Deck 13: Psychological Disorders

Question 1

People are sometimes surprised that there is not a perfect consensus among psychologists about what constitutes

A) mental retardation
B) psychological disorders
C) the Diagnostic and Statistical Manual (DSM)
D) psychiatry

Answer 1

B

Question 2

This set of diagnostic criteria for psychological disorders is published by the American Psychiatric Association.

A) Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders
B)International Classification of Diseases
C) Psychiatric and Counseling Psychology Manual
D) Manual of the American Psychological Association

Answer 2

A

Question 3

The study of states of mind and behavior that deviate both from the statistical norm and from what the mental health field considers to be healthy psychological functioning is called

A) clinical psychology
B) antisocial psychology
C) abnormal psychology
D) social psychology

Answer 3

C

Question 4

This aspect of the DSM view of psychological disorders is not as objective as it might be in diagnosing medical disorders.

A) personal distress
B) dysfunction
C) physical discomfort
D) cognitive dissonance

Question 5

Except for certain cases of personality disorders, a person with a psychological disorder generally exhibits

A) impairment in language
B) personal distress
C) mental retardation
D) neurosis

Question 6

Which of the following is the most accurate critique of the DSM view of psychological disorders?

A) The criteria for having a disorder are partly subjective and dependent upon social judgments and cultural values.
B) The consensus of psychologists is that the DSM model of psychological disorders is unreliable.
C) The DSM does not account for the fact that psychological disorders involve some sort of demonstrable, structural change and malfunction of a part of the body.
D) DSM provides too many objective standards for deciding when psychological symptoms have actually caused significant impairment in important areas of one's life.

Question 7

This view of mental illness, introduced by Thomas Szasz, is very critical of the medical model of mental illness.

A) the DSM model
B) the myth of mental illness view
C) the diathesis-stress view
D) the spiritual view

Question 8

Proponents of the "myth of mental illness view" of psychological disorders were primarily concerned with this problem, which is now a relatively rare occurrence.

A) involuntary commitment
B) voluntary commitment
C) deinstitutionalization
D) managed care

Question 9

Due in part to managed health care and psychiatric medication, it is no longer necessary for most people with psychological disorders to stay in mental institutions for any lengthy period of time. This is called

A) deinstitutionalization
B) involuntary commitment
C) point of service
D) deindustrialization

Question 10

Thomas Szasz's myth of mental illness view is critical of this model of mental illness, in which psychological problems are diagnosed in ways similar to that of physical illness.

A) psychiatric model
B) medical model
C) physical model
D) mental model

Question 11

According to the harmful dysfunction view of psychological disorders, psychological dysfunction should be defined in terms of

A) social and cultural standards of behavior
B) evolutionary adaptation
C) brain function
D) nervous system function

Question 12

The terms sane and insane are only appropriate in the context of

A) diagnosis by a psychiatrist
B) admission to a hospital
C) legal proceedings
D) counseling sessions

Question 13

The so-called insanity defense used, albeit rarely, in criminal cases is only valid if the defendant has a psychological disorder which limits his or her ability to

A) understand the consequences of his or her behavior
B)read the court documents
C) take the stand in his or her own defense
D) speak or communicate properly

Question 14

Because some people with serious symptoms may refuse to participate in national surveys about prevalence of psychological disorders, such surveys can result in

A) false positives
B) false negatives
C) population bias
D) experimenter bias

Question 15

If a person suffering from depression after the death of his or her spouse was identified as "disordered" in a research study, it would amount to a

A) false positive
B) false negative
C) confirmation bias
D) null result

Question 16

Which of the following is NOT a part of the category of DSM disorders called major mental disorders?

A) anxiety disorders
B) personality disorders
C) feeding and eating disorders
D) depressive disorders

Question 17

This is the psychological term that refers to an unpleasant feeling of tension, physiological arousal (e.g., increased heart rate), and worry in anticipation of a threat.

A) mood
B) anxiety
C) panic
D) depression

Question 18

Anxiety disorders have a high likelihood of coexisting or overlapping with one another and with other types of disorders, a problem called

A) generalization
B) comorbidity
C) diagnostic confound
D) conflict resolution

Question 19

This disorder can be thought of as the "basic" anxiety disorder.

