Deck 15: Understanding Vulnerable Populations, Disease Trends, and Health Behavior Theories

Question 1

_______________ have traditionally been the most frequent focus of public health initiatives.

A) Affluent people
B) The elderly
C) Vulnerable populations
D) Immigrants

Answer 1

C

Question 2

Which of the following emerged in the mid-1800s?

A) Evidence-based public health
B) Widespread use of vaccinations
C) Isolation of individuals with disease
D) Data collection and documentation of rates of disease

Answer 2

D

Question 3

Which of the following is the most recently recognized vulnerable population?

A) Young children
B) The disabled
C) The immunosuppressed
D) Those in high-risk occupations

Answer 3

C

Question 4

Which of the following illustrates the high-risk approach to addressing public health concerns?

A) A program supporting teenage cigarette smokers trying to quit
B) A national campaign encouraging citizens to exercise
C) Distribution of nutrition guidelines to parents of young children

Question 5

Which of the following best describes the demographic situation in the United States?

A) The overall population is expected to decrease in the future, while the number of those older than 65 years is expected to increase.
B) The number of those older than 65 years is expected to peak by 2040 and then gradually decline.
C) The proportion of the population older than 65 years is expected to increase from approximately 15% to 25% by 2030.
D) The number of those older than 85 years is expected to exceed the number aged 65 and 85 years by 2040.

Question 6

Why did epidemiologists conduct an age adjustment on studies linking lung cancer and smoking?

A) To ensure the study had the same number of smokers in each age group
B) To ensure that aging of the population was not the reason for increased rates of lung cancer
C) To ensure that smoking was the sole factor in increased rates of lung cancer

Question 7

Which of the following best describes the relationship between qualitative studies and quantitative studies?

A) Qualitative studies can replace quantitative studies.
B) Quantitative studies can replace qualitative studies.
C) Quantitative studies are considered superior to qualitative studies.
D) Qualitative and quantitative studies complement each other providing different types of evidence.

Question 8

A researcher wants to find out whether the rate of asthma is higher among groups of people who have been exposed to air pollution. Which kind of study should she do?

A) Population comparison (Ecological study)
B) Case-control study
C) Cohort study
D) Randomized controlled trial

Question 9

When considering whether an increase in the distribution of a disease is real or artifactual, which question would epidemiologists be most likely to ask?

A) Has there been an increased interest in identifying the disease?
B) Did the disease's definition change before the change in distribution?
C) Have there been advances in the ability to identify the disease?
D) All of these are correct.

Question 10

What is the main purpose of the RE-AIM framework?

A) To offer a framework for introducing health initiatives
B) To evaluate the effectiveness of health interventions in practice
C) To encourage health officials to implement new programs
D) None of these is correct.

Question 11

Knowing the life expectancy of a nation allows us to do which of the following?

A) Compare it to the life expectancy of other nations
B) Accurately predict the life span of the nation's population
C) Understand the impact of disabilities on people of the nation
D) Gain an understanding of the impact of specific diseases

Question 12

What do DALYs include in their measurement that HALEs do not?

A) Overall health of a nation's population
B) Average life expectancy of a nation's citizens
C) Rates of specific diseases within a nation's population
D) Quality of life of a nation's citizens

Question 13

What is a disadvantage of the inform of decision method of healthcare decision making?

A) It may be time consuming and require elaborate paperwork.
B) The patient may not participate in the implementation of the treatment.
C) It may increase emphasis on legal documents and malpractice law.
D) The patient may feel anxious about carrying too much responsibility.

Question 14

On a camping trip, Mark fears an attack by a wild animal more than he fears other, more likely dangers. This is an example of the __________ effect.

A) uncontrollability
B) familiarity
C) dread

Question 15

According to the Health Belief Model, someone who believes in their ability to make a behavioral change or take action within a situation would be exemplifying _______________.

A) perceived severity
B) cues to action
C) self-efficacy
D) perceived benefits

Question 16

Life expectancy is more adversely affected by _____________ than by a person's income.

