Deck 21: Diseases of the Urogenital System
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Deck 21: Diseases of the Urogenital System
1
Identify the similarities between the urinary system and reproductive system.
A) both have pathways for salt and water regulation
B) both have exterior openings that may allow potential pathogens to gain entry
C) both share common structures in both men and women
D) both function dependently upon each other
A) both have pathways for salt and water regulation
B) both have exterior openings that may allow potential pathogens to gain entry
C) both share common structures in both men and women
D) both function dependently upon each other
B
2
Which of the following are host defenses for the urogenital system?
A) mucosal cells in the urinary system are joined by tight junctions that don't permit passage of pathogens
B) mucosal cells produce mucus covering that keeps pathogens from attaching
C) urine flow washes away pathogens that try to attach
D) all are correct
A) mucosal cells in the urinary system are joined by tight junctions that don't permit passage of pathogens
B) mucosal cells produce mucus covering that keeps pathogens from attaching
C) urine flow washes away pathogens that try to attach
D) all are correct
D
3
Which feature permits mucus to be characterized as a chemical barrier against infection?
A) it contains lysozyme that breaks down peptidoglycan
B) it contains lactoferrin that releases free iron so that bacteria can use it
C) it contains IgE antibodies
D) it is salt and solute free
A) it contains lysozyme that breaks down peptidoglycan
B) it contains lactoferrin that releases free iron so that bacteria can use it
C) it contains IgE antibodies
D) it is salt and solute free
A
4
How is reproductive health maintained in the vagina for women in their reproductive years?
A) hormone levels support high levels of glycogen in the vagina
B) glycogen prevents the growth of Lactobacillus species of bacteria
C) Lactobacillus secretes hydrogen peroxide and acidic by-products to inhibit the growth of pathogens
D) Lactobacillus secretes basic by-products which inhibit the growth of pathogens
A) hormone levels support high levels of glycogen in the vagina
B) glycogen prevents the growth of Lactobacillus species of bacteria
C) Lactobacillus secretes hydrogen peroxide and acidic by-products to inhibit the growth of pathogens
D) Lactobacillus secretes basic by-products which inhibit the growth of pathogens
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5
How do various pathogens avoid host defenses in the urogenital system?
A) viral pathogens secrete basic compounds to neutralize acidic conditions in the female reproductive tract
B) E. coli and P. mirabilis have flagella that permit swimming through the urethra to enter the bladder
C) viral pathogens multiply extracellularly in order to infect cell of the mucosa, cervix and skin
D) E. coli and N. gonorrhoeae have long fimbriae for mucosal attachment
A) viral pathogens secrete basic compounds to neutralize acidic conditions in the female reproductive tract
B) E. coli and P. mirabilis have flagella that permit swimming through the urethra to enter the bladder
C) viral pathogens multiply extracellularly in order to infect cell of the mucosa, cervix and skin
D) E. coli and N. gonorrhoeae have long fimbriae for mucosal attachment
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6
Identify the species of microbiota that resides in the cervix.
A) Candida albicans
B) Streptococcus agalactiae
C) Bacteriodes spp.
D) Chlamydia spp.
A) Candida albicans
B) Streptococcus agalactiae
C) Bacteriodes spp.
D) Chlamydia spp.
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7
Candida albicans is considered microbiota of which organ/tissue?
A) the perineum
B) the uterus
C) the cervix
D) the vagina
A) the perineum
B) the uterus
C) the cervix
D) the vagina
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8
Signs and symptoms of BV (bacterial vaginosis) include which of the following?
A) thick, white, cheesy discharge
B) burning during urination and vaginal itching
C) presence of clue cells in Gram-stained specimens
D) increased vaginal acidity
A) thick, white, cheesy discharge
B) burning during urination and vaginal itching
C) presence of clue cells in Gram-stained specimens
D) increased vaginal acidity
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9
Which practice promotes a balanced community of vaginal microbiota?
A) condom use
B) use of bath bombs (effervescent soaps)
C) avoidance of hot tubs and spas
D) douching
A) condom use
B) use of bath bombs (effervescent soaps)
C) avoidance of hot tubs and spas
D) douching
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10
Which factor(s) lead(s) to the initiation of most urinary tract infections?
