Deck 8: Viruses and Infectious Particles
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Deck 8: Viruses and Infectious Particles
1
Viruses are not generally referred to as living things, because they ________.
A) grow too slow
B) lack nucleic acids
C) lack standard cell structure
D) grow too fast
A) grow too slow
B) lack nucleic acids
C) lack standard cell structure
D) grow too fast
C
2
The core of virus particle can contain all of the follow nucleic acids EXCEPT ________.
A) single stranded RNA
B) DNA and RNA
C) single stranded DNA
D) double stranded DNA
A) single stranded RNA
B) DNA and RNA
C) single stranded DNA
D) double stranded DNA
B
3
The core of a virus particle contains a(n) ________.
A) envelope
B) capsid
C) bacteriophage
D) nucleic acid
A) envelope
B) capsid
C) bacteriophage
D) nucleic acid
D
4
A(n) ________ virus only has a nucleocapsid.
A) enveloped
B) naked
C) capsomere
D) combination
A) enveloped
B) naked
C) capsomere
D) combination
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5
The viral capsid is made primarily of ________.
A) protein
B) carbohydrate
C) triglyceride
D) nucleic acid
A) protein
B) carbohydrate
C) triglyceride
D) nucleic acid
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6
Which of the following viral shapes would contain the most capsomeres?
A) Complex
B) Helical
C) Polyhedral
D) Peplomers
A) Complex
B) Helical
C) Polyhedral
D) Peplomers
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7
Positive sense RNA viruses have genetic material that is ________.
A) read as double stranded DNA
B) the same reading structure as mRNA
C) complementary to mRNA
D) converted to DNA before it can be used as RNA to make viral proteins
A) read as double stranded DNA
B) the same reading structure as mRNA
C) complementary to mRNA
D) converted to DNA before it can be used as RNA to make viral proteins
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8
The nucleocapsid refers to the ________.
A) viral genome and the protective protein coat
B) capsomeres and nucleic acids
C) helical shape of all viral particles
D) envelope that surrounds the viral genetic component
A) viral genome and the protective protein coat
B) capsomeres and nucleic acids
C) helical shape of all viral particles
D) envelope that surrounds the viral genetic component
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9
The most sophisticated viral morphology belongs to the infectious particles that primarily infect ________.
A) plants
B) animals
C) protists
D) bacteria
A) plants
B) animals
C) protists
D) bacteria
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10
The system of viral taxonomy classifies viruses primarily on the virus ________.
A) RNA or DNA
B) proteins
C) triglycerides
D) shape
A) RNA or DNA
B) proteins
C) triglycerides
D) shape
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11
Bacteriophages are usually ________ viruses.
A) helical
B) polyhedral
C) complex
D) enveloped
A) helical
B) polyhedral
C) complex
D) enveloped
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12
Which of the following statements accurately describes a viral envelope?
A) The envelope helps protect viruses exposed to heat and/or detergents.
B) The envelope is only found on RNA viruses.
C) The presence of an envelope influences viral entry and exit strategies.
D) Enveloped viruses do not have protein spikes.
A) The envelope helps protect viruses exposed to heat and/or detergents.
B) The envelope is only found on RNA viruses.
C) The presence of an envelope influences viral entry and exit strategies.
D) Enveloped viruses do not have protein spikes.
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13
Which of the following are considered acceptable standards used to classify viruses? (Select all that apply.)
A) Genetic similarities
B) Structure
C) Host range
D) Chemical composition
A) Genetic similarities
B) Structure
C) Host range
D) Chemical composition
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14
The term Adenoviridae indicates a reference to a virus ________.
A) species
B) strain
C) genus
D) family
A) species
B) strain
C) genus
D) family
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15
Identify the mismatched infection/pathogen pair.
A) Rabies/Lyssavirus
B) Yellow fever/Flavivirus
C) Fifth disease/Adenovirus
D) Measles/Morbillivirus
A) Rabies/Lyssavirus
B) Yellow fever/Flavivirus
C) Fifth disease/Adenovirus
D) Measles/Morbillivirus
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16
Rubella is caused ________.
A) Erythrovirus
B) Rubulavirus
C) Rubivirus
D) Rotavirus
A) Erythrovirus
B) Rubulavirus
C) Rubivirus
D) Rotavirus
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17
Alphapapillomavirus is classified as ________.