A) ethnicity
B) religious beliefs
C) educational achievement

Question 17

The most difficult behaviors to change, such as overeating and smoking, are those that have what kind of component?

A) Emotional
B) Social
C) Environmental
D) Physiological addiction

Question 18

Which of the "4 Ps" of social marketing is used when determining the specific group that needs to be targeted and how to reach them?

A) Product
B) Price
C) Place
D) Promotion

Question 19

Which of the following health behavior theories was developed in the 1950s and is still frequently utilized today?

A) Social Cognitive Theory
B) Health Belief Model
C) Theory of Planned Behavior
D) Stages of Change Model

Question 20

Which statement about healthcare policy and law in the United States is the most accurate?

A) Federal involvement in health policy is often justified through the Interstate Commerce Clause.
B) Public health is primarily a matter of federal, rather than state, control.
C) The U.S. Constitution requires the government to protect public health.
D) State governments do not have the authority to protect public health.

Question 21

An ________________ decision is made by an individual or group that has the power to implement the decision.

A) executive
B) authoritative
C) administrative

Question 22

The epidemiological transition, or public health transition, concludes that as nations become more developed, the leading cause of death shifts from ______________ to ______________.

A) malnutrition; microbial agents
B) microbial agents; noncommunicable diseases
C) malnutrition; obesity
D) noncommunicable diseases; obesity

Question 23

Which of the following statements about screening for diseases is not true?

A) Both false positives and false negatives can occur in screening.
B) Screening usually requires two or more tests.
C) Experts often recommend screening for both low- and high-risk populations.
D) Early detection of a disease through screening may not lead to an improved outcome.

Question 24

The population health approach emphasizes which of the following?

A) Social interventions
B) Multiple interventions
C) Universal access to health care
D) Traditional public health approaches
E) All of these are correct.

Question 25

Which of the following is the most accurate statement about the human microbiome?

A) The human microbiome is made up of bacteria.
B) The human microbiome is made up of bacteria, viruses, and other organisms.
C) The human microbiome can be eliminated by antibiotics.
D) The human microbiome plays a role in disease, but not in the health of humans.

Question 26

Though it was once thought to be under good control, active _____________ returned as a public health threat shortly after the beginning of the AIDS epidemic.

A) malaria
B) smallpox
C) tuberculosis
D) polio

Question 27

Which of the following is not included in Modern Koch's postulates?

A) Evidence of an epidemiological association
B) Replication in an experimental animal
C) Isolation
D) Transmissions to establish that an organism is a contributory cause of the disease

Question 28

Which of these is not a form of barrier protection?

A) Condoms
B) Quarantine
C) Bed nets
D) Vaccines

Question 29

What is most likely to happen if there is widespread use of an antiviral drug to treat and control a communicable disease?

A) The disease will become eradicated.
B) The disease will become resistant to the drug.
C) The drug will not be available for use if a pandemic occurs.
D) The drug will produce unforeseen complications after millions of uses.

Question 30

True or False? The germ theory of disease resulted in the hygiene movement and the development of the first vaccine.

Question 31

A nation that has experienced falling childhood death rates is likely to see a dramatic drop in birth rates within a few years.

Question 32

The incidence rate and mortality rate for a disease are similar if most people who develop the disease will die from it.

Question 33

If the "quality of health measurement" used to calculate Health Adjusted Life Expectancy (HALE) is 80%, a nation's quality of health is excellent.

Question 34

How an individual copes with stress is a factor when considering the individual's relationship to his or her social system.

Question 35

There are five steps to the diagnostic phase of PRECEDE and five steps in the implementation and evaluation phase of PROCEED.

Question 36

Emergency medical personnel are required by federal law to provide health care to all people seeking emergency services.

Question 37

In the early 2000s, we have seen a rise in both emerging and reemerging communicable diseases.

Question 38

Vaccination is currently our most successful tool in the fight to control HIV.

Question 39

Net-effectiveness compares a new intervention to a standard intervention to measure the benefits minus the harms of an intervention.