A) generalized anxiety disorder
B) panic disorder
C) hypophobia
D) obsessive-compulsive disorder

Question 20

Patrick is driven by uncontrollable worry and apprehension about the future. His condition has lasted for several years and sometimes leads to physical symptoms like headaches. Patrick most likely has

A) generalized anxiety disorder
B) panic disorder
C) major depression
D) obsessive-compulsive disorder

Question 21

These are the most common of the anxiety disorders but are the least disabling because of the focus of the anxiety.

A) specific phobias
B) agorophobias
C) obsessive-compulsive disorders
D) panic disorders

Question 22

A person with this phobia is highly anxious about situations involving exposure to unfamiliar people.

A) social phobia
B) agoraphobia
C) acrophobia
D) sangophobia

Question 23

In terms of the harmful-dysfunction view, if shyness evolved to cause us to be wary of strangers or avoid embarrassment in front of a group, then

A) extremely shy people cannot be said to be dysfunctional
B)social phobia is a myth of mental illness
C) phobias are actually adaptive if they do not involve panic
D) extremely shy people cannot be afraid of social judgments of others

Question 24

Though they seem to arrive "out of the blue," these intense anxiety experiences tend to be caused by a specific trigger like experiencing an anxiety-provoking situation.

A)obsessive thoughts
B) compulsions
C) panic attacks
D) dissociations

Question 25

The difference between experiencing a fleeting panic attack and suffering from panic disorder is that people with panic disorder

A) are more likely to lose consciousness during a panic attack
B) are more likely to experience cardiac symptoms during a panic attack
C) are more likely to fear the onset of another panic attack
D) are more likely to avoid treatment for anxiety

Question 26

Which of the following phobias is most likely to develop in a person who also suffers from panic disorder?

A) acrophobia
B) agoraphobia
C) claustrophobia
D) xenophobia

Question 27

Jesus generally avoids being in a crowd, shopping mall, movie theater, or driving a car, because he is worried about his ability to escape or find safety in those places. He is likely suffering from

A) panic disorder
B) agoraphobia
C) social phobia
D) post-traumatic stress disorder

Question 28

Which of the following is NOT a component of the triple vulnerability theory of the cause of mental disorders?

A) generalized biological vulnerability
B) specific-global vulnerability
C) specific psychological vulnerability
D) generalized psychological vulnerability

Question 29

Which of the following is true regarding the categorization of obsessive-compulsive and trauma-related disorders in the DSM-5?

A) Both disorders are absent from the DSM-5, and now considered medical diagnoses.
B)Post-traumatic stress disorder is now considered a kind of extreme panic disorder, while obsessive-compulsive disorder is considered a type of bipolar disorder.
C) Instead of being grouped with anxiety disorders, both disorders form independent categories of disorders in the DSM-5.
D) These two classes of disorders have been replaced by personality disorders that are marked by similar symptoms.

Question 30

If a patient was seeking treatment for obsessive-compulsive disorder, he or she would likely be treated by a provider that specialized in treating symptoms of

A)anxiety disorders
B) depressive disorders
C) schizoaffective disorders
D) personality disorders

Question 31

This disorder was formerly grouped with anxiety disorders prior to the DSM-5, and is characterized by persistent, intrusive, anxiety-provoking thoughts, often combined with a strong urge to perform repetitive, ritualistic behaviors.

A) agoraphobia
B) post-traumatic stress disorder
C) obsessive-compulsive disorder
D) generalized anxiety disorder

Question 32

The most common type of obsessive thought experienced by people diagnosed with obsessive-compulsive disorder is

A) doubt
B) contamination
C) symmetry
D) self-mutilation

Question 33

Jennifer compulsively checks locks on doors and windows five times before she goes to bed as a symptom of her obsessive-compulsive disorder. Which category of obsessions is she most likely responding to?

A) doubt
B) contamination
C) symmetry
D) safety

Question 34

Which of the following would most likely be a statement from someone with obsessive-compulsive disorder, and not a normal human thought related to organization or safety?

