Deck 10: Body Defences

Question 1

What must be available in high concentrations for bacterial multiplication to occur?

A) Potassium
B) Calcium
C) Iron
D) Glucose

Answer 1

C

Question 2

Which of the following is NOT part of the inflammatory response?

A) localized vasodilation
B) migration of neutrophils and macrophages to the site of injury
C) kinin activation
D) interferon inhibition of viral replication

Answer 2

D

Question 3

Which of the following is correct for monocytes?

A) They are the first phagocytes to exit the blood and arrive at an injured or invaded area.
B) They swell and mature into macrophages after exiting the blood.
C) They act as opsonins.
D) They may differentiate into plasma cells.

Answer 3

B

Question 4

Which statement is correct for leukocytes?

A) They are responsible for the body's various immune defence strategies.
B) They spend most of their time circulating in the blood.
C) They are all produced in the lymph nodes.
D) They are responsible for the body's various immune defence strategies and spend most of their time circulating in the blood.

Question 5

Which statement is correct for chemotaxins?

A) They are specialized antibodies.
B) They attract migrating phagocytic cells.
C) They destroy histamine and other vasodilators.
D) They engulf foreign particles.

Question 6

Which of the following is NOT a means by which viruses can lead to cellular damages or death?

A) release by the virus of enzymes or toxins that physically injure or disrupt affected cells
B) depletion of essential cellular components by the virus
C) cellular production of substances toxic to the cell under the dictatorship of the virus
D) incorporation of the virus into the cell so that the body's own defence mechanisms no longer recognize the cell as part of "normal self" and destroy it

Question 7

Which statement is correct for viruses?

A) They are single-celled microorganisms.
B) They consist only of nucleic acids enclosed by a protein coat.
C) They are single-celled microorganisms and must invade a host cell in order to carry out metabolism and reproduce.
D) They consist only of nucleic acids enclosed by a protein coat and must invade a host cell in order to carry out metabolism and reproduce.

Question 8

Which type of cells do natural killer cells destroy?

A) antibody-marked cells
B) bacteria and virus-infected cells
C) bacteria and cancerous cells
D) cancerous cells and virus-infected cells

Question 9

Which of the following is NOT a component of innate immunity?

A) Inflammation
B) antibody production
C) Interferon
D) natural killer cells

Question 10

Which occurrence is NOT characteristic of the inflammation response?

A) increased capillary permeability
B) increased macrophage activity
C) localized vasodilation
D) decreased phagocytic activity

Question 11

Which of the following is NOT attributable to the immune defence system?

A) It defends against pathogenic microorganisms.
B) It converts foreign chemicals into compounds that can be more readily eliminated in the urine.
C) It removes worn-out cells and tissue debris.
D) It identifies and destroys abnormal or mutant cells.

Question 12

Which of the following concerning neutrophils is INCORRECT?

A) Nuetrophils are produced only in lymph nodes.
B) Nuetrophils can perform phagocytosis.
C) Nuetrophils can perform diapedesis.
D) Nuetrophils can exhibit amoeboid movement.

Question 13

Which statement is correct for opsonins?

A) They enhance phagocytosis by linking the foreign cell to a phagocytic cell.
B) They are secreted by phagocytes.
C) They include antibodies and one of the activated proteins of the complement system.
D) They both enhance phagocytosis by linking the foreign cell to a phagocytic cell and include antibodies and one of the activated proteins of the complement system.

Question 14

Which of the following is correct for interferon?

A) It is a family of proteins that defends against viruses.
B) It is a natural killer cell.
C) It is a specific bacterial surface receptor.
D) It is a specialized type of white blood cell.

Question 15

By which process do neutrophils engulf foreign particles?

A) Opsonization
B) Diapedesis
C) Chemotaxis
D) Phagocytosis

Question 16

Which type of white blood cells secretes chemicals that destroy parasitic worms?

A) basophil
B) eosinophil
C) lymphocyte
D) monocyte

Question 17

What do mast cells release that brings about localized vasodilation in an inflamed area?

A) Histamine
B) Opsonins
C) interleukin 1
D) leukocyte mediator

Question 18

Which of the following is NOT attributable to complement activity?

A) acting as opsonins
B) walling off the inflamed area
C) serving as chemotaxins
D) stimulating the release of histamine

Question 19

Which of the following is NOT accomplished by a chemical released from activated phagocytes?

