Deck 7: Life-Span Development of the Brain and Behavior

Question 1

A vertebrate born with damage to the rhombencephalon is also likely to have damage to the

A) metencephalon.
B) mesencephalon.
C) telencephalon.
D) diencephalon.

Answer 1

A

Question 2

Trauma that affects the central nervous system of a human embryo between 22 and 24 days after fertilization would not affect

A) neural crest formation.
B) brain formation.
C) neurogenesis in the forebrain.
D) Both b and c

Answer 2

A

Question 3

Refer to the figure.
About how old is this embryo, assuming normal development, based on the figure?

A) 18 days
B) 20 days
C) 22 days
D) 24 days

Answer 3

B

Question 4

Children who have inherited PKU can be helped by

A) genotype.
B) dietary manipulation.
C) blood transfusions.
D) gene therapy.

Question 5

PKU is a hereditary disorder that involves faulty metabolism of

A) sugar.
B) alcohol.
C) lipid.
D) protein.

Question 6

Which statement regarding gene expression is true?

A) Gene expression in vertebrates is a predetermined result of mitotic lineages.
B) Environmental factors, including experience, affect gene expression and thus cell differentiation.
C) In vertebrates, gene expression in neural cells is independent of signals from the external environment.
D) Gene expression and cell differentiation in

Question 7

Which of the following is not a feature of

A) Extensive cell-cell interactions
B) Transparent bodies
C) Small number of neurons
D) Mitotic determination of cell fate

Question 8

Which of the following plays little role in the development of the nervous system of

A) Cell-cell interaction
B) Induction
C) Regulation
D) All of the above

Question 9

Based on what you know about phenylketonuria, which meal would be contraindicated for an 18-month-old child who has PKU?

A) Low-protein rice, carrots, and cantaloupe
B) Pepper, special formula, and apple
C) Tomato, grilled cheese sandwich on low-protein bread, and special formula
D) Spinach, special formula, and banana

Question 10

A relative insufficiency of oxygen is called

A) hypoxia.
B) anoxia.
C) oxygenesis.
D) redoxia.

Question 11

In neurons undergoing apoptosis, DNA is cut up by

A) caspases.
B) IAPs.
C) Diablo.
D) death genes.

Question 12

The release of Diablo within neurons is induced by an influx of _______ ions.

A) Na⁺
B) Cl^-
C) Ca²⁺
D) K⁺

Question 13

When a neuron dies, a surviving neuron that once received inputs from that cell loses some of its dendrites by a process called

A) Wallerian degeneration.
B) transneuronal degeneration.
C) retrograde degeneration.
D) sprouting.

Question 14

Most of the mitosis that will give rise to the nervous system takes place in the

A) ventricular layer.
B) forebrain.
C) intermediate layer.
D) radial glia.

Question 15

A consequence of the expression of death genes is

A) protection from invaders.
B) the cutting up of DNA.
C) the breakdown of neurotrophic factors.
D) the formation of synapses.

Question 16

Which process occurs to only a limited extent after birth?

A) Synaptogenesis
B) Glial cell formation
C) Neurogenesis
D) Myelination

Question 17

If an axon is damaged at a distance from the cell body, the portion of the axon beyond the site of injury is lost through the process of

A) anterograde degeneration.
B) retrograde degeneration.
C) transneuronal degeneration.
D) collateral sprouting.

Question 18

Wallerian degeneration is also known as

A) anterograde degeneration.
B) retrograde degeneration.
C) transneuronal degeneration.
D) synapse elimination.

Question 19

Which of the following would not be classified as "pro-apoptosis"?

A) Diablo
B) Bcl-2
C) Caspases
D) Death genes

Question 20

Which statement about apoptosis is true?

A) It refers to any kind of cell death.
B) It results from the inhibition of calcium entry into the cell.
C) It results from a molecular cascade in which a protein is released from mitochondria.
D) It results from a larger-than-normal availability of target neurons.