A) positive sense RNA virus
B) double stranded RNA naked nucleocapsid virus
C) double stranded DNA naked nucleocapsid virus
D) double stranded DNA enveloped virus
A) positive sense RNA virus
B) double stranded RNA naked nucleocapsid virus
C) double stranded DNA naked nucleocapsid virus
D) double stranded DNA enveloped virus
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18
Hepatitis infection can be caused by which viral types? (Select all that apply.)
A) Double stranded DNA enveloped virus
B) Negative sense RNA enveloped virus
C) Positive sense RNA enveloped virus
D) Single stranded DNA enveloped virus
A) Double stranded DNA enveloped virus
B) Negative sense RNA enveloped virus
C) Positive sense RNA enveloped virus
D) Single stranded DNA enveloped virus
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19
Why does the viral classification system differ from that of eukaryotes?
A) Viruses are microscopic.
B) Viruses rely on a host cell for replication.
C) Viruses do not participate in sexual reproduction.
D) Viral nucleic acids can not mutate.
A) Viruses are microscopic.
B) Viruses rely on a host cell for replication.
C) Viruses do not participate in sexual reproduction.
D) Viral nucleic acids can not mutate.
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20
The ability to infect the same hosts is ________.
A) host range
B) host fidelity
C) host selection
D) host average
A) host range
B) host fidelity
C) host selection
D) host average
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21
Indicate the correct order of the viral replication cycle.
A) adsorption, penetration, biosynthesis, self-assembly, release
B) adsorption, biosynthesis, penetration, self-assembly, release
C) adsorption, penetration, biosynthesis, release, self-assembly
D) adsorption, biosynthesis, penetration, release, self-assembly
A) adsorption, penetration, biosynthesis, self-assembly, release
B) adsorption, biosynthesis, penetration, self-assembly, release
C) adsorption, penetration, biosynthesis, release, self-assembly
D) adsorption, biosynthesis, penetration, release, self-assembly
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22
The binding of protein spikes on the viral surface with complementary receptor sites on the host cell membrane is referred to as ________.
A) uncoating
B) endocytosis
C) adsorption
D) fusion
A) uncoating
B) endocytosis
C) adsorption
D) fusion
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23
Most of the viruses with DNA as their nucleic acid replicate in the host's ________.
A) plasma membrane
B) nucleus
C) Golgi apparatus
D) cytoplasm
A) plasma membrane
B) nucleus
C) Golgi apparatus
D) cytoplasm
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24
Most of the viruses with RNA as their nucleic acid replicate in the host's ________.
A) plasma membrane
B) nucleus
C) Golgi apparatus
D) cytoplasm
A) plasma membrane
B) nucleus
C) Golgi apparatus
D) cytoplasm
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25
A retrovirus belongs to a group of ________ viruses that insert a ________ copy of their genome into the host cell in order to reproduce.
A) DNA; DNA
B) DNA; RNA
C) RNA; DNA
D) RNA; RNA
A) DNA; DNA
B) DNA; RNA
C) RNA; DNA
D) RNA; RNA
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26
A viral tropism ________. (Select all that apply)
A) is represented by the gp120 spike of HIV binding to CD4 on a TH cell plasma membrane
B) describes tissue-specific infection by a given virus
C) explains why the rabies virus does not damage the kidneys
D) allows a veterinarian to handle a cat infected with feline leukemia virus without fear of acquiring the infection
A) is represented by the gp120 spike of HIV binding to CD4 on a TH cell plasma membrane
B) describes tissue-specific infection by a given virus
C) explains why the rabies virus does not damage the kidneys
D) allows a veterinarian to handle a cat infected with feline leukemia virus without fear of acquiring the infection
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27
AIDS is a lifelong infection because ________.
A) reverse transcriptase converts RNA genome of HIV into DNA
B) the DNA version of the HIV genome is inserted into the host cell's genetic material
C) newly made HIV viruses are unable to be released by budding
D) newly made HIV viruses acquire an envelope made from the host cell plasma membrane
A) reverse transcriptase converts RNA genome of HIV into DNA
B) the DNA version of the HIV genome is inserted into the host cell's genetic material
C) newly made HIV viruses are unable to be released by budding
D) newly made HIV viruses acquire an envelope made from the host cell plasma membrane
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28
This micrograph of virally-infected cells demonstrates the cytopathic effect known as ________.

