Deck 23: Diseases of the Cardiovascular and Lymphatic Systems

Question 1

What do the Cardiovascular and Lymphatic Systems have in common?

A) ability to penetrate all body tissues
B) ability to carry fluid from heart to the tissues and back again
C) ability to carry all types of leukocytes throughout the body
D) ability to carry dissolved oxygen and carbon dioxide gasses

Answer 1

A

Question 2

Within the cardiovascular system, diffusion of dissolved gasses, nutrients and waste products occurs across:

A) the arterioles
B) the capillaries
C) the venules
D) the blood plasma

Answer 2

B

Question 3

Identify the chief roles of the lymphatic system?

A) serves as a drainage mechanism for extra fluid called lymph, delivering it from body back to the heart
B) serves as a screening mechanism for pathogens, passing them on to lymph nodes for processing by lymphocytes
C) serves as storage mechanism for white blood cells, passing them on to the liver as needed
D) serves as a delivery system for nutrients and oxygen passing to tissues

Answer 3

A,B

Question 4

Without resident microbiota to provide biological protection, the Cardiovascular and Lymphatic Systems have to rely on which of the following?

A) systemic circulation
B) pulmonary circulation
C) innate immunity
D) adaptive immunity

Question 5

Identify the mechanisms by which pathogens gain access to the cardiovascular system?

A) accidental cuts, scrapes, bites or abrasions
B) parenteral route via invasive medical procedures
C) airborne transmission
D) vector transmission

Question 6

What strategies do pathogens use to avoid immune systems defenses?

A) they rapidly enter cells via ligand binding to specific host receptors
B) they avoid phagocytosis by hiding out in host cells
C) they escape antibody mediated immune attack by hiding out in host cells
D) all are correct

Question 7

Antigenic drift may produce a unique pathogen that the immune system cannot recognize.

Question 8

Which activities allow invading pathogens to get into the blood and/or lymph?

A) vigorous teeth brushing
B) direct contact like kissing
C) invasive medical procedure
D) casual contact like holding hands

Question 9

Which of the following terms is mismatched with its description?

A) bacteremia: presence of viable bacteria in the bloodstream
B) septicemia: reproduction of pathogens in the lymph
C) sepsis: life-threatening whole-body inflammatory response to systemic infection
D) blood-borne pathogen: pathogen in human blood that can be transmitted to others by contact with contaminated fluid.

Question 10

Sepsis can lead to severe sepsis that can proceed to fatal septic shock when what action occurs?

A) microbial toxins trigger a systemwide inflammatory response that causes extreme hypotension, leading to organ failure and death
B) microbial toxins trigger extreme hypertension leading to stroke and potential death
C) patient experiences tachycardia of over 110 beats/minute plus a WBC count of greater than 12,000 cells/mm³
D) patient experiences body temperature of over 38° C with low urine output

Question 11

Your patient presents with severe sepsis and is now demonstrating extreme hypotension. Your diagnosis would be which of the following?

A) SIRS
B) severe sepsis
C) septic shock
D) septicemia

Question 12

Procalcitonin level in the blood may be used as a biomarker to determine which of the following?

A) levels of antibody production
B) efficacy of antibiotic treatment
C) the progression of sepsis
D) all of the above

Question 13

An elevated risk of sepsis is associated with which of the following?

A) joint replacement procedures
B) insertion of central venous line
C) age over 35
D) Gram negative septicemia

Question 14

The pericardium is a target site for bacterial infections in the heart.

Question 15

The usual routes of transmission in subacute cases of endocarditis include which of the following?

A) migration of bacteria from a focal infection
B) migration of bacteria from lacerations, body piercings and dental procedures
C) migration of bacteria from IV drug use or nonsterile parenteral procedures
D) all of the above

Question 16

Identify the diagnostic signs of subacute endocarditis.

A) nausea
B) bruising
C) difficulty breathing
D) petechial rash on arms and nail beds

Question 17

A clot-like coating helps developing biofilm communities to adhere to injured tissues

Question 18

Identify the most common symptom of pericarditis.

A) sharp chest pain
B) petechial rash on chest
C) fever and lethargy
D) high bacterial count in blood

Question 19

Which statements are true regarding the disease brucellosis and its etiological agent?

A) other names for the disease include undulant fever or Malta fever
B) Brucella spp. usually infect only domesticated animals
C) brucellosis is primarily caused by five different species of Brucella
D) the CDC monitors these pathogens because they may be used as a bioterrorism agent

Question 20

What is (are) the most common symptom(s) of Brucella infection?

A) fluctuating fever
B) sweating and chills
C) weight loss and weakness
D) all of the above

Question 21

Which statement describes a step in Brucella spp. infection?

A) the organism enters the host via the respiratory route
B) the organism enters the host through damaged mucous membranes in respiratory or gastrointestinal tract
C) the organism is phagocytized by immune system cells and is killed
D) the organism travels inside phagocytes via the lymphatic system to other areas of the body

Question 22

Select the statement that correctly describes Bacillus anthracis.

A) It is a gram-positive anaerobe
B) it is usually found in soil and infects grazing animals
C) it is an endospore former
D) It grows optimally at 40° C.

Question 23

Which of the following forms of anthrax infection is almost always 100% fatal?

A) wound anthrax
B) gastrointestinal anthrax
C) cutaneous anthrax
D) pulmonary anthrax

Question 24

How do either B. anthracis vegetative cells escape destruction by the immune system?