Question 21

When an axon is injured, the neuron that gave rise to the axon may also die through the process of

A) transneuronal degeneration.
B) retrograde degeneration.
C) synapse elimination.
D) anterograde degeneration.

Question 22

Diablo ultimately causes apoptosis because

A) it inhibits calcium influx.
B) IAPs cause its release.
C) it blocks Bcl-2 proteins.
D) it blocks IAPs.

Question 23

Refer to the figure, which shows several stages in nervous system development.
Which process is occurring in the middle frame of the figure?

A) Cell differentiation
B) Cell death
C) Synapse rearrangement
D) Synaptogenesis

Question 24

Refer to the figure.
In the process of cell migration, what is the structure indicated by the arrow?

A) A radial glial cell
B) A migrating neuron
C) The ventricular zone
D) The marginal zone

Question 25

The structural defect found in weaver mutant mice results from failure to

A) develop Purkinje cells.
B) produce radial glia.
C) undergo apoptosis.
D) develop granule cells.

Question 26

Several mutant strains of mice that display abnormal locomotion also show abnormal neuronal migration during the development of the

A) cerebellum.
B) spinal cord.
C) visual cortex.
D) musculature.

Question 27

Radial glial cells stretch between the _______ and _______ surfaces of the developing nervous system.

A) left; right
B) rostral; caudal
C) medial; lateral
D) inner; outer

Question 28

What factors are thought to guide migrating cells in the developing brain?

A) Cell adhesion molecules
B) Diablo
C) Sonic hedgehog
D) Blood vessels

Question 29

Migrating neurons are guided during migration by

A) astrocytes.
B) oligodendrocytes.
C) Schwann cells.
D) radial glia.

Question 30

The major factor that determines how many motor neurons will die during normal development is

A) target size.
B) exercise.
C) cell adhesion molecules.
D) death genes.

Question 31

Certain growing axons are prevented from crossing the midline by the _______ action of the protein _______.

A) chemoattractant; Semaphorin
B) chemorepellent; Semaphorin
C) chemoattractant; Slit
D) chemorepellent; Slit

Question 32

Refer to the figure.
What is likely to happen to the peripheral neurons in the figure?

A) The injured neuron will undergo retrograde degeneration, and the presynaptic and postsynaptic neurons will undergo transneuronal degeneration.
B) The injured neuron will degenerate, and the presynaptic and postsynaptic neurons will likely be unaffected.
C) The injured neuron will undergo Wallerian degeneration, and the presynaptic and postsynaptic neurons will likely undergo transneuronal degeneration.
D) The presynaptic neuron will remain unchanged, the injured neuron will undergo anterograde degeneration and likely regenerate axons, which will be drawn to cell adhesion molecules released by the postsynaptic neuron.

Question 33

Which of the following is(are) not associated with growth cones?

A) Filopodia
B) Mitotic lineage
C) Dendrites
D) Axons

Question 34

Grafting an extra leg onto a developing tadpole or chick results in an increased _______ of _______.

A) survival; motor neurons
B) survival; sensory neurons
C) apoptosis; motor neurons
D) apoptosis; cortical barrels

Question 35

In normal development, which molecules usually are not involved in the survival or death of neurons?

A) IAPs
B) Neurotrophic factors
C) Hormones
D) Available oxygen

Question 36

Spinal cord cells are induced to develop as motor neurons under the influence of the

A) notochord.
B) filopodia.
C) dorsal root ganglia.
D) interneurons.

Question 37

During a period of normal cell death, developing neurons are thought to compete for

A) cell adhesion molecules.
B) death genes.
C) neurotrophic factors.
D) glucose.

Question 38

The pattern of regeneration of the frog visual system supports the _______ hypothesis proposed by Sperry.

A) brain plasticity
B) chemoaffinity
C) apoptosis
D) synapse elimination

Question 39

Lead poisoning in an infant, which destroys newly forming myelin, would mostly affect the

A) forebrain.
B) cranial nerves.
C) hindbrain.
D) spinal cord.

