Deck 3: Assessment

Question 1

Which of the following is a common use of psychological assessment?

A) To evaluate a client's symptoms or diagnosis
B) To determine whether an individual is competent to stand trial
C) To evaluate appropriateness for a job
D) All of the above

Answer 1

D

Question 2

Dr. Romero is using a number of tests and techniques in an attempt to identify the factors that are influencing her client's functioning. Dr. Romero is engaging in a process more formally defined as a psychological

A) screening.
B) diagnosis.
C) quantification.
D) assessment.

Answer 2

D

Question 3

A _____ is a procedure in which a clinician provides a formal evaluation of an individual's cognitive, personality, and psychosocial functioning.

A) psychological assessment
B) medical diagnosis
C) clinical review
D) personality test

Answer 3

A

Question 4

The _____ of a test indicates the consistency of the scores it produces.

A) liability
B) validity
C) reliability
D) utility

Question 5

Cathy is given the task of measuring the volume of water a wading pool will hold. Unfortunately, the instrument she chooses to use to accomplish this task is a thermometer. Cathy is carrying out a procedure that is NOT a _____ measure of volume.

A) reliable
B) consistent
C) valid
D) concurrent

Question 6

Mr. Tate clearly specifies a test's instructions for administration and scoring. He gives each individual in the room an hour to finish the visual-spatial task. Which of the following psychometric criterion has Mr. Tate used?

A) Harmonization
B) Conciliation
C) Standardization
D) Customization

Question 7

A good psychological test is one that follows standardized procedures for scoring and

A) diagnosis.
B) classification.
C) organization.
D) administration.

Question 8

Jonathan, a clinician, unintentionally makes generic and vague statements about his client Amy that do not specifically characterize her. The statements describe Amy as a strong person but also suggest that she could display fragility under difficult circumstances. This can be true for most people. Which of the following is Jonathan's interpretation characteristic of?

A) Pygmalion Effect
B) Placebo Effect
C) Hawthorne Effect
D) Barnum Effect

Question 9

Deciding which methods of assessment are appropriate for different types of clients in different types of situations is an aspect of

A) choosing between use of the Rorschach and the TAT.
B) evidence-based assessment.
C) creating the restructured clinical scales for the MMPI.
D) psychometric validity.

Question 10

A series of questions that clinicians administer in a face-to-face interaction with the client that enables the clinicians to make observations of their clients is known as

A) a psychometric test.
B) a clinical interview.
C) the self-report questionnaire.
D) the Thematic Apperception Test.

Question 11

What type of interview relies on a set of open-ended questions designed to assess the client's reasons for being in treatment, symptoms, health status, family background, and life history?

A) Standardized interview
B) Evaluation interview
C) Unstructured interview
D) Structured interview

Question 12

Dr. Sebastian is trying to determine Ralph's reason for seeking treatment by asking him a series of open-ended questions. He wants to determine Ralph's family background and life history. What type of assessment technique is Dr. Sebastian employing?

A) Self-report interview
B) Diagnostic questionnaire
C) Standardized interview
D) Unstructured interview

Question 13

The _____ interview is a standardized series of assessment questions, with a predetermined wording and order.

A) structured
B) reference
C) clinical
D) unstructured

Question 14

In addition to noting the answers to questions in an unstructured interview, the clinician also observes the client's

A) verbal cues.
B) opinion on moral issues.
C) level of comfort.
D) family structure.

Question 15

Which of the following is NOT typically included as part of a clinical interview?

A) Personality testing
B) Information about age and cultural background
C) Information about employment and work history
D) Clinician observations about the client's mood state

Question 16

A clinician watches a client through a one-way mirror and records the number of times he engages in self-injurious behavior. This assessment method is commonly referred to as a

A) behavioral self-report.
B) behavioral observation.
C) behavioral inventory.
D) semi-structured inventory.

Question 17

When using the _____ interview, the clinician pursues specific lines of questioning based on the client's answers to predetermined questions.

A) unstructured
B) psycho diagnostic
C) family history
D) structured

Question 18

Which of the following statement is true with regard to Structured Clinical Interview for DSM-5 Disorders (SCID-5)?

A) Anyone with the proper training can administer the SCID, not necessarily only licensed mental health professionals.
B) SCID-5 is a standardized set of questions which cannot be modified to suit the interviewee's answers.
C) The SCID-5 takes 2 to 3 hours to administer, depending on the complexity of the client's symptoms.
D) Clinicians use the SCID-5 to get reimbursement from insurance companies.

