Deck 1: Health Psychology

Question 1

Justin has been experiencing headaches and gastrointestinal complaints, but his physician hasn't found any physical cause for these problems. This is an example of:

A) Psychological illness
B) Psychosomatic illness
C) Somatization disorder
D) Hypochondriasis
E) Conversion disorder

Answer 1

C

Question 2

Jasmine has frequently been going to the physician and complaining of headaches. The physician has told her repeatedly that they are most likely due to dehydration; however, she is convinced that she is at risk of a brain tumor. This is an example of:

A) Psychological illness
B) Psychosomatic illness
C) Somatization disorder
D) Hypochondriasis
E) Conversion disorder

Answer 2

D

Question 3

Damian has recently crashed his bike and is no longer able to move his leg. However, upon examination, his leg is not physically injured in any way (i.e. no sprain, broken bones, etc…). This is an example of:

A) Psychological illness
B) Psychosomatic illness
C) Somatization disorder
D) Hypochondriasis
E) Conversion disorder

Answer 3

E

Question 4

Which of these personality dimensions do not contribute to an individual's resilience?

A) High levels of self-esteem
B) High levels of self-efficacy
C) Hardiness
D) Optimism
E) External locus of control

Question 5

Which of these statements is false?

A) The distress associated with illness can lead to psychological disorders
B) Sick individuals may adopt the identity of 'the sick person'
C) Two individuals who are equally ill may differ in respect of their apparent wellness
D) Well-being and illness are two discrete categories that fall on a continuum
E) Comorbidities occur with most illnesses

Question 6

Which of these is the best predictor of heart disease?

A) Depression
B) Gender
C) Sedentary lifestyle
D) Socio-economic status
E) Family history

Question 7

What is another way of referring to the susceptibility of an individual or group to develop certain psychological or physical disturbances in response to external or internal triggers?

A) Vulnerability
B) Resilience
C) Comorbidity
D) Risk
E) Predictive medicine

Question 8

What defines an individual's propensity to overcome an illness, as well as the ability of an individual to withstand the effects of stressful events that would ordinarily lead to a pathological condition?

A) Vulnerability
B) Resilience
C) Comorbidity
D) Strength
E) Predictive medicine

Question 9

Which of these is the term used when many illnesses appear to be linked with one another so that when one particular illness occurs, it might be predictive of others developing?

A) Vulnerability
B) Resilience
C) Comorbidity
D) Increased risk
E) Predictive medicine

Question 10

Biomarkers for various diseases can be used to inform the patient of their:

A) Personal risk
B) Genetic code
C) Level of fertility
D) Family history
E) Mental state

Question 11

What is the leading cause of death in western countries (such as the UK, Europe, and North America)?

A) Heart and circulatory disorders
B) Cancer
C) Respiratory disorder
D) Nervous system disorders
E) Suicide

Question 12

When a third variable (e.g., gender) is found to interact with, and affect, either the direction or strength of the relationship between two other variables (e.g., stress and heart disease), the third variable would be classified as what?

A) Mediator
B) Moderator
C) Predictor
D) Dependent variable
E) Interacting variable

Question 13

A particular variable (e.g., stress) is found to be related to a second variable (e.g., inflammation), which, in turn, is associated with an outcome variable (e.g., heart disease). Furthermore, if the second variable (inflammation) were controlled for, the relation between stress and heart disease is reduced. In this instance, inflammation is considered to be a _____.

A) Mediator
B) Moderator
C) Predictor
D) Dependent variable
E) Interacting variable

Question 14

A researcher believes that a sequence of events is related to particular outcomes, and therefore wishes to evaluate the paths through which these instances are related. What kind of analysis would they therefore run?

A) Structural equation modeling
B) Sequential equation modeling
C) Sequential path analysis
D) Structural path analysis
E) Series equation analysis

Question 15

Epidemiological research focuses on?

A) How often and why diseases occur in different groups of people
B) The attributes of diseases that may be life-threatening
C) Epidermal (skin) diseases
D) Only the transmission of infectious diseases
E) Only diseases of aging

Question 16

An index of how many people within a fixed number are afflicted with an illness is called what?