Question 40

The number of trinucleotide repeats in the fragile site of the X chromosome is _______ from one generation to the next.

A) stable
B) increased
C) reduced
D) variable

Question 41

In fragile X syndrome, the presence of _______ trinucleotide repeats in the fragile site of the X chromosome results in mental retardation.

A) fewer than 10
B) 10 to 50
C) 51 to 200
D) more than 200

Question 42

Experience is an important factor in determining

A) which cell adhesion molecules are released.
B) which synapses are maintained.
C) when an organism's sensitive period begins and ends.
D) the sequence of an organism's genome.

Question 43

Which of the following does not decline between birth and age 24?

A) Quantity of synapses
B) Grey matter volume
C) Hippocampal volume
D) Cortical surface area

Question 44

Evidence shows that in _______ whose optic nerve has been damaged, _______.

A) adult cats; the retinal axons will grow back to the visual cortex, but not to their original positions on the visual cortex
B) adult frogs; the retinal axons will grow back to their original positions on the tectum
C) a human child; reconnecting the retinal axons when they are an adult will restore their vision
D) adult frogs; the retinal axons will grow back to the tectum, but the frog will not regain its ability to see.

Question 45

In a frog, the segregation of inputs from two eyes that are forced to innervate a single optic tectum requires

A) visual stimulation.
B) induction.
C) apoptosis.
D) degeneration.

Question 46

In frogs and other amphibians, most of the information from the eyes is directed to the

A) cortex.
B) cerebellum.
C) hypothalamus.
D) midbrain.

Question 47

If the optic nerve of a frog is cut and the eye is rotated 180 degrees, the frog will _______ that eye a few months later.

A) be blind in
B) orient normally to stimuli presented to
C) refuse to use
D) orient abnormally to stimuli presented to

Question 48

Depriving a monkey of vision in one eye early in life results in

A) the absence of neural activity in brain cells on the same side.
B) enhanced responses to stimuli received by the deprived eye.
C) profound ocular dominance.
D) minimal long-lasting changes.

Question 49

The visual problems associated with amblyopia illustrate the importance of

A) genetic control of brain development.
B) life-long plasticity of visual development.
C) induction on brain development.
D) early experience on brain development.

Question 50

If one eye of a kitten is occluded during the sensitive period, visual cortex cells later show _______ responses to visual stimuli presented to that eye.

A) increased
B) decreased
C) variable
D) spontaneous

Question 51

In the context of genetics, the term "expression" refers to

A) characteristics that are inherited.
B) the way a cell makes an mRNA transcript of a gene.
C) how a cell looks.
D) the way a cell makes a copy of a gene within DNA.

Question 52

Human identical twins are always identical in terms of

A) genotype.
B) phenotype.
C) fingerprints.
D) psychopathology.

Question 53

Research indicates that observable differences between clones or between identical twins are due to

A) experience.
B) experience and methylation.
C) genomic sequence differences.
D) teratogens.

Question 54

Which of the following would not be considered an extrinsic influence on cells?

A) Experience
B) Nutrition
C) Induction
D) Genes

Question 55

Which statement describes evidence of epigenetic effects on gene expression?

A) Synaptic remodeling proceeds in a caudal to rostral direction.
B) Identical twins have identical genes and identical phenotypes.
C) Monocular deprivation can lead to blindness in that eye.
D) Mice raised by foster parents behave more like their foster parents than their genetic parents.

Question 56

Rodent pups with an inattentive mother secrete an abnormally high amount of glucocorticoids in response to stress. In terms of epigenetics, this response is due to

A) methylation of glucocorticoids.
B) methylation of the gene for the glucocorticoid receptor.
C) decreased glucocorticoid expression.
D) inactivation of stress genes.

Question 57

Rett syndrome is due to a mutation in the _______ gene.