A) pathogen proximity to urethra to gain access to the urinary system
B) pathogens moving from kidney towards the bladder
C) common gut microflora such as E. coli and Proteus mirabilis moving from the digestive tract opening to the urinary tract
D) vaginal microflora such as Lactobacillus invading the urinary tract
A) pathogen proximity to urethra to gain access to the urinary system
B) pathogens moving from kidney towards the bladder
C) common gut microflora such as E. coli and Proteus mirabilis moving from the digestive tract opening to the urinary tract
D) vaginal microflora such as Lactobacillus invading the urinary tract
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11
Why is cystitis more prevalent in females than males?
A) female urethra is 4cm long, significantly shorter than in males
B) the longer female urethra allows pathogens to be more easily moved into the bladder
C) anal opening in females is farther way from urethral opening than that in males
D) none of the above
A) female urethra is 4cm long, significantly shorter than in males
B) the longer female urethra allows pathogens to be more easily moved into the bladder
C) anal opening in females is farther way from urethral opening than that in males
D) none of the above
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12
Signs and symptoms of cystitis include: (Select all that apply)
A) painful urination
B) infrequent urination
C) absence of pelvic pain and clear urine
D) presence of blood in urine
A) painful urination
B) infrequent urination
C) absence of pelvic pain and clear urine
D) presence of blood in urine
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13
What virulence characteristics do cystitis-causing bacteria typically have?
A) specialized adhesions on tips of their fimbriae that allow them to attach to epithelium
B) production of a capsule that aids in attachment to epithelial tissue
C) production of exotoxins to destroy bladder cells
D) all are correct
A) specialized adhesions on tips of their fimbriae that allow them to attach to epithelium
B) production of a capsule that aids in attachment to epithelial tissue
C) production of exotoxins to destroy bladder cells
D) all are correct
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14
How might cranberry juice reduce the incidence of bladder infections?
A) cranberry juice contains PAC (A-type procyanodinins) which are antibacterial
B) cranberry juice is basic and thus discourages bacterial growth
C) PAC interferes with bacterial fimbriae attachment to the bladder mucosa
D) none of the above
A) cranberry juice contains PAC (A-type procyanodinins) which are antibacterial
B) cranberry juice is basic and thus discourages bacterial growth
C) PAC interferes with bacterial fimbriae attachment to the bladder mucosa
D) none of the above
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15
For women, prevention of UTIs involves which of the following activities?
A) practicing good personal hygiene by wiping front to back after defecation
B) frequent urination with complete bladder emptying, especially after sexual intercourse
C) adequate water intake to increase urine outflow
D) all of the above
A) practicing good personal hygiene by wiping front to back after defecation
B) frequent urination with complete bladder emptying, especially after sexual intercourse
C) adequate water intake to increase urine outflow
D) all of the above
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16
For pyelonephritis, which of these statements is INCORRECT?
A) it involves inflammation of the renal pelvis
B) Proteus mirabilis is the pathogen most often implicated
C) it often develops from untreated cystitis
D) initially caused by ascension of pathogens via the ureters
A) it involves inflammation of the renal pelvis
B) Proteus mirabilis is the pathogen most often implicated
C) it often develops from untreated cystitis
D) initially caused by ascension of pathogens via the ureters
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17
Identify the key factor to preventing pyelonephritis.
A) consumption of cranberry juice
B) frequent urination
C) eliminating all risk factors for cystitis
D) practicing good personal hygiene
A) consumption of cranberry juice
B) frequent urination
C) eliminating all risk factors for cystitis
D) practicing good personal hygiene
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18
What characteristic makes Leptospirosis different from other infections of the urinary system?
A) it is an infection caused by a pathogen that may be transferred to humans from non-human animals
B) it carries no risk of mortality
C) it rarely cause kidney damage
D) it is easily prevented
A) it is an infection caused by a pathogen that may be transferred to humans from non-human animals
B) it carries no risk of mortality
C) it rarely cause kidney damage
D) it is easily prevented
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19
Which detail is NOT a characteristic of Leptospira interrogans?
