Deck 8: Anxiety, Obsessive-Compulsive, and Trauma- and Stressor-Related Disorders

Question 1

When does anxiety become a source of clinical concern?

A) When it reaches a moderate level
B) When it reaches such an intense level that daily function becomes difficult
C) When the unconscious conflicts that produce it lead to troublesome dreams
D) When the person becomes unscathed by it

Answer 1

B

Question 2

The disorders which are characterized by intense, incapacitating fear and apprehension are called ________ disorders.

A) somatic symptom
B) dissociative
C) anxiety
D) personality

Answer 2

C

Question 3

Shelly experiences intense periods of fear and physical discomfort that interfere with her daily living. Shelly may be suffering from a (n) ________ disorder.

A) somatic symptom
B) anxiety
C) dissociative
D) mood

Answer 3

B

Question 4

Approximately what percentage of the U.S. population over the age of 60 years is affected by anxiety disorders?

A) 5%
B) 15%
C) 30%
D) 40%

Question 5

Which of the following is true?

A) Distinct from anxiety is fear, which is the emotion that people experience when confronted with a real or imagined threat.
B) Anxiety disorders are the least prevalent of all psychological disorders.
C) Men are 60% more likely than women to experience an anxiety disorder over their lifetime.
D) Anxiety disorders are characterized by intense, irrational, and incapacitating aggression.

Question 6

Which disorder is characterized by difficulty in leaving one's caregivers?

A) Overanxious disorder
B) Avoidant disorder
C) Separation anxiety disorder
D) Panic disorder

Question 7

Rex, a 9-year-old boy, gets too scared whenever leaves his parents and goes to school. Rex's mother has to leave work as and when she is informed to reach his school to stop him from ongoing weeping. Rex is most likely suffering from _____ disorder.

A) separation anxiety
B) overanxious
C) avoidant
D) rumination

Question 8

Which of the following disorders is a child likely to develop after experiencing a natural or manmade trauma, such as a terrorist attack?

A) Reactive attachment disorder
B) Separation anxiety disorder
C) Conduct disorder
D) ADHD

Question 9

Techniques such as systematic desensitization and relaxation training have been effective in the treatment of which childhood disorder?

A) Intellectual disability
B) Disruptive behavior disorder
C) Autism spectrum disorder
D) Separation anxiety disorder

Question 10

_____ is a disorder originating in childhood in which an individual consciously refuses to talk.

A) Autism spectrum disorder
B) Expressive language disorder
C) Selective mutism
D) Childhood schizophrenia

Question 11

A clinician devises a hierarchy of desired responses beginning by rewarding the child for making any utterances, and then progressing through words and sentences to treat a child with selective mutism. Which of the following methods does the clinician use?

A) Relaxation training
B) Shaping and exposure
C) Covert conditioning
D) Hypnosis

Question 12

An irrational and ongoing fear of a particular object, activity, or situation is known as a(n)

A) general anxiety.
B) specific phobia.
C) allergy.
D) overall aversion.

Question 13

If a person's fear response to a specific situation or object is disproportionate to the actual threat posed by the stimulus, the individual is said to have a(n)

A) phobia.
B) compulsion.
C) delusion.
D) aversion.

Question 14

One of the most common forms of phobias is the fear of

A) water.
B) enclosed spaces.
C) heights.
D) being isolated.

Question 15

Ron, a high-school graduate, has had an intense fear of bats since he was a toddler. After consulting with a clinician, he was diagnosed with

A) a panic disorder.
B) general anxiety.
C) a specific phobia.
D) an obsessive-compulsive disorder.

Question 16

Maisie has an extreme fear of heights. When she registers for classes at college, she makes a point of signing up for classes that are held on the first floor of the buildings. This becomes a problem when one class that she is required to take is only offered on the fifth floor of the main classroom building. Maisie might be diagnosed as having

A) agoraphobia.
B) social anxiety disorder.
C) obsessive-compulsive disorder.
D) specific phobia.

