Deck 6: Parole and Reentry

Question 1

Define the following terms:
-autonomous boards

Answer 1

Autonomous boards refer to governing bodies that operate independently from direct control by government or other organizations. These boards are typically established by legislation or other formal means to oversee the management and operations of public agencies, corporations, non-profit organizations, or other entities. The autonomy granted to these boards allows them to make decisions and set policies without requiring approval from higher authorities, although they may still be accountable to certain stakeholders or the public.

The key characteristics of autonomous boards include:

1. **Independence**: Autonomous boards have the authority to make decisions without external interference. This independence is crucial for the board to operate effectively and to fulfill its mandate.

2. **Governance**: These boards are responsible for the governance of the organizations they oversee. This includes setting strategic direction, ensuring financial stability, and monitoring organizational performance.

3. **Expertise**: Members of autonomous boards are often selected for their expertise and experience in relevant fields, which enables them to provide informed oversight and guidance.

4. **Accountability**: Despite their independence, autonomous boards are typically accountable to stakeholders such as the government, the public, or specific industry sectors. They may be required to report on their activities and demonstrate that they are operating in the best interests of the organization and its stakeholders.

5. **Legal Authority**: Autonomous boards are usually established through legislation or legal agreements, which define their scope of authority, responsibilities, and the framework within which they must operate.

Examples of autonomous boards include university boards of trustees, central banks, public broadcasting corporations, and regulatory agencies. These boards play a critical role in ensuring that the organizations they govern are run effectively, transparently, and in accordance with their founding principles and objectives.

Question 2

Define the following terms:
-back-door options

Answer 2

Back-door options, in the context of finance and investing, typically refer to methods by which investors can participate in the financial markets through alternative means or less direct routes than the standard or front-door approaches. These options are not literal "options" like those in options trading but are metaphorical doors representing indirect ways to achieve an investment goal. Here are a few interpretations of back-door options:

1. **Backdoor Investment in a Company**: This might involve investing in a smaller company that has a significant relationship with a larger, perhaps publicly traded, company. By investing in the smaller company, an investor might gain exposure to the performance of the larger company.

2. **Backdoor Listing or Reverse Merger**: This is a way for a private company to go public without going through the traditional initial public offering (IPO) process. Instead, the private company acquires a company that is already publicly traded, often one that is dormant or not operational, and then merges into that shell to become a publicly-traded company.

3. **Backdoor Roth IRA**: This is a strategy used by high-income earners to get around the income limits for Roth IRA contributions. It involves making a non-deductible contribution to a traditional IRA and then converting that to a Roth IRA, as conversions are not subject to income limits.

4. **Backdoor Trades**: In the context of securities, back-door options could refer to trading strategies or transactions that are not conducted through the main exchanges or typical market mechanisms. This might include private placements, direct negotiations, or other forms of over-the-counter dealings.

5. **Backdoor Pilot**: In the entertainment industry, a backdoor pilot is a movie or a standalone episode that serves as a test for a potential television series. While not directly related to finance, it's another example of using an indirect approach to achieve a goal.

It's important to note that while some back-door options are perfectly legal and legitimate strategies, others can be associated with regulatory concerns or even fraudulent activities, depending on the context and jurisdiction. Always ensure that any investment strategy complies with the relevant laws and regulations and is conducted transparently and ethically.

Question 3

Define the following terms:
-banishment

Answer 3

Banishment is the act of officially forcing someone to leave a place, especially as a punishment. It involves the expulsion of an individual from a community, society, or country, and prohibits them from returning for a specified period of time, or sometimes permanently. Historically, banishment has been used as a form of legal or social penalty, and it has been applied for various reasons, such as punishment for crimes, political dissent, or as a means of maintaining social order.

In legal terms, banishment can be a formal sentence imposed by a court, where a convicted individual is required to leave a certain jurisdiction and not return for a set period or indefinitely. In some cases, banishment may be used as an alternative to imprisonment, particularly in situations where the community or state wishes to remove a disruptive or dangerous individual without resorting to incarceration.

Banishment differs from exile in that exile is often a self-imposed departure from one's country or home, sometimes to avoid persecution or legal consequences, whereas banishment is an enforced removal dictated by a governing authority or community consensus. Despite its historical use, banishment is now relatively rare in modern legal systems and is often considered a violation of human rights, as it can render a person stateless and without the protection of any nation's laws.

