Deck 3: Types of Evidence
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Deck 3: Types of Evidence
1
Which of the following statements is not true about Federal Rule of Evidence 401?
A) Rule 401 defines relevance as "evidence having any tendency to make the existence of any fact that is of consequence to the determination of the action more probable or less probable than it would be without the evidence."
B) Rule 401 includes two different tests for relevance, only one of which must be met for evidence to be deemed relevant.
C) Rule 401 includes two different tests for evidence, both of which must be met for evidence to be deemed relevant.
D) Evidence must be material and have probative value to be deemed relevant under Rule 401.
A) Rule 401 defines relevance as "evidence having any tendency to make the existence of any fact that is of consequence to the determination of the action more probable or less probable than it would be without the evidence."
B) Rule 401 includes two different tests for relevance, only one of which must be met for evidence to be deemed relevant.
C) Rule 401 includes two different tests for evidence, both of which must be met for evidence to be deemed relevant.
D) Evidence must be material and have probative value to be deemed relevant under Rule 401.
B
2
An item is deemed ___________ if it assists in proving or disproving a fact of consequence.
A) probative
B) relevant
C) arterial
D) None of the above
A) probative
B) relevant
C) arterial
D) None of the above
C
3
Which of the following is(are) true about a fact of consequence?
A) Facts of consequence are the elements required to prove the criminal charge and the elements of any affirmative defenses relied on by the defendant.
B) Facts of consequence differ according to the criminal charge(s) filed by the prosecutor.
C) Facts of consequence differ according to the affirmative defense(s) the defendant raises.
D) All of the above are true.
A) Facts of consequence are the elements required to prove the criminal charge and the elements of any affirmative defenses relied on by the defendant.
B) Facts of consequence differ according to the criminal charge(s) filed by the prosecutor.
C) Facts of consequence differ according to the affirmative defense(s) the defendant raises.
D) All of the above are true.
D
4
Whether a material fact is more probable with the evidence than without the evidence is the test for:
A) Materiality
B) Probative value
C) Fact of Consequence
D) None of the above
A) Materiality
B) Probative value
C) Fact of Consequence
D) None of the above
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5
The logical connection between an item of evidence and the fact of consequence to be proved is the:
A) Materiality
B) Relevance
C) Probative value
D) None of the above
A) Materiality
B) Relevance
C) Probative value
D) None of the above
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6
Evidence that is relevant and material and admissible is the definition of:
A) Material evidence
B) Competent evidence
C) Relevant evidence
D) Admissible evidence
A) Material evidence
B) Competent evidence
C) Relevant evidence
D) Admissible evidence
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7
Which of the following is true?
A) Relevant evidence is that which is material and has probative value.
B) Relevant evidence is that which is material or has probative value.
C) All material evidence is relevant.
D) Evidence that has no probative value can be relevant.
A) Relevant evidence is that which is material and has probative value.
B) Relevant evidence is that which is material or has probative value.
C) All material evidence is relevant.
D) Evidence that has no probative value can be relevant.
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8
____________________ occurs when a jury disregards evidence and convicts the defendant based on a factor that is either marginally relevant or is irrelevant to the case.
A) Punishing prejudice
B) Bad logic prejudice
C) Substantial interference
D) Immateriality
A) Punishing prejudice
B) Bad logic prejudice
C) Substantial interference
D) Immateriality
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9
Specific dangers that impact the admissibility of relevant evidence include:
A) Unfair prejudice
B) Confusion
C) Misleading the jury
D) All of the above
A) Unfair prejudice
B) Confusion
C) Misleading the jury
D) All of the above
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10
The determination of whether evidence is prejudicial or falls within another ground for exclusion under Rule 403 involves the following step(s):
A) Determining the probative value of the evidence
B) Finding that one of the dangers or considerations stated in Rule 403 exist
C) Balancing the probative value of the evidence against its relevance
D) Only a & b are correct.
A) Determining the probative value of the evidence
B) Finding that one of the dangers or considerations stated in Rule 403 exist
C) Balancing the probative value of the evidence against its relevance
D) Only a & b are correct.
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11
When evidence is relevant for one issue in a trial but is prejudicial and excluded from evidence for other purposes:
A) It poses a risk that the jury might be unable to limit evidence to the proper purpose
B) A judge has the option of excluding the evidence or issuing a limiting instruction
C) It is an acceptable practice under the Federal Rules of Evidence
D) All of the above are correct.
A) It poses a risk that the jury might be unable to limit evidence to the proper purpose
B) A judge has the option of excluding the evidence or issuing a limiting instruction
C) It is an acceptable practice under the Federal Rules of Evidence
D) All of the above are correct.