A) nucleomegaly
B) inclusion bodies
C) syncytium formation
D) cellular rounding

A) nucleomegaly
B) inclusion bodies
C) syncytium formation
D) cellular rounding
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29
After entering the host cell by fusion, the viral genome is immediately translated into new viral proteins. Following genome replication in the cytoplasm, new virions are assembled in the cytoplasm and continuously bud from the host to spread the infection. Based on this information, describe the basic characteristics of this virus.
A) Naked nucleocapsid virus with ds DNA genome
B) Enveloped virus with ss DNA genome
C) Enveloped virus with ss (+) sense RNA genome
D) Naked nucleocapsid with ss (-) RNA genome
A) Naked nucleocapsid virus with ds DNA genome
B) Enveloped virus with ss DNA genome
C) Enveloped virus with ss (+) sense RNA genome
D) Naked nucleocapsid with ss (-) RNA genome
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30
Which step is NOT present in the bacteriophage replication cycle, but IS present in viruses that infect eukaryotic cells?
A) Adsorption
B) Penetration
C) Uncoating
D) Release
A) Adsorption
B) Penetration
C) Uncoating
D) Release
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31
In which viral replication cycle does viral DNA integrate into the host genome, and is subsequently duplicated during host cell divisions?
A) Lytic
B) Lysogenic
C) Lysozymic
D) Static
A) Lytic
B) Lysogenic
C) Lysozymic
D) Static
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32
Which of the following does NOT trigger induction during the lysogenic cycle?
A) Favorable host cell conditions
B) Exposure to UV radiation
C) Reduced host cell nutrition
D) Contact with specific chemicals
A) Favorable host cell conditions
B) Exposure to UV radiation
C) Reduced host cell nutrition
D) Contact with specific chemicals
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33
During the eclipse period, ________.
A) viral DNA is inserted into the host cell genome
B) lysogenic conversion occurs
C) viral spikes adsorb to host receptors resulting in viral tropism
D) the host cell contains unassembled viral components
A) viral DNA is inserted into the host cell genome
B) lysogenic conversion occurs
C) viral spikes adsorb to host receptors resulting in viral tropism
D) the host cell contains unassembled viral components
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34
Unlike lytic viruses, lysogenic viruses do not ________.
A) inject their genetic material into the host cell
B) enter the lytic cycle
C) lyse the host cell right away
D) infect host cells
A) inject their genetic material into the host cell
B) enter the lytic cycle
C) lyse the host cell right away
D) infect host cells
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35
Bacteriophage DNA inserted into the bacterial host genome during the lysogenic cycle is known as a ________.
A) provirus
B) prophage
C) transformation
D) induction
A) provirus
B) prophage
C) transformation
D) induction
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36
What process facilitates the entry of bacteriophage DNA into a bacterial host cell?
A) The lysozyme-tipped tail fibers of the viruses weaken the bacterial cell wall.
B) The head of the bacteriophage contracts forcing the DNA into the bacterial cell.
C) The bacteriophage is enzymatically uncoated.
D) The bacteriophage collar releases the DNA from the head.
A) The lysozyme-tipped tail fibers of the viruses weaken the bacterial cell wall.
B) The head of the bacteriophage contracts forcing the DNA into the bacterial cell.
C) The bacteriophage is enzymatically uncoated.
D) The bacteriophage collar releases the DNA from the head.
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37
Which of the following defines the nature of viruses?
A) Facultative intracellular saprobes
B) Obligate intracellular pathogens
C) Obligate extracellular pathogens
D) Facultative extracellular pathogens
A) Facultative intracellular saprobes
B) Obligate intracellular pathogens
C) Obligate extracellular pathogens
D) Facultative extracellular pathogens
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38
In the process of viral cultivation, ________ cells are used as hosts.
A) bacterial
B) viral
C) animal
D) plant
A) bacterial
B) viral
C) animal
D) plant
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39
What technique is used to rapidly, accurately identify viruses in the clinical laboratory?
A) Cell culture
B) PCR
C) Western blotting
D) Plaque assay
A) Cell culture
B) PCR
C) Western blotting
D) Plaque assay
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40
Which strain of the flu was responsible for more than 20 million deaths in 1918 worldwide?