Question 4

Define the following terms:
-clemency

Question 5

Define the following terms:
-collateral contacts

Question 6

Define the following terms:
-commutation of sentence

Question 7

Define the following terms:
-consolidated boards

Question 8

Define the following terms:
-determinate sentencing

Question 9

Define the following terms:
-Elmira Reformatory

Question 10

Define the following terms:
-evidence-based practices

Question 11

Define the following terms:
-executive clemency

Question 12

Define the following terms:
-executive pardon

Question 13

Define the following terms:
-expiration or unconditional mandatory release

Question 14

Define the following terms:
-front-door options

Question 15

Define the following terms:
-indentured servants

Question 16

Define the following terms:
-indeterminate sentencing

Question 17

Define the following terms:
-intermediate system

Question 18

Define the following terms:
-Irish system

Question 19

Define the following terms:
-new crime violation

Question 20

Define the following terms:
-notice of revocation of parole

Question 21

Define the following terms:
-parole d'honneur

Question 22

Define the following terms:
-parole officers

Question 23

Define the following terms:
-presumptive parole date

Question 24

Define the following terms:
-reentry

Question 25

Define the following terms:
-Reentry Movement

Question 26

Define the following terms:
-Second Chance Act of 2008

Question 27

Define the following terms:
-Sir Walter Crofton

Question 28

Define the following terms:
-Strengths-Based Case Management

Question 29

Define the following terms:
-supervised mandatory release

Question 30

Define the following terms:
-technical violation

Question 31

Define the following terms:
-ticket-of-leave

Question 32

Define the following terms:
-transportation

Question 33

Define the following terms:
-Zebulon R. Brockway

Question 34

What term represented a promise from prisoners of war who were released on the condition that they would not return to battle?

A) mea culpa
B) parole d'honneur
C) parens patriae
D) stare decisis
E) habeas corpus

Question 35

Probation is an early release mechanism that occurs while offenders are incarcerated.

Question 36

________________is where criminals are forced out their village or town for life.

A) Banishment
B) Transportation
C) Parole
D) Indentured servitude

Question 37

How was Alexander Maconochie different from former penal colony governors?

A) He treated prisoners with respect by getting to know them.
B) Built churches and schools.
C) Used flogging and chains to gain compliance.
D) a, b, and c
E) a and b

Question 38

Upon accomplishing the steps of Maconochie's mark system, what did prisoners earn?

A) full marks
B) exit slips
C) ticket-of-leave
D) parole

Question 39

In Sir Walter Crofton's intermediate system, what occurred during the initial stage?

A) Inmates earned marks by finishing assigned tasks.
B) Inmates served time in solitary confinement.
C) Inmates were worked in free society.
D) Inmates were supervised in the community.

Question 40

In Crofton's system, once prisoners earned their ticket-of-leave, they were released into the community and supervised by local police. This is similar to modern day?

A) House arrest
B) Indeterminate sentencing
C) Probation Plus
D) Parole

Question 41

What type of sentencing model works best for inmates to reduce their time imprisoned?

A) Determinate sentencing
B) Indeterminate sentencing
C) Mandatory sentencing
D) Rehabilitative sentencing

Question 42

The Elmira Reformatory implemented all of the following except?

A) Earned privileges for good behavior
B) Purposeful labor
C) Corporal punishments
D) Educational training

Question 43

What factor did not lead to the move to abolish parole in the 1980s?

A) Rehabilitation was viewed as not working
B) Determinate sentencing was seen as being incompatible with parole
C) Recidivism rates began to climb
D) Parole became too expensive

Question 44

Which two statements below best capture the dual meaning of parole?

A) Parole is the conditional release of an offender from incarceration after part of the prison sentence has been served.
B) Parole is the required discharge of an inmate to conditional supervision.
C) Parole is when an offender spends a period of time under supervision in the community.
D) a and b
E) a and c f. b and c

Question 45

Which of the following release mechanisms do not require supervision of offenders in the community?

A) Parole
B) Supervised mandatory release
C) Discretionary release
D) Expiration release

Question 46

Set shortly before arrival to prison, a ____________________ is when the inmate will be released assuming the inmate does not violate any laws or prison rules and continues to follow any treatment or other programs while incarcerated.

A) presumptive parole date
B) predetermined parole date
C) discretionary release date
D) prepared parole date

Question 47

Most members of state parole boards are elected.

Question 48

State X's parole board is comprised of individuals who are part of the department of corrections. What type of board does state X have?

A) Autonomous
B) Consolidated
C) Presumptive
D) Selective

Question 49

The United States Supreme Court has held that discretionary parole is a right of offenders and should be protected.

Question 50

Research confirms that persons released under conditional supervision tend to recidivate ________________ than those who are released outright without any supervision.