A) it is a spirochete
B) it is an obligate anaerobe that lives in freshwater habitats worldwide
C) animals other than humans are the reservoir
D) it invades via skin abrasions and enters circulatory system
A) it is a spirochete
B) it is an obligate anaerobe that lives in freshwater habitats worldwide
C) animals other than humans are the reservoir
D) it invades via skin abrasions and enters circulatory system
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20
What individuals are at highest risk for exposure to Leptospira interrogans?
A) zookeepers of exotic animals
B) fishermen
C) livestock farmers
D) pregnant women
A) zookeepers of exotic animals
B) fishermen
C) livestock farmers
D) pregnant women
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21
Why is Group B Strep (GBS) colonization in a pregnant woman a problem for her newborn?
A) this usually nonpathogenic microbe may be vertically transmitted to fetus during delivery
B) all newborns will become sick with sepsis, pneumonia and/or meningitis
C) 50% of infected newborns die even with prompt medical attention
D) all are correct
A) this usually nonpathogenic microbe may be vertically transmitted to fetus during delivery
B) all newborns will become sick with sepsis, pneumonia and/or meningitis
C) 50% of infected newborns die even with prompt medical attention
D) all are correct
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22
Prostatitis may be caused by bacteria that:
A) also cause urinary tract infections
B) enter the prostate in urine that has moved via reflux through prostate and ejaculatory ducts
C) enter the prostate via urine that has been held too long in the bladder
D) enter the prostate from the bloodstream
A) also cause urinary tract infections
B) enter the prostate in urine that has moved via reflux through prostate and ejaculatory ducts
C) enter the prostate via urine that has been held too long in the bladder
D) enter the prostate from the bloodstream
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23
How can the risk of bacterial prostatitis best be reduced?
A) prompt treatment of a UTI infection
B) regular emptying of the bladder
C) drinking of cranberry juice daily
D) annual prostate checkups for men over 45
A) prompt treatment of a UTI infection
B) regular emptying of the bladder
C) drinking of cranberry juice daily
D) annual prostate checkups for men over 45
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24
Which statement best characterizes chlamydia infection?
A) twice as many cases are diagnosed in men as in women
B) most cases are symptomatic
C) it is the most common bacterial STI in the United States
D) it is caused by a gram-positive streptobacilli
A) twice as many cases are diagnosed in men as in women
B) most cases are symptomatic
C) it is the most common bacterial STI in the United States
D) it is caused by a gram-positive streptobacilli
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25
Which of the following characteristics of Chlamydia trachomatis is INCORRECT?:
A) it is the primary cause of pelvic inflammatory disease
B) the reticulate body depends upon host cell ATP for replication
C) the elementary body (EB) is not infectious
D) it causes urethritis in men
A) it is the primary cause of pelvic inflammatory disease
B) the reticulate body depends upon host cell ATP for replication
C) the elementary body (EB) is not infectious
D) it causes urethritis in men
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26
Which statement appropriately characterizes Chlamydia infection?
A) symptomatic infected males may develop salpingitis
B) symptomatic infected females may develop epididymitis
C) some strains cause lymphogranuloma venereum
D) neonates born via vaginal delivery to an infected mother may develop neonatal ophthalmia
A) symptomatic infected males may develop salpingitis
B) symptomatic infected females may develop epididymitis
C) some strains cause lymphogranuloma venereum
D) neonates born via vaginal delivery to an infected mother may develop neonatal ophthalmia
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27
Gonorrhea most often impacts which demographic?
A) teenagers and young adults, ages 15 to 25
B) adults, ages 25 to 45
C) older adults, ages 50-65
D) adults, ages 30 to 45
A) teenagers and young adults, ages 15 to 25
B) adults, ages 25 to 45
C) older adults, ages 50-65
D) adults, ages 30 to 45
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28
What virulence attributes characterize Neisseria gonorrhoeae?