Question 17

Within the biological perspective, researchers believe that the anxiety associated with specific phobias may be conceived due to abnormalities in the

A) cerebellum.
B) anterior insular cortex.
C) corpus callosum.
D) medulla oblongata.

Question 18

The anterior insular cortex area of the brain is associated with

A) physical sensation and stimulus.
B) respiration and heart rate.
C) vision and hearing sensations.
D) emotion and self-awareness.

Question 19

Which of the following of specific phobia is true?

A) People suffering from specific phobias are easily distressed by minor disruptions of life.
B) Different specific phobias show different patterns of brain activation.
C) Specific phobia is linked with neuroticism.
D) Specific phobia is a disorder which is partially genetically based.

Question 20

In systematic desensitization, a person

A) counterconditions their fear response.
B) "gets in touch" with the stimuli that caused him or her to become fearful.
C) is taught to systematically avoid stimuli that produce fear.
D) explores the irrational elements in his or her thoughts and emotions.

Question 21

"Individuals with specific phobias have overactive "alarm systems" to danger." This view is according to the

A) psychodynamic perspective.
B) cognitive-behavioral view.
C) humanistic approach.
D) biological perspective.

Question 22

Which theoretical perspective views the causes of phobias to be based on the individual's misinterpretation of harmless stimuli?

A) Cognitive-behavioral
B) Humanistic
C) Existential
D) Psychoanalytic

Question 23

The tendency to misconstrue stimuli as uncontrollable or dangerous would be of most interest to

A) psychodynamic theorists.
B) cognitive-behavioral theorists.
C) humanistic theorists.
D) psychoanalytic theorists.

Question 24

The behavioral approach to treating phobias, which involves gradually exposing the client to the feared stimulus while the client practices relaxation exercises, is called

A) systematic desensitization.
B) flooding.
C) aversive conditioning.
D) relaxation training.

Question 25

Don cured his son's fear of the dark by simply pushing his son into a dark room and locking the door. This type of treatment is known as

A) systematic desensitization.
B) flooding.
C) counterconditioning.
D) imaginal flooding.

Question 26

The behavioral technique in which the individual is immersed through visualization into a feared situation is referred to as

A) in vivo flooding.
B) systematic desensitization.
C) imaginal flooding.
D) in vivo desensitization.

Question 27

Graduated imaginal exposure is to systematic desensitization as graduated live exposure is to the

A) imaginal sensitization method.
B) graded conditioning method.
C) graded in vivo method.
D) flooding in vivo method.

Question 28

Which of the following is the most stressful technique for the behavioral treatment of phobias since it causes so much immediate anxiety?

A) Imaginal flooding
B) Graded in vivo
C) Thought stopping
D) In vivo flooding

Question 29

The procedure in which a client is eventually brought out in increasingly challenging situations provoking his/her anxieties is known as

A) relaxation training.
B) thought stopping.
C) imaginal flooding.
D) graded in vivo method.

Question 30

James suffers from acrophobia, an extreme fear of heights. His therapist plans on using a behavioral technique in which James imagines situations where he is up high. The technique that his therapist is following is called

A) relaxation training.
B) thought stopping.
C) gradual exposure.
D) imaginal flooding.

Question 31

The cognitive-behavioral method in which the client is taught to cases having anxiety provoking thoughts is called

A) imaginal flooding.
B) thought stopping.
C) graded thinking.
D) in vivo desensitization.

Question 32

Which of the following is implicit in all behavioral techniques adopted by clinicians for the treatment of a phobia?

A) positive reinforcement
B) psychoeducation
C) graduated exposure
D) in vivo flooding

Question 33

Every time Bella starts getting anxious about speaking in public, she starts thinking things like, "Oh no, I'm going to stutter and then everyone will laugh at me" and "I'll probably trip up and accidentally use a four-letter word while reading my notes." Her therapist has urged her to silently shout "ENOUGH!" to herself when these intrusive thoughts start agitating her. This cognitive technique is known as

A) systematic desensitization.
B) counterfactual thinking.
C) thought stopping.
D) relaxation training.

Question 34

Which of the following ailments involve intense anxiety in situations where others might be observing a person's behavior?

