Deck 20: Diagnostic and Therapeutic Modalities

Question 1

The structures labeled 4 are:

A) lobules.
B) alveoli.
C) glands.
D) ampulla.

Answer 1

lobules.

Question 2

In which quadrant of the left breast would the 7 o'clock position be located?

A) UOQ
B) UIQ
C) LIQ
D) LOQ

Answer 2

LIQ

Question 3

The frequency with which breast cancer occurs in American women is one in:

A) two.
B) four.
C) six.
D) eight.

Answer 3

eight.

Question 4

The structures labeled 3 refer to:

A) glands.
B) ampulla.
C) alveoli.
D) lobes.

Question 5

Another term for Cooper's ligament is the suspensory ligament.

Question 6

Which of the following structures is labeled 1?

A) Alveoli
B) Blood vessels
C) Cooper's ligament
D) Ducts

Question 7

The junction between the inferior aspect of the breast and anterior chest wall is termed the:

A) inframammary fold.
B) pectoralis major.
C) retromammary space.
D) inferior margin.

Question 8

The retromammary space is located posterior to the pectoralis major muscle.

Question 9

Which of the following structures is labeled 2?

A) Lobes
B) Ampulla
C) Alveoli
D) Ducts

Question 10

The pigmented area surrounding the nipple is termed the:

A) tail of the breast.
B) areola.
C) lobules.
D) prolongation.

Question 11

The U.S.Mammography Quality Standards Act (MQSA)of October 1994 requires that:

A) all mammograms be performed with film-screen systems with less than a 2% repeat rate.
B) patient skin dose be reduced to less than 200 mrad per projection as monitored by the DHHS (Department of Health and Human Services).
C) all sites (except VA facilities) meet quality standards and be certified by the DHHS.
D) all women older than age 40 have a screening mammogram.

Question 12

The amount of glandular tissue from one female to another is fairly consistent.

Question 13

The 2 o'clock position in the left breast corresponds to the ____ o'clock position in the right breast.

A) 2
B) 8
C) 10
D) 5

Question 14

In most breasts,the craniocaudal diameter is greater than the mediolateral diameter.

Question 15

The risk of breast cancer occurring in men is about ____ of that for women.

A) 1% to 2%
B) 5% to 6%
C) 10% to 11%
D) None of the above; breast cancer does not occur in men.

Question 16

Blood vessels,connective tissue,and other small structures seen on a mammogram are termed:

A) alveoli.
B) ampulla.
C) lobules.
D) trabeculae.

Question 17

Which of the following breast tissues is least dense?

A) Glandular
B) Adipose
C) Fibrous
D) Connective

Question 18

The American College of Radiology (ACS)recommends that women older than age 40 should have a screening mammogram.

Question 19

What is another term for the tail of the breast?

A) Caudal portion
B) Areola
C) Axillary prolongation
D) Axilla

Question 20

The glandular tissue of the breast is divided into 15 to 20:

A) lobes.
B) sections.
C) partitions.
D) ducts.

Question 21

Computer-aided detection (CAD)is reported to improve cancer detection rates by:

A) 2%.
B) 4%.
C) 5% to 15%
D) 50%.

Question 22

Direct digital mammography produces better contrast resolution over analog imaging.

Question 23

Digital mammography in all likelihood will become the method of choice for breast cancer screening examinations because of its postprocessing capability and other advantages.

Question 24

The average male breast is classified as being:

A) fibroglandular.
B) fibro-fatty.
C) fatty.
D) muscle.

Question 25

Which of the following imaging modalities can best distinguish between a solid mass or a cyst in the breast?

A) Film-screen mammography
B) MRI (magnetic resonance imaging)
C) Sonography
D) Digital mammography

Question 26

Computed radiography has lower operating costs over analog mammography imaging.

Question 27

What is the name of the device that captures the remnant radiation and produces the digital image with direct digital mammography?

A) Charged couple device (CCD)
B) Change to "computed radiography cassette" (CRT)
C) Flat panel detector
D) Photocathode

Question 28

Compression of the breast will reduce geometric unsharpness of structures within the breast.

Question 29

What is the breast classification of a 35-year-old woman without children?

A) Fibroglandular
B) Fibro-fatty
C) Fatty
D) Fibroconnective

Question 30

What is the primary reason for high patient doses delivered during screening mammography?