A) production of long flagella that allow attachment to columnar epithelium
B) infection with the organism induces a robust adaptive immune response
C) it produces Opa proteins that promote bacterial invasion of host cells
D) all of the above
A) production of long flagella that allow attachment to columnar epithelium
B) infection with the organism induces a robust adaptive immune response
C) it produces Opa proteins that promote bacterial invasion of host cells
D) all of the above
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29
Your patient presents with PID. How would you determine that the cause is N. gonorrhea rather than C. trachomatis?
A) you isolate a gram-negative diplococcus on MTM media from cervical discharge
B) no growth is observed on MTM media
C) microscopic examination of cervical discharge reveals intracellular coccoid bacteria.
D) all of the above
A) you isolate a gram-negative diplococcus on MTM media from cervical discharge
B) no growth is observed on MTM media
C) microscopic examination of cervical discharge reveals intracellular coccoid bacteria.
D) all of the above
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30
Treponema pallidum has which of the following characteristics?
A) it is a gram-negative spirochete
B) it is an aerotolerant anaerobe
C) it is an obligate parasite
D) it causes the disease chancroid
A) it is a gram-negative spirochete
B) it is an aerotolerant anaerobe
C) it is an obligate parasite
D) it causes the disease chancroid
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31
Tertiary syphilis is communicable
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32
Secondary syphilis is characterized by the formation of gummas
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33
Haemophilus ducreyi shares this characteristic of infection with Treponema pallidum.
A) rash on soles of feet, palms of hands
B) rash all over body
C) chancre at site of infection
D) gummas in skin, mucous membranes, cartilage, and bones
A) rash on soles of feet, palms of hands
B) rash all over body
C) chancre at site of infection
D) gummas in skin, mucous membranes, cartilage, and bones
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34
Genital warts are caused by Herpes simplex I virus.
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35
Select the correct combination: HPV serotypes that cause visible warts/ HPV serotypes that initiate cervical cancer.
A) serotypes 5 and 10/ types 6 and 12
B) serotypes 6 and 11/ types 5 and 12
C) serotypes 6 and 11/ types 5 and 12
D) serotypes 6 and 11/ types 16 and 18
A) serotypes 5 and 10/ types 6 and 12
B) serotypes 6 and 11/ types 5 and 12
C) serotypes 6 and 11/ types 5 and 12
D) serotypes 6 and 11/ types 16 and 18
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36
Which statement is correct regarding the Gardasil vaccine?
A) it became available in 2006
B) it prevents infection with serotypes 12 and 17
C) current recommendations include vaccination for all girls and boys beginning at age 8
D) the vaccine is recommended for all patients over 26 years of age
A) it became available in 2006
B) it prevents infection with serotypes 12 and 17
C) current recommendations include vaccination for all girls and boys beginning at age 8
D) the vaccine is recommended for all patients over 26 years of age
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37
Select the treatment that can be used to address genital warts.
A) surgical excision
B) laser treatment/removal
C) no treatment because many cases spontaneously clear
D) all of the above
A) surgical excision
B) laser treatment/removal
C) no treatment because many cases spontaneously clear
D) all of the above
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38
Which description of Molluscum contagiosum is correct?
A) it is a rare skin infection presenting as soft, round lesions with a central dimple
B) it is caused by mulluscipoxvirus
C) it is transferred only by direct contact
D) all are correct
A) it is a rare skin infection presenting as soft, round lesions with a central dimple
B) it is caused by mulluscipoxvirus
C) it is transferred only by direct contact
D) all are correct
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39
How does HIV ultimately cause AIDS?
A) by targeting destruction of TH cells that results in loss of immune system function
B) by targeting destruction of B cells that are responsible for antibody production
C) by targeting destruction of TC cells that kill off infected cells
D) by targeting destruction of both B and TH cells
A) by targeting destruction of TH cells that results in loss of immune system function
B) by targeting destruction of B cells that are responsible for antibody production
C) by targeting destruction of TC cells that kill off infected cells
D) by targeting destruction of both B and TH cells
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40
Which description accurately characterizes the HIV virion and genome?
A) non-enveloped, single stranded, positive sense RNA virus
B) enveloped, double stranded DNA virus
C) enveloped, single stranded RNA virus with two copies of the viral genome.