A) Hydrophobia
B) Specific phobia
C) Agoraphobia
D) Social anxiety disorder

Question 35

The anxiety of a person suffering from social anxiety disorder is essentially centered on

A) the fear of falling unconscious in a public place.
B) the desire to avoid humiliation in a gathering.
C) the feeling of claustrophobia when standing in a crowd.
D) the feeling of getting isolated and being lost in a mob.

Question 36

According to one theory, individuals with social anxiety disorder are unable to shift their attention away from

A) their performance of difficult activities.
B) distractions in the environment.
C) unconscious fears.
D) what other people will think of them.

Question 37

Individuals with social anxiety disorder are likely to steer themselves away from all of the situations mentioned below EXCEPT

A) situations where they believe they might embarrass themselves.
B) many kinds of social relationships and social roles.
C) careers with any potential for public exposure.
D) situations where they are separated from their caregivers.

Question 38

Chanina gets nervous when other people watch her eat lunch. She is worried that her behavior will catch the attention of others and they might make fun of the way she eats. This fear typically forces her to eat in her office rather than the staff lunchroom. She continually declines invitations to go out for dinner. Chanina might be diagnosed as having

A) agoraphobia.
B) specific phobia.
C) social anxiety disorder.
D) obsessive-compulsive disorder.

Question 39

Raven is intensely anxious every time he has to sign his name in public. Assuming this anxiety is only manifested in public places, Raven might have a type of

A) specific phobia.
B) social anxiety disorder.
C) obsessive-compulsive disorder.
D) agoraphobia.

Question 40

Many people who suffer from social anxiety disorder can overcome their symptoms with a combination of cognitive-behavioral therapy and ________ medications.

A) SSRI and SNRI
B) stimulant
C) depressant
D) antipsychotic

Question 41

Which of the following categories of medicines is shown to be most effective for social anxiety disorders?

A) Acetylcholinesterase inhibitors
B) AED
C) SSRI or SNRI
D) Synaptic vesicle glycoprotein 2A

Question 42

Which of the following drugs, used in treating social anxiety disorders, have significant potential for abuse?

A) MAOIs
B) SSRIs
C) Serotonianti-convulsants
D) Benzodiazepines

Question 43

Which of the following drugs can effectively manage social anxiety disorder symptoms but also possess potentially dangerous side effects?

A) MAOIs
B) SSRIs
C) SNRIs
D) Anti-manics

Question 44

Derek suddenly felt his hands and legs go numb and started shaking involuntarily while preparing for his high school final semester. The acuteness of the problem forced his parents to consult a clinician. When asked, the clinician was told that it was the first time Derek had suffered from any of these symptoms. Derek is most likely experiencing

A) a panic attack.
B) panic disorder.
C) post-traumatic stress disorder.
D) dissociative disorder.

Question 45

A woman who suffers from periods of intense fear and discomfort in which she feels overwhelmed and terrified by a range of bodily sensations may be diagnosed as having a(n)

A) panic disorder.
B) generalized anxiety disorder.
C) obsessive-compulsive disorder.
D) obsessive-compulsive personality.

Question 46

Nasir occasionally experiences periods of intense overwhelming dread that come about for no reason. These periods are marked by trembling, heart palpitations, and chills, and the feeling that he is losing control. Nasir might be diagnosed as having

A) post-traumatic stress.
B) generalized anxiety.
C) phobic disorder.
D) panic disorder.

Question 47

Sudden intense sensations such as shortness of breath, dizziness, choking, and heart palpitations are characteristic of

A) hypervigilance.
B) schizoid personality disorder.
C) depression.
D) panic disorder.

Question 48

What is one of the most troubling concerns for individuals who have panic disorder?

A) They dread the possibility that they may have another attack.
B) They fear the possibility of having an attack in the presence of their closest friends.
C) They fear that they will pass this disorder on to their children.
D) They dread the possibility that they will yell obscenities in public.

Question 49

Individuals who suffer from panic disorder often develop

A) claustrophobia.
B) generalized anxiety disorder.
C) hemophobia.
D) agoraphobia.