A)I worry about holding babies because I am afraid I will drop them.
B) I wash my hands before eating in a public place so I don't contract germs.
C) I spend two hours getting dressed for work in the morning and sometimes call in sick because I notice spots on my clothes.
D) I iron all of my shirts as soon as they come out of the dryer so that I know that they will not get wrinkled.

Question 35

Post-traumatic stress disorder is unique among psychological disorders because

A)the genetic markers for the disorder are well known
B) the symptoms are generally mild and do not cause distress
C) the cause of the disorder may be specified with certainty
D) the risk factors are generally correlational

Question 36

Which of the following is not a symptom specific to sufferers of post-traumatic stress disorder?

A) numbing or detachment from others
B) intrusive thoughts about the trigger event
C) daytime "flashbacks"
D) insomnia

Question 37

Among the 50%-60% of adults exposed to traumatic events each year, the most common reaction is that of

A) post-traumatic stress disorder
B) panic disorder
C) resilience
D) resistance

Question 38

Which of the following is NOT considered a serious risk factor for developing PTSD following a traumatic event?

A) exposure to trauma in films and video games
B) traumatic event occurring in childhood
C) low income or poverty
D) previous exposure to trauma or stress

Question 39

The two primary directions that characterize dysfunctional moods are

A) depression and anxiety
B) anxiety and mania
C) depression and mania
D) mania and schizophrenia

Question 40

The mood state characterized by exaggerated and prolonged feelings of sadness, hopelessness, helplessness, grief, guilt, and low feelings of self-worth is called

A) mania
B) depression
C) hypomania
D) dysthymia

Question 41

Which of the following statements about major depressive disorders is NOT true?

A)Depression is not associated with a decline in physical health.
B)Depression and anxiety symptoms tend to be comorbid.
C) Depression is not a chronic disorder and is quickly responsive to treatment.
D) Depression can result from genetic vulnerabilities.

Question 42

The chemical imbalance description of depression and the link to serotonin levels in the brain is controversial because

A) it is an oversimplification of the relationship between neurotransmitters and mood
B)serotonin is not involved in the brain's control of mood
C) studies show that delivering dopamine to depressed patients is as effective as delivering serotonin
D) it is a false statement proposed by pharmaceutical companies

Question 43

Martin Seligman proposed that if human beings come to believe for whatever reason that they have no control over the negative events of their lives, they may experience this aspect of depression.

A) learned helplessness
B) hopeless cognition
C) negative triadic thoughts
D) stable pessimism

Question 44

The proponents of hopelessness theory claimed that learned helplessness is not enough to explain depression because helplessness is

A) equally present in anxiety sufferers
B) not a scientific term
C) not a component of most major depressive symptoms
D) equally present in schizophrenics

Question 45

Which of the following statements is least likely to lead to depression, according to hopelessness theory?

A) "It's my fault that I failed the exam because I'm not smart."
B) "I'm always going to fail statistics exams, I'm not cut out for science."
C) "I'll probably get kicked out of school because I'm stupid."
D) "I'll never win the respect of my colleagues."

Question 46

Which of the following is NOT part of Beck's negative cognitive triad?

A) feelings of self-worthlessness
B) false beliefs about the negative aspects of the world
C) feelings of anxiety about the past
D) predictions of hopelessness about the future

Question 47

All of the following are reasons why women suffer depression more frequently than men, EXCEPT:

A) Early sexual development in girls can bring unwanted harassment
B)Girls may be more likely to possess the short allele of 5-HTTLPR
C) Women are less resistant to the effects of stormy relationships.
D) Hopelessness and rumination are more prevalent in women.

Question 48

The tendency to focus inwardly and brood on the possible causes and consequences of negative emotions and events is called

A) hopelessness
B) rumination
C) anxiety
D) negative cognitive triad

Question 49

All of the following are valid reasons for the increase in rates of depression in the United States, EXCEPT:

A) a reduction in the stigma associated with emotional distress
B) an improvement in the criteria for diagnosing depression in childhood
C) a tendency to overdiagnose the disease in cases where the depression is a normal response to life events
D) the criterion about the length of a major depressive episode allows for diagnoses of it in cases of normal stress responses

Question 50

This part of the bipolar cycle is characterized by a reduced need for sleep along with increased sexuality, humor, feelings of mental "clarity," and enjoyment of life.