A) decreasing plasma iron so that it is unavailable for bacterial multiplication
B) stimulating histamine release from mast cells
C) stimulating the synthesis of viral-blocking enzymes
D) inducing the development of fever

Question 20

Which of the following is/are lymphoid tissue/s?

A) lymph nodes
B) spleen
C) liver
D) both lymph nodes and spleen

Question 21

What is a large,complex molecule that triggers a specific immune response against itself when it gains entry into the body?

A) interferon
B) antigen
C) complement
D) opsonin

Question 22

What is the most abundant immunoglobulin in the blood?

A) IgA
B) IgM
C) IgE
D) IgG

Question 23

Which of the following is NOT accomplished by interferon?

A) It directly breaks down viral messenger RNA and inhibits protein synthesis, both of which are essential for viral replication.
B) It enhances macrophage phagocytic activity.
C) It stimulates antibody production.
D) It stimulates the activity of natural killer cells and cytotoxic T cells.

Question 24

Which of the following is NOT attributable to components of the complement system?

A) formation of a membrane-attack complex
B) walling off of the inflamed area
C) serving as chemotaxins
D) acting as opsonins

Question 25

Passive immunity is NOT accomplished by transfer of which of the following?

A) IgA.
B) Interferon
C) IgG.

Question 26

Which molecules can invoke immunogenicity?

A) Compliments
B) Antibodies
C) Antigens
D) Haptens

Question 27

Which statement is correct for B lymphocytes?

A) They are responsible for antibody-mediated immunity.
B) They are activated by thymosin.
C) They mature and differentiate into macrophages.
D) They bind with foreign antigen in association with self-antigen.

Question 28

Which statement concerning endogenous pyrogen is INCORRECT?

A) It is an acute-phase protein produced by the liver.
B) It is secreted by phagocytes at a site of inflammation.
C) It induces the development of fever.
D) It is the same as or closely related to leukocyte endogenous mediator and interleukin 1.

Question 29

Which of the following is NOT accomplished by antibodies?

A) neutralization of bacterial toxins
B) direct destruction of foreign body cells
C) activation of the complement system
D) enhancement of phagocytosis

Question 30

Which statement is correct for diapedesis?

A) Diapedesis refers to the process of white blood cells engulfing and destroying invading organisms.
B) Diapedesis refers to the process of leukocytes squeezing through pores of the capillary wall into the surrounding interstitial fluid.
C) Diapedesis refers to the attraction of white blood cells to areas of injury, inflammation, and bacterial invasion.
D) Diapedesis is a feature exhibited by platelets.

Question 31

Which of the following is correct for interferon?

A) It forms a membrane-attack complex.
B) It causes lysis of invading microbes.
C) It nonspecifically defends against viruses.
D) It stimulates histamine release from mast cells.

Question 32

Which type of leukocyte has a derivative known as the plasma cell?

A) Neutrophil
B) B lymphocyte
C) T lymphocyte
D) Macrophage

Question 33

Which of the following is the INCORRECT statement about glucocorticoids?

A) Cortisol is a glucocorticoid.
B) Glucocorticoids are used to treat undesirable immune responses.
C) Glucocorticoids stimulate lymphocyte production.
D) Glucocorticoids reduce the body's ability to resist infection.

Question 34

Which of the following is NOT an outcome of complement activation?

A) promotion of localized vasodilation
B) formation of a membrane-attack complex
C) activation of kinins
D) stimulation of interferon production

Question 35

Which statement is correct for T lymphocytes?

A) They produce thymosin.
B) They secrete antibodies.
C) They are converted into plasma cells.
D) They mature and differentiate within the thymus gland.

Question 36

Which statement is correct for interferon?

A) It is released from bacteria-infected cells.
B) It triggers the production of viral-blocking enzymes by cells that have not yet been invaded by viruses.
C) It directly breaks down viral messenger RNA and inhibits protein synthesis, both of which are essential for viral replication.
D) Its secretion is decreased during exercise.

Question 37

Which of the following is correct for plasma cells?

A) They are derived from T cells.
B) They have an expanded rough endoplasmic reticulum.
C) They do not secrete antibodies but remain dormant and expand the clone specific for the invading antigen.
D) They are derived from T cells and have an expanded rough endoplasmic reticulum.

Question 38

What is the primary purpose of the vascular changes in an invaded or injured area?

A) They produce swelling, redness, heat, and pain.
B) They bring to the affected area phagocytes and plasma proteins that defend against the offending agent.
C) They produce pus.
D) They exert an anti-inflammatory effect to protect against damage by potentially overreactive defence mechanisms.