D) non-enveloped, single stranded DNA virus
A) non-enveloped, single stranded, positive sense RNA virus
B) enveloped, double stranded DNA virus
C) enveloped, single stranded RNA virus with two copies of the viral genome.
D) non-enveloped, single stranded DNA virus
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41
PEP is appropriately used in which of the following situations?
A) before sexual intercourse
B) as routine treatment for HIV infection
C) as treatment following an accidental needle stick
D) all of the above
A) before sexual intercourse
B) as routine treatment for HIV infection
C) as treatment following an accidental needle stick
D) all of the above
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42
HIV testing should occur during which period?
A) within the window period
B) the day following high risk sexual activity
C) 90 days after engaging in risky behavior
D) 7-21 days after engaging in risky behavior
A) within the window period
B) the day following high risk sexual activity
C) 90 days after engaging in risky behavior
D) 7-21 days after engaging in risky behavior
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43
Which HIV test requires a follow-up confirming, antigen test?
A) a nucleic acid test
B) a rapid point of care test
C) a combination antigen/antibody test
D) all of the above
A) a nucleic acid test
B) a rapid point of care test
C) a combination antigen/antibody test
D) all of the above
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44
What is the advantage of using an HIV microbiocide?
A) it is 100% effective at preventing HIV infection
B) it must be used with a condom to have any impact
C) it is easily and frequently used by men
D) microbiocides allow women to protect themselves discretely
A) it is 100% effective at preventing HIV infection
B) it must be used with a condom to have any impact
C) it is easily and frequently used by men
D) microbiocides allow women to protect themselves discretely
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45
Why have HIV vaccines not yet been used to prevent HIV infection?
A) Why have HIV vaccines not yet been used to prevent HIV infection?
B) ART is effective at eliminating virus thus vaccines are not required
C) HIV mutates preventing vaccine effectiveness against a stable vaccine target
D) Host adaptive immune responses are often ineffective against HIV
A) Why have HIV vaccines not yet been used to prevent HIV infection?
B) ART is effective at eliminating virus thus vaccines are not required
C) HIV mutates preventing vaccine effectiveness against a stable vaccine target
D) Host adaptive immune responses are often ineffective against HIV
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46
What factors encourage the overgrowth of Candida albicans in an otherwise healthy female vagina?
A) rise in pH levels because of decrease in Lactobacillus population
B) contributing factors include wearing tight or wet clothing
C) taking antibiotics for other infections
D) all are factors
A) rise in pH levels because of decrease in Lactobacillus population
B) contributing factors include wearing tight or wet clothing
C) taking antibiotics for other infections
D) all are factors
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47
Vaginal yeast infections are most appropriately treated with antibiotics.
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48
Which choice identifies a characteristic of Trichomoniasis?
A) it is caused by ciliated protozoan
B) it is transmitted via indirect contact
C) it is the most common nonviral STI
D) 80 % of infected patients are asymptomatic
A) it is caused by ciliated protozoan
B) it is transmitted via indirect contact
C) it is the most common nonviral STI
D) 80 % of infected patients are asymptomatic
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49
The most common diagnostic criteria for Trichomoniasis is which of the following?
A) a copious, frothy foul-smelling vaginal discharge that is green or greenish yellow
B) development of vulvovaginitis
C) pain during intercourse and urination for females
D) urethral itching and burning during urination in men
A) a copious, frothy foul-smelling vaginal discharge that is green or greenish yellow
B) development of vulvovaginitis
C) pain during intercourse and urination for females
D) urethral itching and burning during urination in men
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50
Identify a complication that may occur due to Trichomoniasis.
A) preterm delivery or low birthweight with vertical transmission from mother to fetus
B) increased susceptibility to other sexually transmitted diseases
C) increased chance the chronic infections may lead to permanent sterility
D) all are correct
A) preterm delivery or low birthweight with vertical transmission from mother to fetus
B) increased susceptibility to other sexually transmitted diseases
C) increased chance the chronic infections may lead to permanent sterility
D) all are correct
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