A) mania
B) hypomania
C) unipolar mania
D) hypermania

Question 51

This phase of the bipolar cycle is marked by high-pressured speech, bizarre and risky behavior, and lack of sleep and calmness.

A) mania
B) hypomania
C) unipolar mania
D) hypermania

Question 52

Which of the following represents the most realistic scenario for a person suffering from a bipolar disorder?

A) Steve cycles through weeks in which he binges on drugs and doesn't sleep and then does not leave his house.
B) Jessica is generally depressed and anxious and occasionally experiences hypomanic symptoms.
C) Raymond is not usually happy when his mania emerges and now sees a psychiatrist.
D) Alison enjoys her manic episodes because they are never dysphoric and contribute to her creativity.

Question 53

This category of psychological disorders is characterized by a large increase in the risk of suicide among sufferers.

A) anxiety and trauma-related disorders
B) depressive and bipolar disorders
C) personality disorders
D) dissociative disorders

Question 54

The statement that suicide is the third leading cause of death among 10- to 18-year-olds is misleading mainly because

A) the mortality rate of this age group is generally very low
B) the mortality rate of adults is well below the mortality rate of adolescents
C) the statistic underemphasizes the risks of adolescent depression
D) the statistic does not include schizophrenic children

Question 55

Women are much more likely than men to do this while suffering from a mood disorder.

A)commit suicide
B) commit parasuicide
C) fully recover
D) engage in substance-abuse behavior

Question 56

All of the following are reasons why men tend to be more successful in their suicide attempts compared with women, EXCEPT:

A) men are more likely to attempt suicide while younger
B)men are more likely to be physically aggressive
C) men are more likely to be socially isolated
D) men are more likely to suffer from alcoholism

Question 57

Which of the following people is most likely to commit suicide?

A) Jenny, a white American woman with bipolar disorder
B)Byron, an African American man with social phobia
C) Alfonse, a native American man with major depression
D) Marisol, a retired Latina American with seasonal affective disorder

Question 58

Horowitz and Wakefield assert that the so-called epidemics of disorders like depression and anxiety are the result of

A) genetics
B) overdiagnosis
C) underdiagnosis
D) environmental interaction

Question 59

Which of the following provides the best argument against Horowitz's and Wakefield's descriptions of the harms of overdiagnosing mental disorders?

A) Overdiagnosis exposes more people to the risks associated with treatment.
B) Underdiagnosis can result in unnecessary healthcare costs.
C) Overdiagnosis exposes the patient to the stigma attached to mental illness.
D) Underdiagnosis can lead to lack of treatment for patients with anxiety and depression.

Question 60

One of the reasons that Horowitz and Wakefield believe it is dangerous to overdiagnose depression following a severely stressful life event is that

A) men will typically attempt suicide if diagnosed as depressed
B)humans are not genetically equipped to deal with stress
C) symptoms of depression are natural responses to severe stress
D) chronic stress responses can lead to physical illness

Question 61

This is a group of related psychotic disorders characterized by severely distorted perception and experience of reality, disorganized thought and speech, and inappropriate emotions or emotional responses.

A) hypomania
B) dysthymia
C) schizophrenia
D) dissociative identity disorder

Question 62

Schizophrenic symptoms in which something is added to the person's behavior that should not be there, such as hallucinations and delusions, are called

A)positive symptoms
B) psychotic symptoms
C) negative symptoms
D) active symptoms

Question 63

Which of the following is the best characterization of a positive symptom of schizophrenia?

A) David is often silent and motionless for long periods of time.
B) Sam will not use a cellphone because he believes the FBI has been tracking him for 10 years.
C) When Denis is asked questions, his tone of voice never changes no matter whether he is interested in the conversation or not.
D) Peter has been homeless for the last 13 years and is severely depressed.