Question 39

The first human vaccination developed by Jenner _______________________

A) was for smallpox and used inoculum from cows.
B) was for anthrax.
C) used inoculum from humans.
D) used inoculum from sheep.

Question 40

Which of the following regarding IgM immunoglobulin is correct?

A) It serves as the B-cell surface receptor for antigen attachment.
B) It is found in milk and tears.
C) It mediates common allergies such as hay fever, asthma, and hives.
D) It is the most abundant antibody produced by plasma cells.

Question 41

Erythroblastosis fetalis can develop between a mother and fetus under which circumstances?.

A) Rh negative, Rh negative.
B) Rh neutral, Rh negative.
C) Rh negative, Rh positive.
D) Rh positive, Rh negative.

Question 42

Which of the ABO blood groups has both antibodies A and B?

A) A
B) AB
C) B
D) O

Question 43

Which chemical induces prolonged contraction of smooth muscle during allergic reactions?

A) basophil chemotactic factor
B) eosinophil chemotactic factor
C) Histamine
D) SRS-A

Question 44

Which of the following is INCORRECT for T cells?

A) They bind with free extracellular antigen.
B) They bind with HLA self-antigens only when they are in association with a foreign antigen.
C) They are responsible for cell-mediated immunity.

Question 45

What is NOT secreted by helper T cells?

A) B-cell growth factor
B) T-cell growth factor
C) interleukin 1
D) macrophage migration inhibition factor

Question 46

With what does the body fail to recognize and tolerate particular self-antigens?

A) delayed hypersensitivity
B) autoimmune disease
C) immune-complex disease
D) immediate hypersensitivity

Question 47

Which of the following is NOT secreted by helper T cells?

A) interleukin 2
B) Perforin
C) macrophage-migration inhibition factor
D) B-cell growth factor

Question 48

Which cells do NOT play a direct role in immune surveillance against cancer?

A) B cells
B) natural killer cells
C) Macrophages
D) cytotoxic T cells

Question 49

Which part of the antibody is Y-shaped?

A) antigen-binding fragments
B) tail portion
C) light chains
D) arm regions

Question 50

Which of the following is correct for cytotoxic T cells?

A) They can cause death of an infected host cell by releasing granzymes.
B) They secrete B-cell growth factor and T-cell growth factor.
C) They confer greater phagocytic properties on macrophages, converting them into angry macrophages.
D) They bind with class II MHC glycoproteins.

Question 51

Which of the following is FALSE of the antigen-binding fragments (Fab)of antibodies? _____________

A) located in the arm tips of the antibody molecule.
B) located in the tail portion of the antibody molecule.
C) unique for each different antibody so that each antibody can interact only with an antigen that specifically matches it.

Question 52

Which of the following does NOT apply to macrophages?

A) They participate in inflammation.
B) They process and present antigen to lymphocytes.
C) They secrete antibodies.
D) They participate in immune surveillance against cancer.

Question 53

Which of the following is NOT a way by which antibodies exert their protective influence?

A) neutralization
B) agglutination
C) direct destruction of foreign organisms
D) activation of the complement system

Question 54

What type of immune defence cell is selectively invaded by the AIDS virus?

A) cytotoxic T cells
B) helper T cells
C) suppressor T cells
D) Macrophages

Question 55

What type of T cells release perforin?

A) Cytotoxic
B) Helper
C) Suppressor
D) Regulatory

Question 56

Which of the following is correct for Type O blood?

A) It has B red blood cell surface antigens.
B) It contains both anti-A antibodies.
C) It can receive any ABO blood type without a transfusion reaction involving this blood group system.
D) It does not have any A or B red blood cell surface antigens and contains both anti-A and anti-B antibodies.

Question 57

Which statement regarding T cells is INCORRECT?

A) Cytotoxic T cells release chemicals that destroy targeted cells.
B) Helper T cells enhance the activity of other T cells and B cells.
C) Suppressor T cells are believed to play an important role in tolerance to self-antigens.
D) Helper T cells can combine only with host cells bearing both foreign antigen and class I MHC-encoded self-antigens on their surface.

Question 58

Which statement is correct for active immunity?

A) It is self-generated upon exposure to antigen.
B) It can be produced only as a result of a person actually having the disease.
C) It involves administration of preformed antibodies.
D) It is acquired in the newborn as a result of the transfer of antibodies across the placenta during intrauterine development.

Question 59

Which statement is INCORRECT for self-antigens?