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12
Which of the following methods might a judge require before allowing prejudicial photographs of a murder victim into evidence because the photographs have probative value to establishing the bullet's point of entry?
A) Limiting the number of photographs
B) Requiring the photographs to be black and white, not in color
C) Limiting the size of the photographs
D) All of the above.
A) Limiting the number of photographs
B) Requiring the photographs to be black and white, not in color
C) Limiting the size of the photographs
D) All of the above.
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13
Which of the following is incorrect regarding a judge's power under Rule 403?
A) The judge has broad discretion to admit or exclude evidence under Rule 403.
B) A judge's decision to admit or exclude evidence under Rule 403 can only be overturned based on an "abuse of judicial discretion."
C) Evidentiary rulings based on Rule 403 are rarely appealed.
D) None of the above statements are incorrect.
A) The judge has broad discretion to admit or exclude evidence under Rule 403.
B) A judge's decision to admit or exclude evidence under Rule 403 can only be overturned based on an "abuse of judicial discretion."
C) Evidentiary rulings based on Rule 403 are rarely appealed.
D) None of the above statements are incorrect.
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14
Which of the following would best describe an evidentiary alternative?
A) Rather than excluding certain evidence, the judge may require the prosecution or defense to rely on a less prejudicial alternative.
B) Requiring the prosecution to use a diagram instead of an inflammatory photograph is an example of an evidentiary alternative.
C) Both a and b are correct.
D) Neither a nor b is correct.
A) Rather than excluding certain evidence, the judge may require the prosecution or defense to rely on a less prejudicial alternative.
B) Requiring the prosecution to use a diagram instead of an inflammatory photograph is an example of an evidentiary alternative.
C) Both a and b are correct.
D) Neither a nor b is correct.
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15
Which of the following is not a reason to exclude evidence under Rule 403?
A) Evidence may be excluded to encourage the efficient presentation of evidence.
B) Evidence may be excluded if the evidence might confuse the jury.
C) Evidence may be excluded if it is repetitive.
D) All of the above are reasons evidence may be excluded under 403.
A) Evidence may be excluded to encourage the efficient presentation of evidence.
B) Evidence may be excluded if the evidence might confuse the jury.
C) Evidence may be excluded if it is repetitive.
D) All of the above are reasons evidence may be excluded under 403.
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16
Seven eyewitnesses testifying to the same event is an example of ____________ evidence, and the judge might limit the number of testifying witnesses to three or four to limit repetitive testimony.
A) confusing
B) misleading
C) cumulative
D) conflicting
A) confusing
B) misleading
C) cumulative
D) conflicting
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17
_____________ evidence is evidence, which if believed by the jury, establishes a fact at issue.
A) Probative
B) Material
C) Direct
D) Circumstantial
A) Probative
B) Material
C) Direct
D) Circumstantial
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18
_________________ evidence is evidence from which a fact at issue may be inferred.
A) Probative
B) Material
C) Direct
D) Circumstantial
A) Probative
B) Material
C) Direct
D) Circumstantial
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19
Witness testimony that the witness saw the defendant running from the crime scene is an example of:
A) Repetitive evidence
B) Direct evidence
C) Circumstantial evidence
D) Needless evidence
A) Repetitive evidence
B) Direct evidence
C) Circumstantial evidence
D) Needless evidence
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20
Which of the following is(are) true about circumstantial evidence?
A) The law of evidence gives circumstantial evidence equal weight with direct evidence.
B) A judge can exercise his discretion whether to admit circumstantial evidence.
C) Neither a nor b is true.
D) Both a and b are true.
A) The law of evidence gives circumstantial evidence equal weight with direct evidence.
B) A judge can exercise his discretion whether to admit circumstantial evidence.
C) Neither a nor b is true.
D) Both a and b are true.
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21
The _______________ decides whether circumstantial evidence, if believed, is evidence of the defendant's guilt.
A) judge
B) jury
C) law
D) police
A) judge
B) jury
C) law
D) police
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22
Trial evidence is divided into two types: testimonial and __________.
A) direct
B) circumstantial
C) real
D) expert
A) direct
B) circumstantial
C) real
D) expert
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23
______________ evidence is oral communication by a competent witness given under oath or affirmation in a judicial proceeding.
A) Direct
B) Circumstantial
C) Testimonial
D) Expert
A) Direct
B) Circumstantial
C) Testimonial
D) Expert
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24
Which of the following would be considered a fact witness?
A) A person who saw the crime as it was happening
B) A person who overheard the defendant making statements about his or her involvement in the crime
C) A person who witnessed the defendant leaving the crime scene
D) All of the above
A) A person who saw the crime as it was happening
B) A person who overheard the defendant making statements about his or her involvement in the crime
C) A person who witnessed the defendant leaving the crime scene
D) All of the above
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25
A(n) _________________ witness possesses specialized knowledge and expertise that is not commonly possessed by the average person.