Question 64

________________are false sensory experiences, such as hearing voices or "seeing things" that aren't there. __________________are incorrect and grossly distorted thoughts and beliefs, not widely shared by other members of one's culture.

A) Delusions, Irrationals
B) Delusions, Hallucinations
C) Hallucinations; Negative affects
D) Hallucinations; Delusions

Question 65

One of Michael's schizophrenic symptoms is that he is convinced that he is actually the reincarnation of Jesus Christ. This qualifies as what type of delusion?

A)delusion of persecution
B) delusion of grandeur
C) delusion of reference
D) delusion of spirituality

Question 66

Though similar to delusions of persecution, these schizophrenic delusions often cause the sufferer to interpret newspaper headlines and other mass forms of communication as hidden messages intended for him or her alone.

A)delusions of grandeur
B) delusions of spirituality
C) delusions of reference
D) delusions of importance

Question 67

These types of schizophrenic symptoms are marked by their absence, as in lack of affect, or apathy.

A) positive symptoms
B) psychotic symptoms
C) negative symptoms
D) passive symptoms

Question 68

Schizophrenics with this symptom may not reply to questions at all or may reply with only a single word or brief phrase that is often illogical.

A) anhedonia
B) alogia
C) avolition
D) flat affect

Question 69

This negative symptom of schizophrenia involves inappropriately emotionless expression even in the midst of highly emotional conversation or events.

A) anhedonia
B) alogia
C) avolition
D) flat affect

Question 70

This negative symptom of schizophrenia is very similar to apathy, especially when the schizophrenic patient must decide to do something.

A) anhedonia
B) alogia
C) avolition
D) flat affect

Question 71

Though similar to flat affect, this negative symptom of schizophrenia refers specifically to the difficulty experiencing pleasure in normal daily activities.

A) anhedonia
B) alogia
C) avolition
D) anxiety

Question 72

This is the term for any single characteristic or symptom that is present in people with a specific psychological disorder and is also present at a high rate in close genetic relatives who do not have the disorder.

A) schizotype
B) genotype
C) endophenotype
D) heterotype

Question 73

Gur and colleagues found that schizophrenic patients and their nonschizophrenic relatives performed more poorly than people without schizophrenic relatives on this type of psychological test.

A) a personality test
B) a schizotypal test
C) a neurocognitive test
D) a nonverbal language test

Question 74

Which of the following is NOT a neurodevelopmental factor investigated by schizophrenia researchers?

A) illness in the mother during the second trimester of pregnancy
B)brief lack of oxygen or other distress during birth
C) exposure to an element in cat feces
D) lack of a strong mother figure in the family

Question 75

People who experience recovery from symptoms of schizophrenia are usually labeled as

A) cured
B) in remission
C) latent
D) in vitro

Question 76

According to the DSM-5, all of the following are areas of functioning that may be impaired in individuals with a personality disorder, EXCEPT:

A) intimacy
B) self-direction
C) cognition
D) identity

Question 77

People with this personality disorder are argumentative, preoccupied with threats both real and imagined, and tend to interpret the words of others' as hostile.

A)borderline personality disorder
B) paranoid personality disorder
C) obsessive-compulsive personality disorder
D) schizoid personality disorder

Question 78

Peter has paranoid personality disorder. He overhears strangers in a restaurant conversing about an ugly person; what would Peter's reaction likely be?

A)ignore the conversation because it is not about him
B) use his lighter to burn his arm after he left the restaurant
C) conclude that they are talking about him and verbally confront them
D) binge eat and then purge by inducing vomiting in the bathroom

Question 79

People suffering from this personality disorder also frequently attempt to injure themselves in some way-with substantial numbers attempting or committing suicide.

A) borderline personality disorder
B) paranoid personality disorder
C) obsessive-compulsive personality disorder
D) schizoid personality disorder

Question 80

Despite its name, this personality disorder is more likely to be comorbid with an eating disorder or depressive disorder.

A) borderline personality disorder
B) paranoid personality disorder
C) obsessive-compulsive personality disorder
D) schizoid personality disorder