A) more
B) about the same
C) Less

Question 51

Consider the following factors that often appear on instruments that assess risk for parole success. Which ones are static factors and which ones are dynamic factors?
-Age when first admitted to a correctional facility

A) static
B) dynamic

Question 52

Consider the following factors that often appear on instruments that assess risk for parole success. Which ones are static factors and which ones are dynamic factors?
-Prior incarcerations

A) static
B) dynamic

Question 53

Consider the following factors that often appear on instruments that assess risk for parole success. Which ones are static factors and which ones are dynamic factors?
-Prison infractions and other disciplinary actions during incarceration

A) static
B) dynamic

Question 54

Consider the following factors that often appear on instruments that assess risk for parole success. Which ones are static factors and which ones are dynamic factors?
-Participation in treatment program in prison

A) static
B) dynamic

Question 55

Consider the following factors that often appear on instruments that assess risk for parole success. Which ones are static factors and which ones are dynamic factors?
-The offense that led the offender to the current prison sentence.

A) static
B) dynamic

Question 56

Even those under mandatory supervised release are supervised by parole officers.

Question 57

Which contacts noted below that parole officers make on their clients' behalf would not be considered a collateral type?

A) Parolee's employer
B) Parolee's drug treatment counselor
C) Emails to parolee
D) Phone call to community service agency

Question 58

What type of parole requires little to no contact with the parole officer over the length of time under supervision?

A) Administrative parole
B) Mandatory supervised parole
C) Probationary parole
D) Low risk parole

Question 59

Parole officers with special caseloads might supervise offenders who?

A) Have mental health needs
B) Committed certain crimes such as sex offenses
C) Have substance use disorders
D) a and b
E) a, b, and c

Question 60

Parole revocation for a technical violation is automatic.

Question 61

In parole revocation hearings, parolees are guaranteed all of the following due process rights except?

A) Right to hear evidence against them
B) Advance written notice of the alleged violation in a timely manner
C) Right to be represented by an attorney
D) The opportunity to confront and cross-examine witnesses
E) All of the above are due process rights that must be guaranteed

Question 62

A/an ______________________ of sentence grants the offender a reduction in prison time where the number of months or years remaining to be served are decreased.

A) executive pardon
B) commutation
C) revocation
D) administration

Question 63

Only federal inmates can be released early from prison.

Question 64

All of the following are examples of back-door options to reduce prison crowding and related costs, except?

A) probation
B) parole
C) prison release without supervision
D) transitional placement in a community residential facility

Question 65

Physical health problems are more prevalent among the offender population, particularly those with mental illnesses with co-occurring substance abuse problems.

Question 66

What is one of the greatest barriers to formerly incarcerated persons' successful reintegration into the community?

A) Obtaining employment
B) Finding stable housing
C) Having reliable transportation
D) All of the above

Question 67

All of the following are reasons why reliable transportation is vital for successful reentry except?

A) If under post-release supervision, without reliable transportation ex-offenders could not make office visits to their community control/parole officer.
B) Without transportation, keeping a job becomes challenging.
C) Ex-offenders without reliable transportation will be returned to prison.
D) Transportation is needed so ex-offenders can patriciate in treatment programs.

Question 68

Of all of the following legal issues, which one is critical upon release from prison?

A) Restoring lost voting rights
B) Taking care of past due child support payments
C) Reinstating driving privileges
D) Overcoming barriers that mandate occupational licenses such as those required in certain health, education, and legal professions
E) Obtaining personal identification such as driver's license or other photo identification, social security card, and birth certificate

Question 69

What did the Second Chance Act of 2008 provide?

A) financial support through federal grant funding for formalized reentry programs
B) mandatory job training for persons returning to the community after a period of incarceration
C) funding for transitional housing programs operated by state and federal corrections agencies
D) funding for each state to develop mental health courts

Question 70

Programs and services that apply the 11 Principles of Effective Intervention can expect to reduce recidivism by at least_____.

A) 10%
B) 30%
C) 50%
D) 75%

Question 71

Evidence-based practices requires the following combined elements:

A) Integration of the best research evidence
B) Clients' input regarding their values, beliefs, and concerns
C) Clinicians' expertise on services and treatments available to the client
D) a and b
E) a, b, and c

Question 72

Research studies have documented that case management approaches to service delivery ________________ recidivism among offender populations.

A) increase
B) reduce
C) have no effect on

Question 73

At the core, what makes the strengths-based case management approach unique?

A) The community is a key resource in recovery and reentry.
B) It provides for case advocacy for clients even when resources are not immediately available.
C) Assessment is an important component.
D) The client is specifically empowered to direct treatment and helping efforts.

Question 74

Describe the steps of Maconochie's mark system.

Question 75

What are two justifications for parole and two arguments against?

Question 76

What benefits do parole guidelines provide?

Question 77

Other than risk of recidivism, what are five examples of criteria that parole boards take into consideration when making decisions to grant parole?

Question 78

Besides parole and expiration of sentence, name and describe two other forms of early release from prison.

Question 79

Name and provide examples of the two mechanisms that can be utilized to reduce prison crowding and costs.

Question 80

Detail the cycle of challenges ex-offenders face when they are released from prison and how they are related.