A) lay
B) expert
C) professional
D) fact
A) lay
B) expert
C) professional
D) fact
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26
Which of the following witnesses do not testify about facts of the case?
A) An expert witness
B) A fact witness
C) A character witness
D) All of the above testify to facts of the case.
A) An expert witness
B) A fact witness
C) A character witness
D) All of the above testify to facts of the case.
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27
Real evidence differs from testimonial evidence in that real evidence:
A) Is physical evidence
B) Is evidence that can be seen, felt, or smelled
C) Must be authenticated by a witness who testifies to the genuineness of the evidence
D) All of the above are correct.
A) Is physical evidence
B) Is evidence that can be seen, felt, or smelled
C) Must be authenticated by a witness who testifies to the genuineness of the evidence
D) All of the above are correct.
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28
At Mary's criminal trial, Jim testifies that he heard Mary threaten to kill Bob, the victim. What type of evidence is Jim offering at trial?
A) Testimonial evidence
B) Real evidence
C) Circumstantial evidence
D) Both a and c
A) Testimonial evidence
B) Real evidence
C) Circumstantial evidence
D) Both a and c
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29
A criminal conviction may be based on what type of evidence?
A) Direct evidence
B) Circumstantial evidence
C) A combination of direct and circumstantial evidence
D) A criminal conviction may be based on all of the above.
A) Direct evidence
B) Circumstantial evidence
C) A combination of direct and circumstantial evidence
D) A criminal conviction may be based on all of the above.
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30
Which of the following statements is true?
A) Real evidence can be documentary or demonstrative.
B) Real evidence can be real-testimonial evidence.
C) Real evidence is oral and given under oath or affirmation
D) Both a and b are true.
A) Real evidence can be documentary or demonstrative.
B) Real evidence can be real-testimonial evidence.
C) Real evidence is oral and given under oath or affirmation
D) Both a and b are true.
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31
Which of the following is a reason why the parties to a criminal case might enter into a stipulation?
A) By agreeing on certain facts, the parties avoid wasting time.
B) One side knows that the other party can easily establish a fact.
C) A defense attorney may want to avoid facts that may prejudice the jury against the defendant.
D) All of the above are reasons why the parties to a criminal case might enter into a stipulation.
A) By agreeing on certain facts, the parties avoid wasting time.
B) One side knows that the other party can easily establish a fact.
C) A defense attorney may want to avoid facts that may prejudice the jury against the defendant.
D) All of the above are reasons why the parties to a criminal case might enter into a stipulation.
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32
__________ is a voluntary agreement between opposing parties in a trial to accept a fact as true for the purposes of trial.
A) A stipulation
B) Judicial notice
C) A presumption
D) Finding of guilt
A) A stipulation
B) Judicial notice
C) A presumption
D) Finding of guilt
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33
______________ allows a judge to recognize a fact as true without the need to hear from a witness or view an exhibit.
A) A stipulation
B) Judicial notice
C) A presumption
D) Finding of guilt
A) A stipulation
B) Judicial notice
C) A presumption
D) Finding of guilt
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34
Which of the following statements is incorrect?
A) Not all states have statutes that permit judicial notice of facts.
B) Federal Rule of Evidence 201 governs judicial notice of an adjudicative fact.
C) Under the Federal Rules of Evidence, judicial notice can be discretionary or mandatory.
D) Judicial notice may be taken at any stage during a criminal proceeding.
A) Not all states have statutes that permit judicial notice of facts.
B) Federal Rule of Evidence 201 governs judicial notice of an adjudicative fact.
C) Under the Federal Rules of Evidence, judicial notice can be discretionary or mandatory.
D) Judicial notice may be taken at any stage during a criminal proceeding.
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35
An example of facts within common knowledge is:
A) Beer is an intoxicant.
B) The defendant is a drug addict.
C) A county medical examiner is qualified to testify as an expert.
D) Eye-witness testimony is undisputable and reliable evidence.
A) Beer is an intoxicant.
B) The defendant is a drug addict.
C) A county medical examiner is qualified to testify as an expert.
D) Eye-witness testimony is undisputable and reliable evidence.
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36
Why should judicial notice be used with caution?
A) The fact noticed may later be proven to be incorrect.
B) Judicial notice of a fact alleviates some of the prosecution's burden to prove the defendant's guilt beyond a reasonable doubt.
C) Judicial notice may be mistaken by the jury for an admission of guilt.
D) Judicial notice may mislead the jury into thinking that there are no adjudicative facts.
A) The fact noticed may later be proven to be incorrect.