A) Rhinovirus
B) H1N1
C) H2N5
D) Coronavirus
A) Rhinovirus
B) H1N1
C) H2N5
D) Coronavirus
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41
Which patient age cohort was surprisingly susceptible to both H1N1 (1918) and the novel H1N1 (2009) influenza viruses?
A) Infants
B) Young adults
C) Middle-aged adults
D) Elderly adults
A) Infants
B) Young adults
C) Middle-aged adults
D) Elderly adults
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42
Indicate which of the following statement(s) is true regarding the 2018 Ebola epidemic in the Democratic Republic of the Congo (DRC).
A) The experimental vaccine, rVSV-ZEBV, probably prevented thousands of additional cases.
B) Many people in DRC believe the epidemic is a hoax and refuse to participate in prevention measures.
C) The World Health Organization has not provided medical assistance.
D) This epidemic is caused by the most lethal subtype of the Ebola virus.
A) The experimental vaccine, rVSV-ZEBV, probably prevented thousands of additional cases.
B) Many people in DRC believe the epidemic is a hoax and refuse to participate in prevention measures.
C) The World Health Organization has not provided medical assistance.
D) This epidemic is caused by the most lethal subtype of the Ebola virus.
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43
Which viruses have caused pandemics in the 21st century resulting in significant mortality?
A) Rhinovirus and Influenza virus
B) Rhinovirus and SARS-CoV-2 virus
C) Influenza virus and SARS-CoV-2 virus
D) Ebola virus and MERS-CoV virus
A) Rhinovirus and Influenza virus
B) Rhinovirus and SARS-CoV-2 virus
C) Influenza virus and SARS-CoV-2 virus
D) Ebola virus and MERS-CoV virus
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44
When viral DNA enters a eukaryotic host's genome, what term is used to describe the state of the viral DNA?
A) Lysogenic virus
B) Postvirus
C) Previrus
D) Provirus
A) Lysogenic virus
B) Postvirus
C) Previrus
D) Provirus
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45
Shingles is the result of reactivated ________.
A) provirus
B) prions
C) viroids
D) bacteriophages
A) provirus
B) prions
C) viroids
D) bacteriophages
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46
Sometimes proviruses can convert normal cells into malignant cells. Viruses that cause this malignancy are referred to as ________.
A) retroviruses
B) oncoviruses
C) protoviruses
D) prophages
A) retroviruses
B) oncoviruses
C) protoviruses
D) prophages
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47
Which of the following is not typically characterized as a latent viral infection?
A) Varicella-zoster (chicken pox)
B) Herpes simplex 1
C) Influenza
D) Herpes simplex 2
A) Varicella-zoster (chicken pox)
B) Herpes simplex 1
C) Influenza
D) Herpes simplex 2
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48
How does HHV-8 infection in an HIV+ patient cause a malignancy like Kaposi's sarcoma?
A) HHV-8 is a protovirus.
B) HHV-8 converts normal cells to malignant cells recognized as foreign by a healthy person's immune system and destroyed. The compromised immune system of an HIV patient prevents this from happening and life-threatening Kaposi's sarcoma develops.
C) HIV infection of the patient's TH cells enhances their activity, triggering the development of Kaposi's sarcoma by HHV-8.
D) HHV-8 and HIV co-infect TH cells, causing them to mutate into the malignant cells of Kaposi's sarcoma.
A) HHV-8 is a protovirus.
B) HHV-8 converts normal cells to malignant cells recognized as foreign by a healthy person's immune system and destroyed. The compromised immune system of an HIV patient prevents this from happening and life-threatening Kaposi's sarcoma develops.
C) HIV infection of the patient's TH cells enhances their activity, triggering the development of Kaposi's sarcoma by HHV-8.
D) HHV-8 and HIV co-infect TH cells, causing them to mutate into the malignant cells of Kaposi's sarcoma.
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49
Which of the following statements regarding the progression of an HIV infection is accurate?
A) HIV patients experience a latent period during which the viral load in the plasma increases exponentially.
B) Opportunistic infections become more prevalent as the patient's TH cell population grows rapidly.
C) Initial HIV infection symptoms subside as the virus moves out of circulation and into lymphoid tissue.