A) they replicate within lymphocytes
B) new vegetative cells are protected from immune system by their amino acid capsule
C) they produce many different types of toxins that allow escape from phagosomes
D) they produce anthrolysin O, a toxin that destroys lymphocytes

Question 25

Although Bacillus anthracis may be identified by performing a Gram stain, positive confirmation of anthrax requires which of the following

A) ELISA testing
B) antibody-antigen testing using agglutination tests
C) direct fluorescence antibody testing
D) acid-fast staining

Question 26

An eschar is characteristic of which type of anthrax

A) wound anthrax
B) gastrointestinal anthrax
C) cutaneous anthrax
D) pulmonary anthrax

Question 27

Your patient presents with a red bulls eye rash on the thigh and flu-like symptoms. She reports hiking and removal of a tick 5 days previous. What infectious disease do you suspect?

A) septicemia
B) brucellosis
C) Lyme disease
D) cutaneous anthrax

Question 28

Identify a clinical feature of "stage three" Lyme Disease.

A) bulls eye rash
B) numbness and fatigue
C) also gastritis and headaches
D) severe arthritis and short-term memory loss

Question 29

Which states could be described as having endemic plague in the US.

A) Maine and New Hampshire
B) Arizona and New Mexico
C) Oregon and Washington
D) Alaska and Washington

Question 30

While the vector for Y. pestis is the rat flea, which of the following are amplifying hosts that can become ill and therefore play an important link in the transmission to humans?

A) mice and rats
B) voles
C) rabbits and ground squirrels
D) only a and b are correct

Question 31

Identify the incorrect pair.

A) tularemia: Francisella tularensis
B) Q fever: Coxiella burnetti
C) cat scratch disease: Bartonella henselae
D) Human granulocytic anaplasmosis (HGA): Ehrlichia chaffeensis

Question 32

Systemic viral diseases display which of the following characteristics?

A) several infect only leukocytes
B) many are diagnosed based on cytopathic effects (CPEs) of the infected leukocytes
C) they include familiar diseases like infectious mononucleosis
D) all are correct

Question 33

What is the target cell infected by the Epstein-Barr virus in Infectious Mononucleosis ?

A) neutrophil
B) macrophage
C) lymphocyte
D) basophil

Question 34

What is another name for the Epstein-Barr virus?

A) Human Herpesvirus 4
B) Human Herpesvirus 3
C) Human Herpesvirus 2
D) Human Herpesvirus 1

Question 35

Classic symptoms of mononucleosis occur only in which demographic?

A) children less than 15 years of age
B) young adults age 15 to 25 years
C) mature adults age 25 to 55 years
D) seniors age 55 years and older

Question 36

The CPE that is characteristic of EBV infection is apoptosis or death of lymphocytes.

Question 37

Which viral families include pathogens that cause hemorrhagic diseases?

A) Adenoviridae
B) Bunyaviridae
C) Filoviridae
D) Poxviridae

Question 38

Identify the correct statement regarding Ebola Hemorrhagic Fever (EHF)

A) EHF has a mortality rate of approximately 10%
B) the etiological agent's reservoir is fruit bats that are hunted as bush meat
C) transmission between humans is via aerosols
D) several medications are available to treat EHF

Question 39

Identify the correct pairing.

A) Dengue hemorrhagic fever: presents with jaundice
B) Yellow fever: also known as breakbone fever
C) Chikungunya: joint stiffness followed by arthritis
D) Lassa fever: monkeys are the primary reservoir

Question 40

Blood and semen may contain Hepatitis B virus.

Question 41

Which of the following statements about Hepatitis B virus/disease is correct?

A) a pregnant mother cannot pass the virus to her unborn baby
B) serological tests detect presence of IgM antibodies to HB_sAG for accurate diagnosis
C) there are several medications that can be used to treat Hepatitis B infection
D) an effective, safe Hepatitis B vaccine is available

Question 42

Which statements correctly describe features of hepatitis C virus/infection?

A) a pregnant mother can pass the virus to her unborn baby
B) serological tests detect presence of IgM antibodies to HB_sAG for accurate diagnosis
C) there are several medications that can be used to treat Hepatitis C infection
D) an effective, safe Hepatitis C vaccine is available

Question 43

Hepatitis C infection may result in which outcomes?

A) increase of cell-mediated immunity
B) spontaneous clearing of the virus
C) cirrhosis
D) increased risk of liver failure

Question 44

Your 80 year old patient has been hospitalized for 10 days and had a central venous line placed 3 days ago. She now has a fever which is not responsive to antibiotics, Microscopic examination of a blood culture reveals ovoid, yeast-like structures. Identify the probable, causative agent.

A) Staphylococus aureus
B) Aspergillis spp.
C) Candida auris
D) Babesia spp.

Question 45

Which of the following diseases is NOT caused by a protozoan that is transferred via arthropods?

A) Babesiosis
B) Chagas disease
C) Malaria
D) Elephantiasis

Question 46

Which choice accurately describe Chagas Disease?

A) it Is spread via a mosquito bite
B) it is spread to humans via the "kissing bug"
C) it is caused by the sporozoan Trypanosoma brucei
D) it usually infects primates

Question 47

Identify all of the possible modes of transmission for Plasmodium spp..

A) blood transfusion
B) mosquito bite
C) transfer across the placenta
D) sexual contact

Question 48

Both of the diseases, Swimmers Itch and Filariasis, are caused by species of Schistosomes.