B) Judicial notice of a fact alleviates some of the prosecution's burden to prove the defendant's guilt beyond a reasonable doubt.
C) Judicial notice may be mistaken by the jury for an admission of guilt.
D) Judicial notice may mislead the jury into thinking that there are no adjudicative facts.
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37
What are the two categories of presumptions?
A) Conclusive and rebuttable
B) Conclusive and irrebuttable
C) Rebuttable and permissive
D) Conclusive and inferred
A) Conclusive and rebuttable
B) Conclusive and irrebuttable
C) Rebuttable and permissive
D) Conclusive and inferred
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38
Which of the following statements is true?
A) For a conclusive presumption, the judge instructs the jury that, if they believe the basic fact has been established, they are not required to accept that proof of the basic fact establishes the presumed fact.
B) For a rebuttable presumption, the judge instructs the jurors that, if they believe the basic fact, they are required to accept the presumed fact.
C) A conclusive presumption requires that proof of a basis fact establishes the presumed fact.
D) A conclusive presumption permits but does not require the jury to infer the presumed fact from the basic fact.
A) For a conclusive presumption, the judge instructs the jury that, if they believe the basic fact has been established, they are not required to accept that proof of the basic fact establishes the presumed fact.
B) For a rebuttable presumption, the judge instructs the jurors that, if they believe the basic fact, they are required to accept the presumed fact.
C) A conclusive presumption requires that proof of a basis fact establishes the presumed fact.
D) A conclusive presumption permits but does not require the jury to infer the presumed fact from the basic fact.
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39
Which of the following accurately reflect why presumptions are part of the criminal trial process?
A) Use of presumptions delays trials as it makes it harder to establish a fact or element of the crime.
B) Use of presumptions is contrary to desirable social policy.
C) Use of presumptions aids a party who lacks access to information by placing the burden of producing evidence on the more informed party.
D) Use of presumptions hinders the jury's decision-making ability.
A) Use of presumptions delays trials as it makes it harder to establish a fact or element of the crime.
B) Use of presumptions is contrary to desirable social policy.
C) Use of presumptions aids a party who lacks access to information by placing the burden of producing evidence on the more informed party.
D) Use of presumptions hinders the jury's decision-making ability.
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40
A single piece of evidence is required to establish a material fact on its own.
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41
All material evidence is relevant.
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42
Federal Evidence Rule 403 gives the judge limited discretion to admit or exclude evidence.
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43
Photographs of the body of a murder victim are considered prejudicial and, as such, are inadmissible in the defendant's trial.
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44
Some evidence is specifically excluded from trial by law (statute).
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45
A judge's decision to admit or exclude evidence under Rule 403 can be easily overturned on appeal.
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46
Evidence that the defendant was with the victim on the night of the murder is an example of relevant evidence.
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47
Bad logic prejudice happens when a jury disregards the evidence and convicts the defendant based on a factor that is only marginally relevant or is irrelevant to the case.
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48
Misleading evidence is another name for confusing evidence.
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49
Real evidence is evidence that you can touch, feel, or smell.
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50
Testimonial evidence applies only to evidence that is presented orally and under oath or affirmation.
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51
Circumstantial evidence is said to establish fact in a roundabout fashion
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52
Evidence that the defendant's DNA was found at the crime scene is an example of real evidence.
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53
A written confession is an example of documentary evidence.
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54
Re-creating the crime scene during a criminal trial is an example of documentary evidence.
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55
A presumption is the same as an inference.
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56
A judge can ignore a request to take judicial notice even if he request meets the criteria stated in Rule 201.
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57
A judge's personal experience or expertise can serve as his or her sole basis for taking judicial notice.
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58
Significant historical figures and events are considered facts within common knowledge and can be judicially noticed.
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59
A jury must accept a judicially noted fact as true.
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60
Explain what is meant by the requirement that evidence must be material and have probative value in order to be relevant.
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61
The prosecution wants to introduce photographs of the murder scene into evidence at trial. What tests would the judge conduct to determine if the pictures should be admitted as relevant evidence?
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62
John witnessed the murder of Ben and was able to identify the gun that the defendant used to shoot Ben. What types of evidence can John contribute to the prosecution's case?
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63
What types of demonstrative evidence might a lawyer use to help the trier of fact understand the facts involved in the case?
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64
Explain the difference between a conclusive presumption and a rebuttable presumption.
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65
Explain the importance of admitting only evidence that is relevant into a criminal trial.
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66
Under what circumstances does a judge have discretion to exclude relevant evidence under Rule 403?
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67
Explain the process for judicial notice of an adjudicative fact and the impact judicial notice has on the prosecutor's burden of proof and on the jury's deliberations.
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68
Discuss the interests advanced that motivate judges to encourage parties to enter into stipulations.
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