D) HIV transitions from replication via the lytic cycle to replication via the lysogenic cycle.
A) HIV patients experience a latent period during which the viral load in the plasma increases exponentially.
B) Opportunistic infections become more prevalent as the patient's TH cell population grows rapidly.
C) Initial HIV infection symptoms subside as the virus moves out of circulation and into lymphoid tissue.
D) HIV transitions from replication via the lytic cycle to replication via the lysogenic cycle.
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50
Which of the following is the LEAST effective way to prevent the spread of viruses?
A) Washing your hands before eating
B) Using alcohol sanitizers instead of soap
C) Only shaking hands with healthy-looking people
D) Sneezing into the crook of your arm
A) Washing your hands before eating
B) Using alcohol sanitizers instead of soap
C) Only shaking hands with healthy-looking people
D) Sneezing into the crook of your arm
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51
Which of the following statements about the measles is true?
A) The measles virus is extremely contagious.
B) Receiving the MMR vaccine to prevent measles increases a person's risk of developing autism.
C) Measles infections are easily treated with modern antiviral medications.
D) Childhood measles immunizations are not critical because infection is usually prevented by herd immunity.
A) The measles virus is extremely contagious.
B) Receiving the MMR vaccine to prevent measles increases a person's risk of developing autism.
C) Measles infections are easily treated with modern antiviral medications.
D) Childhood measles immunizations are not critical because infection is usually prevented by herd immunity.
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52
Which of the following are the most pressing problems with treating viral infections? (Select all that apply.)
A) Finding the proper antibiotic to fit the virus
B) The rapid rate of viral mutations
C) Finding the source of the viruses
D) The limited number of targets to attack the virus
A) Finding the proper antibiotic to fit the virus
B) The rapid rate of viral mutations
C) Finding the source of the viruses
D) The limited number of targets to attack the virus
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53
How do antiviral medications work? (Select all that apply)
A) Prevent viral spikes from binding to host receptors
B) Interfere with viral nucleic acid replication
C) Prevent the release of new virions
D) Interfere with the activity of viral enzymes
A) Prevent viral spikes from binding to host receptors
B) Interfere with viral nucleic acid replication
C) Prevent the release of new virions
D) Interfere with the activity of viral enzymes
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54
An unusual side effect of taking protease inhibitors to treat a viral infection is ________.
A) GI upset
B) birth defects
C) development of fatty liver
D) redistribution of body fat
A) GI upset
B) birth defects
C) development of fatty liver
D) redistribution of body fat
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55
In specialized transduction, the resistance gene comes from the ________.
A) bacteriophage
B) virus
C) human host cell
D) bacterial genome
A) bacteriophage
B) virus
C) human host cell
D) bacterial genome
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56
Lysogenic conversion can cause the host bacterium to become more virulent to human patients because ________.
A) bacteriophage genes can destroy the bacterial genes
B) bacteriophage genes can replace the bacterial genes
C) bacterial genes altered by the bacteriophage may produce toxins which are then secreted by the bacteria
D) bacterial genes can alter the bacteriophage genes, thus causing a potential increase in the production of toxic bacterial substances
A) bacteriophage genes can destroy the bacterial genes
B) bacteriophage genes can replace the bacterial genes
C) bacterial genes altered by the bacteriophage may produce toxins which are then secreted by the bacteria
D) bacterial genes can alter the bacteriophage genes, thus causing a potential increase in the production of toxic bacterial substances
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57
The lysogenic cycle is evolutionarily favored because ________.
A) bacteriophages replicate faster than other viruses
B) viral genome replication occurs more efficiently via binary fission than by the lytic cycle.
C) prophage formation occurs more readily than provirus formation
D) it reduces the rate of viral mutation
A) bacteriophages replicate faster than other viruses
B) viral genome replication occurs more efficiently via binary fission than by the lytic cycle.
C) prophage formation occurs more readily than provirus formation
D) it reduces the rate of viral mutation
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58
________ is clinically significant as it often results in the production of antibiotic resistant bacteria.
A) Temperate conversion
B) Lysogenic conversion
C) Specialized transduction
D) Phage conversion
A) Temperate conversion
B) Lysogenic conversion
C) Specialized transduction
D) Phage conversion
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59
Lysogenic conversion of ________ by a temperate phage can cause toxic shock syndrome in an infected patient.