A) caspase 1
B) ApoE
C) MeCP2
D) APP

Question 58

Which individual with an inherited mutation in the MeCP2 gene would be the least likely to show symptoms of Rett syndrome?

A) A male whose mother has Rett syndrome but whose father is normal
B) A female whose mother and father both have Rett syndrome
C) A male whose father has Rett syndrome but whose mother is normal
D) A female whose mother has Rett syndrome but whose father is normal

Question 59

Cognitive impairment in Alzheimer's patients is most closely correlated with

A) clumps of dead neurons in the brains of Alzheimer's patients.
B) senile plaques in the brains of Alzheimer's patients.
C) abnormal tangles that include Tau.
D) patches of degrading axons.

Question 60

A person over 55 years of age shows problems with delayed memory, and MRI images show a decrease in normal volume of the hippocampal formation. PET scans show no decrease in cerebral metabolism. This person most likely has

A) senile dementia.
B) Alzheimer's disease.
C) age-related memory loss.
D) Parkinson's disease.

Question 61

Each senile plaque within the brains of patients with Alzheimer's disease contains

A) -amyloid.
B) NGF.
C) melanin.
D) neurofibrillary tangles.

Question 62

It appears that Alzheimer's disease is not simply the result of "wear-and-tear," because

A) there is pronounced cortical atrophy.
B) some people who are not highly educated may still get Alzheimer's.
C) some people live more than 105 years without developing Alzheimer's.
D) children do not develop Alzheimer's.

Question 63

The neurofibrillary tangles seen in the brains of people with Alzheimer's disease contain

A) Tau protein.
B) -amyloid.
C) presenilin.
D) ApoE.

Question 64

Which statement about the development of Alzheimer's is true?

A) People with one or two copies of the NGF gene are less likely to exhibit Alzheimer's.
B) A greater risk of developing Alzheimer's is associated with having one or more copies of the ApoE4 version of the gene for apolipoprotein
C) People with functional genes for presenilin are less likely to develop -amyloid plaques.
D) A greater risk of developing Alzheimer's is associated with having two or more copies of the ApoE version of the gene for apolipoprotein

Question 65

Which life choice would most likely reduce one's risk of developing Alzheimer's disease?

A) Sleeping at least 10 hours a day
B) Drinking a glass of red wine every day
C) Playing 18 holes of golf every day without a golf cart
D) Relaxing at home, listening to classical music and eating organically grown food

Question 66

Cognitive impairments, stunted growth, and abnormal facial features, including a sunken nasal bridge and altered shape of the nose and eyelids are associated with _______ syndrome.

Question 67

The field of study concerned with the effects of maternal factors, such as drug use, on fetal development is called _______.

Question 68

Undifferentiated _______ cells, gathered from embryos and transplanted into the brain, will differentiate and integrate properly.

Question 69

In embryonic development, the layer the nervous system arises from is the _______.

Question 70

The interior of the neural tube eventually develops into the _______ zone.

Question 71

The loss of the distal part of an axon after injury is known as _______.

Question 72

After migrating to their new positions, newly born cells undergo _______.

Question 73

Chemical factors within the brain, particularly during development, that aid in the survival of neurons are called _______.

Question 74

_______ produce myelin, which surrounds the axons of neurons and speeds conductance of electrical signals.

Question 75

A particular gene of interest may be selectively altered or disrupted through the technique called _______.

Question 76

_______ mice are animals in which a novel gene has been inserted into the animal's genome.

Question 77

In mammals, the developmental formation of _______ vision within the brain can be prevented by eliminating input from one eye.

Question 78

Amyloid precursor protein is cleaved by two enzymes, presinilin and -secretase, to form _______.

Question 79

Describe the sequence of events in the formation of the human nervous system, from conception to about ten weeks of embryonic development.

Question 80

Discuss environmental factors that can impede proper brain development in the fetus and/or neonates, including the outcomes of exposure.