Question 50

The fear of being stranded in some public situation or circumstances without help is a hallmark symptom of

A) hydrophobia.
B) simple phobia.
C) agoraphobia.
D) social anxiety disorder.

Question 51

Kaila is so intimidated by the possibility of having a panic attack that she stays home the majority of the time. If she does go out, she insists that one of her friends accompanies her in case she has a panic attack. In addition to having panic disorder, Kaila might also be described as suffering from

A) hydrophobia.
B) agoraphobia.
C) claustrophobia.
D) arachnophobia.

Question 52

Which of the following is true of a person suffering from panic disorder?

A) The person becomes more prone to developing suicidal tendencies.
B) The concentration of norepinephrine in the person's blood decreases.
C) The person has a heightened responsiveness to the presence of carbon dioxide in the blood.
D) The person slowly becomes anemic.

Question 53

One biological theory of panic disorder proposes that individuals with panic disorder have an excess of

A) glutamate.
B) norepinephrine.
C) dopamine.
D) benzodiazepine.

Question 54

One biological theory proposes that panic disorders can be caused by low levels of the neurotransmitter

A) norepinephrine.
B) serotonin.
C) GABA.
D) dopamine.

Question 55

As you are walking back to your dorm on a dark night you suddenly hear footsteps behind you. Which neurotransmitter is likely to be activated?

A) Dopamine
B) Norepinephrine
C) GABA
D) Acetylcholine

Question 56

According to the classical conditioning perspective, panic disorders which result from acquired associations between an internal or external cue and feelings of intense anxiety are known as

A) uncontrolled dissociations.
B) delirious reactions.
C) somatic manifestations.
D) conditioned fear reactions.

Question 57

According to the classical conditioning perspective, a full-blown panic attack may be triggered even before the appropriate bodily changes have taken place because of the association of certain bodily sensations with

A) memories of the last panic attack.
B) unconscious conflicts.
C) memories of poor attachments in childhood.
D) increased GABA levels.

Question 58

Jason, who has panic disorder, is coming down with the flu. The sensations of nausea he is encountering are also triggering feelings of uneasiness and dread. The anxiety triggered by the nausea would be best described as a(n)

A) conditioned fear reaction.
B) unconditioned stimulus.
C) unconditioned response.
D) conditioned fear stimulus.

Question 59

Helping clients recognize the emergency of panic attack symptoms, so that they can take steps to relax, is an important component of which type of therapy?

A) Biological
B) Psychoanalytic
C) Humanistic
D) Behavioral

Question 60

A behavioral technique that is used by clinicians to treat anxiety disorder involving progressive and systematic patterns of muscle tensing and easing is known as

A) systematic desensitization.
B) thought stopping.
C) panic control therapy.
D) relaxation training.

Question 61

Hyperventilation is a common symptom in

A) substance use disorders.
B) somatoform disorders.
C) dissociative disorders.
D) panic disorders.

Question 62

Psychoeducation is a part of the treatment known as

A) panic control therapy (PCT).
B) relaxation training.
C) flooding.
D) thought stopping.

Question 63

Which of the following diagnoses is used to describe constant anxiety that is not associated with a particular object or event?

A) Social anxiety disorder
B) Obsessive-compulsive disorder
C) Generalized anxiety disorder
D) Panic disorder

Question 64

According to researchers, generalized anxiety disorders may develop in people due to

A) the lack of the neurotransmitter norepinephrine.
B) increased availability of GABA.
C) abnormalities in the anterior insular cortex.
D) disturbances in the noradrenergic system.

Question 65

Shamir, a 50-year-old man, feels queasy most of the time. His symptoms include sleep disturbances, irritability, and muscle tension. He is constantly restless, fidgets all the time, and cannot sit still for a minute. Shamir has been diagnosed as having

A) panic disorder.
B) generalized anxiety disorder.
C) attention deficit disorder.
D) hyperactivity.

Question 66

Which of the following personality traits is most closely associated with the development of generalized anxiety disorder?