A) Odds ratio
B) Prevalence
C) Incidence
D) Risk
E) None of the above

Question 17

The frequency of an illness in a population over a set period of time is referred to as what?

A) Odds ratio
B) Prevalence
C) Incidence
D) Risk
E) Morbidity

Question 18

What is a case control study?

A) A study in which individuals with an illness are compared to individuals with a similar illness
B) A study in which one individual is assessed to identify the factors responsible for the illness
C) A study in which two groups with similar illnesses are compared to a third group with a different illness
D) A study in which individuals with an illness are compared to another group who does not have the illness
E) A study in which individuals with an illness are assessed before diagnosis of the illness, and again after receiving treatment for the illness

Question 19

The difference observed between participants within a particular group is referred to as?

A) Cohort effects
B) Individual characteristics
C) Experimental error
D) Variability
E) Inconsistency

Question 20

As part of program evaluations, small collectives of individuals may be interviewed or assessed with other qualitative approaches. What are these collections of individuals called?

A) Seminar group
B) Interview panel
C) Panel group
D) Study group
E) Focus group

Question 21

In a meta-analysis, what two aspects are assessed to derive an estimate of how meaningful results are from reported studies?

A) Level of significance and population of individuals sampled
B) Inclusion and exclusionary criteria
C) The strength of associations between variables and the population sampled
D) The effect sizes and number of participants
E) Who the researchers were that published the studies

Question 22

Papers that review literature to provide an up-to-date assessment of the published work in a particular field are referred to as?

A) Dissertation
B) Systematic review
C) Overview report
D) Summary paper
E) Meta-analysis

Question 23

What does the power of a test refer to?

A) How impactful the test is
B) The ability of a test to handle a certain number of variables or participants
C) How robust the test is to systematic flaws in the data
D) The ability to detect a significant difference
E) An index of how efficient a test is at crunching numbers

Question 24

These types of receptors tell the neuron to slow down the production of the neurotransmitter:

A) Postsynaptic receptors
B) Transporters
C) Regulatory receptors
D) Autoreceptors
E) Inhibitory receptors

Question 25

The process through which a neurotransmitter is transported back into the cell is called:

A) Reutilization
B) Recycling
C) Degradation
D) Diffusion
E) Reuptake

Question 26

Which of the following is not a type of glial cell?

A) Oligodendrocytes
B) Astrocytes
C) Microglia
D) Lymphocytes
E) All of these are types of glial cells

Question 27

Which of the following cell types is involved in myelination?

A) Oligodendrocytes
B) Covalent neurons
C) Dendrocytes
D) Lymphocytes
E) Cytokines

Question 28

Adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH) enters the bloodstream and upon reaching the adrenal gland, it stimulates the release of _______.

A) Corticotropin releasing hormone (CRH)
B) Cortisol
C) Testosterone
D) Estrogen
E) Oxytocin

Question 29

_______ promotes satiety, whereas _______ promotes hunger.

A) Oxytocin; insulin
B) Ghrelin; luteinizing hormone
C) Ghrelin; neurotrophin
D) Leptin; ghrelin
E) Insulin; leptin

Question 30

Diabetes has been primarily associated with disturbances in which hormone?

A) Leptin
B) Ghrelin
C) Testosterone
D) Estrogen
E) Insulin

Question 31

Which of the following hormones is important in dominance challenges and aggressive behaviors?

A) Testosterone
B) Estrogen
C) Insulin
D) Ghrelin
E) Oxytocin

Question 32

The primary function of prolactin is to promote which of the following?

A) Aggression
B) Withdrawal
C) Lactation
D) Anhedonia
E) Anxiety

Question 33

Which of the following hormones has been implicated in prosocial behaviors?

A) Oxytocin
B) Cortisol
C) Leptin
D) Testosterone
E) Estrogen

Question 34

Which of the following substances are considered fundamental to cellular growth and proliferation, and are best known for their capacity to enhanced neuroplasticity?

A) Orexigenic factors
B) Neurogenic proteins
C) Optogenetic molecules
D) Neurotrophins
E) Anxiolytic peptides

Question 35

Which type of immunity develops during the course of prenatal development?