A) Use of high kV
B) Increased use of digital imaging systems
C) Large number of projections taken
D) Use of low kV

Question 31

The anode-heel effect is less evident in mammography systems because of the anode configuration of the x-ray tube.

Question 32

Using the anode-heel effect,the cathode of the x-ray tube should be placed over the:

A) apex.
B) base.
C) midportion.
D) nipple.

Question 33

Magnification studies of the breast and breast specimens should use a focal spot size of:

A) 0.1 mm.
B) 0.1 cm.
C) 0.3 mm.
D) 0.5 mm.

Question 34

The portion of the breast near the nipple is termed the:

A) apex.
B) base.
C) inframammary fold.
D) alveolar portion.

Question 35

What is the American College of Radiology standard for maximum repeat exposures taken during mammography?

A) Less than 5%
B) Less than 3%
C) Less than 10%
D) Less than 15%

Question 36

Which imaging modality is most ideal for a breast with an implant?

A) Film-screen mammography
B) MRI
C) Sonography
D) CT

Question 37

Computer-aided detection uses a computerized detection ____ to analyze various suspicious breast lesions.

A) signal
B) reader
C) laser
D) algorithm

Question 38

What is the magnification factor with an source object distance (SOD)of 40 inches (100 cm)and a source image receptor distance (SID)of 60 inches (150 cm)?

A) 2´
B) 2.5´
C) 2.2´
D) 1.5´

Question 39

Ten to 20 pounds of compression of the breast is typically used during mammography.

Question 40

What is the breast classification of a 45-year-old woman with three or more pregnancies?

A) Fibroglandular
B) Fibro-fatty
C) Fatty
D) Fibroconnective

Question 41

The most common projections performed as routine projections throughout the United States and Canada are:

A) bilateral CC, MLO, and ML.
B) bilateral CC and MLO.
C) unilateral CC, MLO, and XCCL.
D) unilateral CC, MLO, XCCL, and ML.

Question 42

What type of radionuclide tracer is most commonly used with PET studies of the breast?

A) Sulfur colloid
B) FDG (fluorodeoxyglucose) technetium
C) Technetium-99m-sestamibi
D) None of the above

Question 43

Where should the marker and patient identification be in regard to the anatomy?

A) Near apex
B) Near base
C) Upper right aspect of image
D) Near axilla

Question 44

What is the average skin dose delivered to the breast during mammography?

A) 500 to 600 mrad
B) 200 to 300 mrad
C) 800 to 900 mrad
D) 100 to 200 mrad

Question 45

Which of the following projections best demonstrates the axillary tissue of the breast and a portion of the pectoral muscle?

A) Craniocaudal
B) Mediolateral oblique
C) Exaggerated craniocaudal
D) Mediolateral

Question 46

Which one of the following imaging modalities is best for detecting an intracapsular rupture of a breast implant?

A) Nuclear medicine
B) PET
C) MRI
D) Ultrasound

Question 47

Which soft tissue structure must be in profile for the craniocaudal and mediolateral oblique projections?

A) Pectoral muscle
B) Tail of the breast
C) Nipple
D) Glandular tissue

Question 48

What kV range should be used for analog (film-screen)mammography?

A) 23 to 28
B) 30 to 35
C) 50 to 65
D) 20 to 22

Question 49

How much central ray (CR)angulation is required for the mediolateral oblique projection of an average-sized breast?

A) 45°
B) 60°
C) 70°
D) 90°

Question 50

Where should the image receptor be placed for the craniocaudal projection?

A) At the level of the axilla
B) At the level of the sternal angle
C) At the level of the xiphoid process
D) At the level of the inframammary fold

Question 51

How is the breast positioned for the mediolateral oblique projection?

A) Drawn anterior and medial away from chest wall
B) Drawn posterior and lateral away from chest wall
C) Drawn inferior and medial toward the chest wall
D) Drawn anterior and lateral away from the chest wall

Question 52

Which patient position is preferred for most mammogram projections?

A) Supine
B) Prone
C) Standing
D) Decubitus

Question 53

Which of the following definitions would apply to the ACR abbreviation SIO?

A) Slight inferior oblique
B) Superolateral-inferomedial oblique
C) Sagittal image oblique
D) Superoinferior oblique

Question 54

Which projection best demonstrates inflammation or pathology in the deep lateral aspect of the breast?