A) Conscientiousness
B) Psychoticism
C) Agreeableness
D) Neuroticism

Question 67

How might a cognitive-behavioral therapist treat an individual with generalized anxiety disorder?

A) The client may be taught how to recognize anxiety-producing thoughts and to seek more rational alternative thoughts.
B) The therapist may use free association in order to illuminate conflicts that reside in the person's unconscious.
C) The therapist may actively listen to the client's concerns and provide a therapeutic environment rich in empathy.
D) The client may be urged to develop an enhanced sense of self more in line with his or her actual self.

Question 68

Which of the following is true of body dysmorphic disorder (BDD)?

A) People with BDD do not perform compulsive behavior.
B) People with BDD tend to constantly seek reassurance from others about how they look.
C) BDD is rarely accompanied by major depressive disorders.
D) People with BDD tend to develop amnesia in their old age.

Question 69

Which disorder is characterized by the client's dissatisfaction and delusional preoccupation with the idea that some part of his or her body is ugly or defective?

A) Briquet's syndrome
B) Psychalgia
C) Body dysmorphic disorder
D) Disorder with uncontrolled body movements

Question 70

Lilly is exceedingly concerned about her weight. She thinks that her hips are unusually wide and that people secretly make fun of her appearance. No amount of assurance from friends and family members could allay her concerns and she remains withdrawn, avoiding social events. Which of the following disorders is Lilly most likely to be suffering from?

A) Body dysmorphic disorder
B) Conversion disorder
C) Depersonalization disorder
D) Hypochondriasis

Question 71

Veronica is overly conscious about a mole on her right cheek that she has had since birth. She wakes up early every morning and spends several hours before the mirror applying make-up on the mole before going out. Veronica's behavior is most likely to be associated with which of the following disorders?

A) Hypochondriasis
B) Body dysmorphic disorder
C) Conversion disorder
D) Factitious disorder

Question 72

Which of the following disorders does not often accompany body dysmorphic disorder?

A) Obsessive-compulsive disorder
B) Social anxiety disorder
C) Major depressive disorder
D) Psychotic spectrum disorder

Question 73

Jason thinks that his nose is far too big for his face and that it makes him look ugly. He is overly conscious of his appearance and shuns social gatherings. Jason displays signs of

A) body dysmorphic disorder.
B) conversion disorder.
C) somatization disorder.
D) somatization disorder.

Question 74

Many people with body dysmorphic disorder also suffer from

A) bipolar disorder.
B) ADHD.
C) social anxiety disorder.
D) amnesia.

Question 75

Clinicians treating clients with BDD from a _____ perspective focus on helping them to understand that appearance is only one aspect of their total identity, while at the same time challenging them to question their assumptions that their appearance is, in fact, defective.

A) Psychoanalytic
B) Sociolinguistic
C) Sociocultural
D) Cognitive-behavioral

Question 76

Trichotillomania is a disorder involving the persistent urge to

A) pull out one's own hair.
B) bite one's own nails.
C) binge and then purge.
D) steal.

Question 77

Which of the following disorders involves the compulsive, persistent urge to pull out one's own hair?

A) Anorexia nervosa
B) Pyromania
C) Trichotillomania
D) Kleptomania

Question 78

Amanda is an 8-year-old girl who compulsively pulls out her own hair in response to an irresistible urge to do so. She is unable to stop this behavior despite the development of several bald patches on her head due to hair loss. Which of the following impulse-control disorders is Amanda most likely to have?

A) Kleptomania
B) Intermittent explosive disorder
C) Pyromania
D) Trichotillomania

Question 79

Which of the following statements is true with regard to trichotillomania?

A) People with trichotillomania are least likely to be upset by their uncontrollable behavior.
B) The impairments of people with trichotillomania appear only in late adulthood.
C) Trichotillomania may be underreported because people with this disorder tend to engage in hair-pulling only when alone.
D) Heritability plays no role in trichotillomania.

Question 80

Which pharmacological treatment for trichotillomania has shown the most promising results?

A) Lithium
B) Naltrexone
C) Insulin
D) Antidepressants