Question 40

_______________ are factors that are in place long before the disease develops and may influence the development of disease.

Question 41

Presenters of health information must consider the audience's _______________, or capacity to obtain, process, and understand the material.

Question 42

When a disease has a reproduction ratio (R₀) much greater than __________, it has the potential to produce an epidemic.

Question 43

How has the meaning of the term health changed in recent years?

Question 44

Why has the health in all policies approach been proposed?

Question 45

Give one example of an imposed risk and one example of a self-imposed risk.

Question 46

What is one type of screening that should not be done, and why?

Question 47

How is herd immunity an effective method of controlling disease?

Question 48

Match each set of measures to the correct step in describing a disease.
-Incidence, prevalence, and case fatality measures

A) Couse of disease
B) Distribution of disease
C) Burden of disease

Question 49

Match each set of measures to the correct step in describing a disease.
-Person and place

A) Couse of disease
B) Distribution of disease
C) Burden of disease

Question 50

Match each set of measures to the correct step in describing a disease.
-Measures of morbidity and mortality

A) Couse of disease
B) Distribution of disease
C) Burden of disease

Question 51

Match the legislation with the correct component of health law, policy, and ethics.
-Death with Dignity Act

A) Bioethics
B) Health care
C) Public health

Question 52

Match the legislation with the correct component of health law, policy, and ethics.
-Affordable Care Act

A) Bioethics
B) Health care
C) Public health

Question 53

Match the legislation with the correct component of health law, policy, and ethics.
-Food Quality Protection Act

A) Bioethics
B) Health care
C) Public health

Question 54

Which of the following characterizes the public health trends of the early 2000s?

A) Focus on global health issues
B) Promotion of healthy decision making on an individual level
C) Integration of health care with preventive services
D) Multiple interventions to treat and control disease
E) All of these are correct.

Question 55

What is a known public health effect as a country develops?

A) Predominance of communicable diseases
B) Predominance of chronic diseases
C) Increase in birth rates
D) Decline in elderly population

Question 56

Which of the following statements about evidence-based recommendations is true?

A) Evidence-based recommendations have been used in health care for countless generations.
B) Evidence-based recommendations are concerned with the quality of the evidence and the magnitude of the impact.
C) Evidence-based recommendations are based mainly on the opinions of experts in the field.
D) Evidence-based recommendations score the quality of the evidence as acceptable or unacceptable.

Question 57

Since the 1900s, two standard measures of assessing a population's health have been _______________ and life expectancy.

A) literacy rates
B) census data
C) infant mortality rates
D) nutrition statistics

Question 58

In most developed nations, _______________ cause the majority of deaths and disabilities.

A) communicable diseases
B) noncommunicable diseases
C) environmental diseases

Question 59

Which of the following best describes why it is difficult to measure the effect of toxic substances on population health?

A) Testing for toxic chemical exposure is not widely available.
B) Negative health effects can occur many years after exposure.
C) Toxic substance exposure always occurs along with other risk factors.
D) The harmful effects of toxic substances are different in each individual.

Question 60

Which of the following does risk assessment measure?

A) The quantity and timing of exposure to a hazard
B) The route of exposure to a hazard
C) The inherent danger of exposure to a hazard
D) All of these are correct.

Question 61

Which of the following is the most accurate statement about the health impacts of the built environment?

A) The health impacts of the built environment are limited to impacts on physical activity.
B) The health impacts of the built environment are limited to impacts of the automobile.
C) The impacts of the built environment did not exist before last half of the 20^th century.
D) The built environment has important social impacts that are the focus of the Healthy Communities movement.

Question 62

Interaction analysis attempts to account for the _______________, which is not considered in risk assessment.

A) characterization of the hazard
B) effect of more than one exposure
C) dose-response data
D) health impact on other species

Question 63

What is one way the public health profession has changed in recent years?

A) The educational and professional certification process is more formalized.
B) There is less demand for public health professionals.
C) Public health professionals are less likely to work with professionals in other fields.
D) Certification is now required for those working as a public health professional in the field.