A) Self-antigens are plasma membrane-bound glycoproteins.
B) Self-antigens are coded for by the major histocompatibility complex.
C) Self-antigens are present only on the surface of leukocytes.

Question 60

Lymphocytes respond only to antigens that have been processed and presented to them by which of the following?

A) neutrophils.
B) eosinophils.
C) macrophages.
D) helper T cells.

Question 61

Which of the following is NOT found in the epidermis?

A) blood vessels whose calibre can be adjusted as part of the temperature regulatory mechanisms
B) Keratinocytes
C) Melanocytes
D) Langerhans cells

Question 62

Which statement is correct?

A) T cells recognize only antigenic fragments that are processed and presented in specific ways.
B) Exogenous antigens trigger production of abnormal MHC complexes.
C) Regulatory T cells enhance both innate and adaptive immune responses.
D) Helper T cells are killer cells.

Question 63

Pathogenic bacteria induce tissue damage and produce disease by invading host cells and taking over the cellular biochemical facilities for their own purposes.

Question 64

A host cell is the body cell of an infected individual.

Question 65

Which statement regarding the epidermis is INCORRECT?

A) It has an outermost keratinized layer that is tough, airtight, and fairly waterproof.
B) It contains melanocytes, keratinocytes, Langerhans cells, Granstein cells, and transient T lymphocytes.
C) It has a richly vascularized inner layer.
D) It contains Merkel cells.

Question 66

The spleen clears the lymph that passes through it of bacteria and other foreign matter.

Question 67

Peyer's patches are located in the kidney.

Question 68

Which of the following does NOT contribute to defence of the respiratory system?

A) coughs and sneezes
B) cilia-propelled mucus escalator
C) alveolar macrophages
D) normal microbial population of the lungs

Question 69

Which of the following is INCORRECT for keratinocytes?

A) They form the outer protective layer of the skin
B) They secrete interleukin 1
C) They present antigen to helper T cells

Question 70

Which statement concerning cancer cells is INCORRECT?

A) Cancer cells arise only when multiple independent mutations occur within the same cell.
B) Cancer cells lack the ability to perform the specialized functions of the normal cell type from which they mutated.
C) The body has no means by which to defend against cancer cells.
D) Cancer cells usually do not adhere well to neighbouring cells, so some of them may break away from the parent tumour.

Question 71

If a type B negative patient is accidentally given type A positive blood,what will happen?

A) Nothing will happen because this is a safe match.
B) The patient's antibodies will begin to attack the donated erythrocytes.
C) The patient's antigens will begin to attack the donated erythrocytes.
D) The donor's antigens will begin to attack the patient's antibodies.

Question 72

Which statement is correct for autoimmune diseases?

A) They produce large numbers of abnormal leukocytes.
B) They are more common in men than in women.
C) They are caused by the lack of recognition of self-antigen by the immune system.
D) They are associated with overexposure to self antigens.

Question 73

Which statement is correct for natural killer (NK)cells?

A) They are large, specialized monocytes.
B) They ingest bacteria organisms.
C) They nonspecifically destroy virus-infected cells
D) They constitute 50-70% of all monocytes in the blood.

Question 74

Which of the following statements is true of sweat glands,which are distributed over most of the body?

A) are most common in the axilla.
B) are the same as sebaceous glands that produce sebum.
C) respond to elevated body temperature.
D) are usually attached to hair follicles.

Question 75

Vasodilation of the blood vessels supplying a tissue increases the flow of blood to that area.

Question 76

Which of the following is NOT characteristic of immediate hypersensitivity?

A) It is mediated by T cells.
B) It involves IgE antibodies.
C) It occurs within 20 minutes of exposure to the allergen.
D) It usually involves allergic responses to inhaled or ingested allergens.

Question 77

Which of the following is NOT a possible cause of autoimmune disease?

A) reduction in suppressor T cell activity
B) prolonged treatment with anti-inflammatory drugs
C) exposure of normally inaccessible self-antigens
D) exposure of the immune system to a foreign antigen almost identical structurally to a self-antigen

Question 78

Which cell type in the epidermis produces a pigment that absorbs ultraviolet light?

A) keratinocyte
B) melanocyte
C) Langerhans cell
D) Granstein cell

Question 79

Immune surveillance refers to the body's ability to resist or eliminate potentially harmful foreign invaders.

Question 80

Which of the following does NOT help defend against cancer?

A) Interferon
B) Macrophages
C) natural killer cells
D) natural antibodies