
C) Epididymis secretions
D) Seminal vesicle secretions
E) Bulbourethral gland secretions

Question 62

A man has infected his sexual partner with a viral disease. This infection most likely occurred because his

A) semen was too acidic.
B) penis was uncircumcised.
C) penis had not been washed.
D) sperm cells were infected with viruses.
E) semen contained high viral concentrations.

Question 63

What male reproductive function does not have an analog in the female reproductive system?

A) Storage of gametes
B) Transport of gametes
C) Production of semen
D) Production of gametes
E) Production of sex hormones

Question 64

Which statement most accurately describes cultural regulation of nudity?

A) Only Western cultures have prohibitions against public nudity.
B) Prohibiting public nudity is thought to facilitate cooperation and reduce aggression.
C) Public nudity is far more acceptable now than in ancient times.
D) Most traditional huntergatherer cultures had no prohibitions on public nudity.
E) Prohibitions on nudity have kept public breast feeding illegal under federal law.

Question 65

In the United States, the most likely response to a woman breast-feeding her baby in public is that she will be

A) immediately arrested for indecent exposure.
B) equally welcome in all states and settings.
C) legally permitted to do so, but will sometimes receive complaints.
D) considered normal, because nudity is accepted everywhere.
E) protected under federal law, but not protected by most state laws.

Question 66

Compare the functions of external reproductive structures in males versus females.

Question 67

Categorize and briefly describe conditions affecting the penis, separating them into those that involve infection and those that involve physical malfunctions.

Question 68

Suppose a man is born without the sensory nerve endings known as genital end-bulbs. Describe how this man's sexual response would differ from your typical man's.

Question 69

One man has a defect in the two corpora cavernosa that prevent them from completely filling with blood. Another man has the same defect, only it affects the corpus spongiosum. Compare how erections would be affected in these two men.

Question 70

As part of a hypothetical middle school sex education program, prepare a description and explanation of nocturnal emissions that would be comprehensible to the average 11-year-old boy.

Question 71

List and discuss noncancerous conditions that can affect the testicles and prostate gland.

Question 72

Write the text for a pamphlet for distribution to your college sports teams explaining the health risks and consequences of taking synthetic steroids to enhance athletic performance.

Question 73

One structure that is important in the pathway of sperm through the male body is the spermatic cord. Discuss the importance of the spermatic cord, including structures that pass through it and its functions in the life of sperm.

Question 74

How much control does a man have over the process of ejaculation? Explain, including the role of muscles in the process.

Question 75

In addition to sperm, semen contains components from three separate structures in the male body. List these three structures, and describe how semen would be altered if each of these structures failed to produce its portion of semen.

Question 76

How have attitudes toward nudity changed over the centuries, and how have these changes affected social customs and social cohesion?