A) Adaptive
B) Innate
C) Cellular
D) Acquired
E) Humoral

Question 36

Macrophage remove dead cells as well as attack and engulf microorganisms through a process called:

A) Exocytosis
B) Lysis
C) Cannibalism
D) Apoptosis
E) Phagocytosis

Question 37

T-helper cells and B cells are examples of:

A) Macrophages
B) Lymphocytes
C) Natural killer cells
D) Neutrophils
E) Monocytes

Question 38

Immune cells communicate through the release of which type of signaling molecules?

A) Cytokines
B) Neurotransmitters
C) Hormones
D) Peptides
E) Cell phones

Question 39

Which of the following is an example of an anti-inflammatory cytokine?

A) IL-1β
B) IL-6
C) TNF-α
D) IL-4
E) IFN

Question 40

The nervous system of the gut is referred to as the _______ nervous system.

A) Gastro-intestinal
B) Enteric
C) Biogenic
D) Neuro-intestinal
E) Anxiogenic

Question 41

What might children of trauma survivors do when learning about their family's experiences through subtle, nonverbal communications?

A) Forget about it
B) Try and sympathize with their parents and move on
C) Learn from the past and fill in the blanks where necessary
D) Ignore the information as they are not cognitively mature to understand
E) Develop negative attitudes towards their own culture

Question 42

In contrast to individuals that are considered the black sheep, what term is used to refer to individuals with a unified social identity?

A) Entitativity
B) Social connectedness
C) Social homogeneity
D) Identivity
E) White sheep effect

Question 43

Recent imaging research using functional magnetic resonance imaging concluded that:

A) Emotional pain results in activation of the medial-posterior occipital lobe
B) Emotional pain activates lateral geniculate nucleus of the thalamus
C) Emotional pain activates regions similar to that of physical pain
D) Emotional pain causes activation of the ventral posterior cingulate cortex
E) Emotional pain causes bilateral activation of the vestibular nuclei in the thalamus

Question 44

Which psychological theorist was an early advocate for the notion of early-life events having profound influences later in life?

A) Wilhelm Wundt
B) B.F. Skinner
C) Sigmund Freud
D) Jean Piaget
E) Ernest Fidel

Question 45

What is the term used for agents that pose a potential harm to a fetus during pregnancy?

A) Pathogen
B) Mutagen
C) Vitogen
D) Teratogen
E) Toxicogen

Question 46

Prenatal stressors are believed to promote the development of a number of both physical and psychological disorders. Among those discussed were the rubella and influenza epidemics that were associated with a marked increase of which disorder?

A) Bipolar disorder
B) Schizophrenia
C) Autism spectrum disorder
D) Autoimmune disorders
E) Epilepsy

Question 47

Which of the following factors does not contribute to the development of autism spectrum disorder?

A) Very premature birth
B) Epigenetic changes
C) Chronically elevated immunological factors
D) MMR (measles, mumps and rubella) vaccine
E) The mother has particular antibodies that bind to fetal brain proteins

Question 48

Joan was recently referred to a psychologist to undergo treatment for anxiety. Upon her first consultation, she discussed issues related to her upbringing, particularly her mother's struggles with depression and alcohol abuse, and her father's lack of affection. Joan's experiences with her parents are examples of which kind of abuse?

A) Commensal
B) Physical
C) Emotional
D) Dimorphic
E) Traumatic

Question 49

Stressors can have negative consequences, such as developing both physical and biological pathologies. However, tolerable stressors that are encountered early in life may _______.

A) Facilitate learning of ways to cope with the stressor later on
B) Be more detrimental than traumatic stressors on physical well-being
C) Delay cognitive development of a child
D) Promote the development of negative coping strategies
E) Become more sensitive to smaller stressors later on

Question 50

Which term is used to refer to the stressors a group has historically experienced, and that has been passed down across generations through oral and written teachings?

A) Historical stressors
B) Collective stressors
C) Collective trauma
D) Shared trauma
E) Historical trauma

Question 51

What might children of trauma survivors do when learning about their family's experiences through subtle, nonverbal communications?