A) Lateromedial oblique
B) Craniocaudal
C) Exaggerated craniocaudal
D) Mediolateral oblique

Question 55

What is the energy source used with digital breast tomosynthesis (DBT)?

A) Radionuclide
B) Pulsed magnetic field
C) Conventional mammography x-ray tube
D) Ultrabright light

Question 56

What is the chief disadvantage of using MRI as a breast screening tool?

A) High patient dose
B) High false-positive rate
C) Patient discomfort
D) Poor tissue resolution

Question 57

Sentinel node studies will assess the spread of breast cancer to the surrounding bones of the thorax.

Question 58

Positron emission tomography (PET)detects breast cancer by measuring the increased metabolism of ____ by cancerous cells.

A) carbon
B) phosphates
C) oxygen
D) sugar

Question 59

Which of the following is most effective in demonstrating a breast with an implant?

A) Mayer method
B) ACR technique
C) Eklund method
D) Sonography

Question 60

MGD is an abbreviation for:

A) modulation gradient distance.
B) mammographic glandular dose.
C) mean glandular dose.
D) microglandular dose.

Question 61

How is the head of the patient positioned for the laterally exaggerated craniocaudal projection?

A) Turned away from the side being examined
B) Turned toward the side being examined
C) Tilted toward the cassette
D) Tilted away from the cassette

Question 62

Firm compression should not be used on a breast with an implant.

Question 63

The proximal femur and the lumbar spine are preferred sites for central analysis for bone density.

Question 64

The fatty breast will usually require a reduction in exposure factors as compared with the fibroglandular breast.

Question 65

A small growth inside the duct of the breast near the nipple is termed:

A) intraductal papilloma.
B) Paget's disease.
C) gynecomastia.
D) fibroadenoma.

Question 66

Which of the following is NOT a possible risk factor for osteoporosis?

A) Estrogen deficiency
B) Alcohol abuse
C) Excessive body weight
D) Sedentary lifestyle

Question 67

What CR angle (in relationship to the IR)is required for the mediolateral (true lateral)projection?

A) 90°
B) 45°
C) 60°
D) 70°

Question 68

Noninvasive cancers (DCIS and LCIS)comprise approximately ____ of all breast cancer diagnoses.

A) 10%
B) 15% to 20%
C) 25% to 30%
D) 60% to 70%

Question 69

Which of the following is NOT a contraindication for a bone densitometry procedure?

A) Bone mass that is too low
B) Pregnancy
C) Recent vertebral augmentation
D) Childbearing age

Question 70

The most common type of breast cancer is:

A) lobular carcinoma.
B) fibroadenoma.
C) infiltrating ductal carcinoma.
D) intraductal papilloma.

Question 71

Grids are being used for most film-screen mammograms.

Question 72

What is the average,mean glandular dose for most analog breast projections?

A) 50 to 75 mrad
B) 130 to 150 mrad
C) 400 to 500 mrad
D) 800 to 900 mrad

Question 73

Fibrocystic breast is considered to be a benign condition.

Question 74

Why can AEC not be used for mammography of a breast with an implant?

A) The image will be overexposed.
B) The image will be underexposed.
C) AEC provides greater patient dose as compared with manual techniques.
D) This statement is false; AEC should be used for all studies including implants.

Question 75

A loss of ____ of trabecular bone is necessary before it can be visualized on conventional radiographs.

A) 30% to 50%
B) 10% to 20%
C) 2% to 5%
D) 60% to 70%

Question 76

How should a breast implant be moved for a craniocaudal projection?

A) It is displaced anteriorly toward the apex.
B) It is displaced posteriorly toward the chest wall.
C) It is displaced laterally.
D) No attempt should be made to move the implant because of the danger of rupture.

Question 77

What projection should be performed if a deep lesion in the axillary tissue is not seen on the exaggerated craniocaudal projection?

A) MLO-mediolateral oblique
B) CC-craniocaudal
C) MLO-mediolateral oblique.
D) AT-axial tail view

Question 78

Osteoclasts are the cells responsible for the building of new bone or bone repair.

Question 79

Breathing must be suspended for projections of the breast.

Question 80

Which of the following is NOT a technique or method of bone densitometry being performed today?

A) Quantitative ultrasound
B) Single-energy photon absorptiometry (SPA)
C) Quantitative computed tomography (QCT)
D) Dual-energy x-ray absorptiometry