Question 64

In recent years, residency training has incorporated less of which of the following?

A) Specialization
B) Fellowship training
C) Inpatient education
D) Outpatient education

Question 65

Dermatology is an example of __________ care.

A) primary
B) secondary
C) tertiary

Question 66

Which compensation method may encourage unnecessary care?

A) Fee-for-service
B) Capitation
C) Episode of care
D) None of these is correct.

Question 67

Which of these is not a factor in the nursing shortage?

A) Improved technology
B) Aging population
C) Larger applicant pool
D) Shortage of nursing faculty

Question 68

The large majority of the hospitals in the United States are which of the following?

A) Specialized
B) Investor-owned
C) Nonprofit
D) Outpatient

Question 69

What is a difference between a rehabilitative service and a nursing home (i.e., custodial nursing homes)?

A) Rehabilitative services provide longer-term care than nursing homes.
B) Rehabilitative services provide more targeted care designed to improve health than nursing homes.
C) Nursing homes are unregulated, and rehabilitative services are regulated.
D) Nursing homes are generally for profit, and rehabilitative services are nonprofit.

Question 70

The implementation of care coordination has been most successful for which of the following?

A) Emergency responses
B) Routine care services
C) Both emergency responses and routine care services
D) None of these is correct.

Question 71

What is a current challenge to the implementation of electronic medical records?

A) Decreased efficiency
B) Potential health risks
C) Security of data
D) Lack of coordination

Question 72

For which program would an unemployed single parent with young children most likely qualify?

A) Medicare
B) Medicaid
C) Medigap

Question 73

Which of the following is the most accurate description of the accreditation of health departments?

A) Accreditation of health departments is required.
B) Accreditation of health departments utilizes the 10 Essential Public Health Services as a key framework.
C) The Foundational Health Services are required for all health departments as minimum services and capabilities by federal law.
D) Accredited health departments serve only a minority of the U.S. population.

Question 74

What is the main role of the National Institutes of Health (NIH)?

A) Health research
B) Disease control and prevention
C) Food and drug safety
D) Healthcare accessibility

Question 75

Which of the following is a main role of the World Health Organization (WHO)?

A) To regulate health services across national borders
B) To provide funding to support large health initiatives
C) To collect and standardize data
D) All of these are correct.

Question 76

Which of the following statements about the role of nongovernmental organizations (NGOs) in health care is true?

A) The involvement of NGOs in public health efforts in the United States is a relatively recent development.
B) The public health efforts of NGOs have been expanding globally in recent years.
C) NGOs are expected to work independently and rarely collaborate with public health agencies.
D) The role of NGOs is limited to providing services and not advocating for or funding public health efforts.

Question 77

Which of the following is true of the Food Safety Modernization Act of 2010?

A) It decreased FDA and USDA authority over food safety.
B) It resulted in fewer inspections of large food processors.
C) It allowed foreign food suppliers to meet lower standards than domestic suppliers.
D) It required better records to help the FDA trace food outbreaks to their source.

Question 78

What is the main purpose of SNAP?

A) To provide nutrition information to low-income women and children
B) To provide low-income people with access to healthy foods
C) To provide federal grants to states for supplemental foods
D) All of these are correct.

Question 79

Which of the following is the most accurate statement about the FDA's expedited review of drugs?

A) Expedited review of drugs does not allow the use of surrogate endpoints to evaluate the efficacy of drugs.
B) Inclusion in the breakthrough drug category implies only that the drug has the potential to treat a serious condition.
C) Approval of drugs under expedited review procedures imply the need for continued collection of safety and efficacy data post approval.
D) There is only one category of expedited review of drugs.

Question 80

Which of the following is true of phase 2 trials of drug testing?

A) Phase 2 trials attempt to provide a suggestion of a drug's efficacy.
B) Phase 2 trials consist of large, randomized controlled trials.
C) Phase 2 trials focus on the drug's pharmacology.
D) Phase 2 trials are concerned primarily with the drug's safety.