A) Forget about it
B) Try and sympathize with their parents and move on
C) Learn from the past and fill in the blanks where necessary
D) Ignore the information as they are not cognitively mature to understand
E) Develop negative attitudes towards their own culture

Question 52

Stressors that influence neuronal activity within the anterior cingulate cortex contribute to:

A) Vigilance and appraisals
B) Vigilance and decision making
C) Eating and appraisals
D) Appraisals and decision making
E) All of the above

Question 53

A potential biomarker to predict resilience is:

A) Neuropeptide Y
B) GABA
C) CRH
D) Glutamate
E) Serotonin

Question 54

In response to stress, the release of cortisol in the presence of insulin results in:

A) Decreased high calorie food consumption
B) Increased low calorie food consumption
C) Increased high calorie food consumption
D) No change in food consumption
E) Cravings for celery

Question 55

Ghrelin activation in response to an acute stressor may:

A) Increase anxiety
B) Reduce appropriate coping
C) Increase depressive-like states
D) Decrease eating
E) Decrease anxiety

Question 56

_______ may serve to limit HPA axis activity.

A) Serotonin
B) Estrogen
C) Norepinephrine
D) Progesterone
E) BDNF

Question 57

In response to stressors, prolactin is:

A) Increased
B) Decreased
C) Unchanged
D) Increased only during the peripartum period
E) Increased only among mothers

Question 58

Upon stressing a lactating rodent mom:

A) HPA activity is elevated
B) HPA activity is attenuated
C) HPA activity is attenuated if the mom was recently in contact with her pups
D) HPA activity is elevated if the mom was recently in contact with her pups
E) HPA activity is attenuated if the mom was not recently in contact with her pups

Question 59

The tend and befriend effect has largely been attributed to _______:

A) Estrogen
B) Cortisol
C) Oxytocin
D) Progesterone
E) None of the above

Question 60

The social sensitivity view of oxytocin suggests that:

A) Oxytocin always has positive prosocial effects
B) Oxytocin decreases sensitivity to social stimuli
C) Low oxytocin levels are beneficial
D) Oxytocin increases sensitivity to social stimuli
E) High oxytocin levels are beneficial

Question 61

Stress-related depression has been attributed to:

A) Decreased BDNF the in hippocampus
B) Decreased BDNF in prefrontal cortex and increased BDNF in hippocampus
C) Increased BDNF in the prefrontal cortex and the hippocampus
D) Decreased BDNF in the prefrontal cortex
E) No changes in BDNF

Question 62

The immune system can detect danger through the:

A) Anti-inflammatory cytokines
B) Pro-inflammatory cytokines
C) Reactive oxytocin species
D) Damage molecular pattern molecules
E) Divergent molecular pattern molecules

Question 63

Psychological stress results in:

A) Very high levels of IL-1β in blood
B) Reduced levels of anti-inflammatory cytokines
C) Elevated IL-6
D) Reduced IL-6
E) No cytokine changes, as cytokines are not influenced by psychological stress

Question 64

Low social status is associated with:

A) Elevated cytokine responses to stress compared to people with cynical distrust
B) Exaggerated cytokine responses to stress
C) Limited cytokine responses to stress
D) Lower cytokine responses to stress compared to people with cynical distrust
E) Enhanced NK cell activity

Question 65

This cytokine, although used to treat some forms of cancer, can induce severe depression:

A) Interferon-β
B) Interferon-γ
C) IL-6
D) TNF- α
E) Interferon-α

Question 66

Inflammatory immune activation can result in:

A) Reduce GABA in limbic regions
B) Increased utilization of monoamines in the prefrontal cortex and hippocampus
C) Reduced glutamate in limbic regions
D) Decrease utilization of monoamines in the prefrontal cortex and hippocampus
E) Reduced CRH levels

Question 67

What is the most effective way of bridging the intention-behavior gap in relation to health behaviors?