A) Vibrio cholerae
B) Corynebacterium diphtheriae
C) Escherichia coli
D) Streptococcus pyogenes
A) Vibrio cholerae
B) Corynebacterium diphtheriae
C) Escherichia coli
D) Streptococcus pyogenes
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60
The purpose of phage therapy is ________.
A) to use bacteriophages to destroy disease-causing bacteria
B) to use bacteria to destroy disease-causing bacteriophages
C) to use bacteria to destroy disease-causing bacteria
D) to use bacteriophages to destroy disease causing bacteriophages
A) to use bacteriophages to destroy disease-causing bacteria
B) to use bacteria to destroy disease-causing bacteriophages
C) to use bacteria to destroy disease-causing bacteria
D) to use bacteriophages to destroy disease causing bacteriophages
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61
Although phage therapy is not yet approved for human use in the United States, it is considered a promising treatment of bacterial infections because ________. (Select all that apply)
A) it is highly effective
B) it spares normal bacterial microbiota
C) it has fewer side effects than antibiotic therapy
D) it is inexpensive
A) it is highly effective
B) it spares normal bacterial microbiota
C) it has fewer side effects than antibiotic therapy
D) it is inexpensive
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62
When antibiotics are used to treat a viral infection, ________. (Select all that apply)
A) patients are unnecessarily put at risk of drug side effects
B) patient recovery time is significantly reduced
C) the patient's immune system is activated to enhance eliminate the pathogen
D) the patient's normal bacterial microbiota may be damaged
A) patients are unnecessarily put at risk of drug side effects
B) patient recovery time is significantly reduced
C) the patient's immune system is activated to enhance eliminate the pathogen
D) the patient's normal bacterial microbiota may be damaged
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63
The picture below shows the first step in the process of ________.

A) specialized transduction
B) the lytic cycle
C) phage therapy
D) lytic conversion

A) specialized transduction
B) the lytic cycle
C) phage therapy
D) lytic conversion
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64
The structure of viroids can be characterized as ________.
A) double-stranded circular RNA
B) single-stranded circular RNA
C) double-stranded linear DNA
D) single-stranded linear DNA
A) double-stranded circular RNA
B) single-stranded circular RNA
C) double-stranded linear DNA
D) single-stranded linear DNA
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65
Viroids exclusively infect ________.
A) animals
B) plants
C) bacteria
D) viruses
A) animals
B) plants
C) bacteria
D) viruses
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66
Which of the following are found to have the ability to infect mammals? (Select all that apply.)
A) Prions
B) Viroids
C) Satellites
D) Viruses
A) Prions
B) Viroids
C) Satellites
D) Viruses
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67
Which of the following requires another virus to aid in its own replication?
A) Prions
B) Viroids
C) Satellites
D) Bacteriophages
A) Prions
B) Viroids
C) Satellites
D) Bacteriophages
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68
Which of the following structures lacks protein?
A) Prions
B) Viroids
C) Satellites
D) Viruses
A) Prions
B) Viroids
C) Satellites
D) Viruses
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69
The delta agent that co-infects liver cells with the hepatitis B virus is an example of a ________.
A) viroid
B) virusoid
C) virion
D) prion
A) viroid
B) virusoid
C) virion
D) prion
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70
Prions are made of ________.
A) carbohydrates
B) triglycerides
C) proteins
D) DNA or RNA
A) carbohydrates
B) triglycerides
C) proteins
D) DNA or RNA
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71
What is the normal function of PrPc, or prion protein in mammal cells?
A) Degrade toxic chemicals
B) Guard against degeneration of neurons
C) Halt protein synthesis of neurons
D) Increase the rate of degeneration of neurons
A) Degrade toxic chemicals
B) Guard against degeneration of neurons
C) Halt protein synthesis of neurons
D) Increase the rate of degeneration of neurons
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72
The misfolded form of prion protein, or PrPsc, causes degeneration by ________.
A) converting PrPc into PrPsc
B) aggregating Prpc into amyloid plaques
C) converting PrPsc into PrPc
D) converting PrPsc beta pleated sheets into alpha helices
A) converting PrPc into PrPsc
B) aggregating Prpc into amyloid plaques
C) converting PrPsc into PrPc
D) converting PrPsc beta pleated sheets into alpha helices
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