A) Increasing your self-motivation and fostering a desire to "be a better person"
B) Forming specific plans and setting clear goals
C) Having someone else monitor your behavior thoroughly
D) Forcing yourself to change your behavior suddenly, such as going cold turkey on cigarettes or starting an intensive new diet
E) There isn't much you can do to bridge the gap - some people are unable to motivate themselves enough to engage in regular health behaviors

Question 68

When encouraging healthy behaviors via education, phrasing a message empathetically ("quitting smoking may give you extra years to enjoy with your family") rather than negatively ("you will die earlier if you keep smoking") is referred to as the _______:

A) Framing effect
B) Empathy effect
C) Negativity effect
D) Self-affirmation effect
E) Nesbitt's effect

Question 69

Which model/theory is the following statement most consistent with? "Smoking puts me at risk of cancer - however, I can stop smoking and reduce my risk of cancer."

A) The Health Belief Model
B) Protection Motivation Theory
C) The Theory of Reasoned Action
D) The Theory of Planned Behavior
E) The Transtheoretical Model

Question 70

Which two elements are found in the protection motivation theory of health related behaviors?

A) Self-efficacy and self-affirmation
B) Self-efficacy and response efficacy
C) Self-affirmation and response efficacy
D) Modeling and self-efficacy
E) Modeling and self-affirmation

Question 71

Which model/theory is the following statement most consistent with? "In 2010, I was terrified that I would get swine flu. Because of this fear, I got vaccinated as soon as I could."

A) The Health Belief Model
B) Protection Motivation Theory
C) The Theory of Reasoned Action
D) The Theory of Planned Behavior
E) The Transtheoretical Model

Question 72

If someone is confident in relation to their ability to engage in particular behavior successfully, we call this _______:

A) Modeling
B) Self-affirmation
C) Self-efficacy
D) Self-response
E) Pride

Question 73

Which model/theory is the following statement most consistent with? "Most people don't smoke anymore or find it disgusting; quitting smoking will probably reduce my risk of several illnesses, and it will also mean that I won't have to spend time freezing outside in the winter - I should quit smoking."

A) The Health Belief Model
B) Protection Motivation Model
C) The Theory of Reasoned Action
D) The Theory of Planned Behavior
E) The Transtheoretical Model

Question 74

Which model/theory is the following statement most consistent with? "I'm at risk of several weight-related disorders and want to start eating healthier as well as exercising - this will be good for my health and I will probably start feeling better pretty quickly. Within the next couple of weeks, I'm going to limit take-out to only once a week and will go on walks, and within a few months, I'll progress to cooking my own meals at least three days a week and my walks will start to turn into jogs."

A) The Health Belief Model
B) Protection Motivation Model
C) The Theory of Reasoned Action
D) The Theory of Planned Behavior
E) The Transtheoretical Model

Question 75

Which of these is not a criticism of the Transtheoretical model?

A) The causal connection between different constructs is unclear
B) There is confusion regarding how this model can be tested
C) The model can only be applied to people over the age of 25
D) The model pays little attention to environmental and social contexts
E) The model works on the assumption that individuals go through logical decision making processes and form coherent systematic plans

Question 76

What is the term used when a conditioned response is eliminated or inhibited?

A) Erasure
B) Anti-conditioning
C) Unconditioned response
D) Extinction
E) Operant conditioning

Question 77

What term used when an individual changes their internal monologue so as to frame thoughts in a positive or constructive manner?

A) Cognitive restructuring
B) Optimism
C) Positive reframing
D) Negative reframing
E) Self-affirmation

Question 78

During dieting:

A) Metabolic rate is increased
B) Body cells respond as they would during a famine
C) Genetic polymorphisms are masked
D) The body attempts to increase energy release
E) Physiological set points are immediately altered

Question 79

Regarding branded diets, which of these is true?

A) They focus almost exclusively on carb consumption
B) They are all effective in obese individuals, so long as individuals follow them
C) When studied, weight changes are observed over extensive time frames
D) They sustain involvement through consideration of cultures
E) One third of participants will regain the weight they lost within a year after the diet

Question 80

Obesity is associated with increased levels of _______ that may inhibit _______ fat activity.

A) Dopamine, Peripheral
B) Serotonin, White
C) Dopamine, White
D) Serotonin, Brown
E) Dopamine, Brown