Question 19

Which of the following is an advantage that the structured interview has over the unstructured interview?

A) Structured interviews generally require a great deal of skill and expertise to administer.
B) The structured interview is a systematic approach that is less subject to variations from clinician to clinician.
C) The administration of structured interviews requires extensive training.
D) Structured interviews allow clinicians to alter questions to fit their clients' situations.

Question 20

A mental status examination

A) is used to determine intellectual disability.
B) tests for a variety of assessments, including overall cognitive evaluation.
C) is a brief screening device to assess dementia.
D) is used to assess a client's current state of mind.

Question 21

Which of the following is a structured tool that clinicians use as a brief screening device to assess neurocognitive disorders?

A) Global Assessment of Functioning
B) Anorectic Behavior Observation Scale
C) Mini-Mental State Examination
D) Comprehensive Psychopathological Rating Scale

Question 22

A(n) _____ is a method of objectively assessing a client's behavior and functioning in a number of spheres, with particular attention to the symptoms associated with psychological disturbance.

A) interpretive test
B) analytic assessment
C) structured questionnaire
D) mental status examination

Question 23

Mrs. Jones is 79 years old. She often forgets where she is and thinks she is a teenager. Doctors have diagnosed her condition as dementia. Which of the following structured tools will be used to assess her condition?

A) International Personality Disorder Examination
B) Structured Clinical Interview for DSM-5
C) Mini-Mental State Examination
D) Wechsler Adult Intelligence Scale

Question 24

Which of the following is NOT one of the areas of functioning assessed by a mental status examination?

A) Behavior
B) Content of thought
C) Socioeconomic status
D) Insight

Question 25

Rachael's therapist is trying to determine her current functioning by examining her behavior, thought process, mood and affect, insight, and judgment. The therapist is actually conducting a

A) standardized interview.
B) self-report assessment.
C) psycho physiological assessment.
D) mental status examination.

Question 26

What kind of psychological test yields information about cognitive functioning and the presence of learning disabilities?

A) Projective test
B) Intelligence test
C) Behavioral assessment
D) Self-report questionnaire

Question 27

Through intelligence testing, clinicians can obtain standardized scores that allow them to

A) evaluate the cognitive strengths and weaknesses of their clients.
B) distinguish between the social status of two clients.
C) categorize the level of intelligence in a large group of clients.
D) compare the standard of living of different clients.

Question 28

Who developed the first IQ test?

A) David Wechsler
B) John Stanford
C) Alfred Binet
D) Adrian Bellevue

Question 29

_____ is an index of intelligence derived from comparing the individual's score on an intelligence test with the mean score for that individual's reference group.

A) Wechsler Intelligence quotient
B) MMPI standardized score
C) MPTI code
D) Deviation intelligence score

Question 30

The IQ score that is obtained by converting the client's actual test score to a value that is a comparison of this score with other scores from individuals of a similar age and gender is referred to as the _____ IQ.

A) deviation
B) composite
C) verbal
D) quantitative

Question 31

Which of the following deviation IQ scores indicates average intelligence?

A) 75
B) 100
C) 125
D) 150

Question 32

Which of the following tests provides an IQ score as well as measurements of other factors such as fluid reasoning, knowledge, and working memory?

A) Conners Rating Scales-Revised
B) Minnesota Multiphasic Personality Inventory-2
C) Stanford-Binet 5
D) Wechsler Intelligence Scale for Children-IV

Question 33

Which of the following aspects of the Stanford-Binet 5 (SB5) indicate the ability to solve novel problems?

A) Fluid Reasoning
B) Visual-Spatial Reasoning
C) Quantitative Reasoning
D) Working Memory

Question 34

Jim was asked to assemble a three-dimensional puzzle while taking the SB5 Test. Which type of ability is assessed by SB5 in this situation?

A) Fluid Reasoning
B) Visual-Spatial Reasoning
C) Quantitative Reasoning
D) Working Memory

Question 35

The Stanford-Binet 5 is to _____ as the WAIS-IV is to _____.

A) adults; children
B) intellectually disabled individuals; average individuals
C) children; adolescents
D) children; adults

Question 36

Originally the Wechsler IQ test had two categories, verbal and

A) mathematical.
B) cognitive.
C) performance.
D) psychomotor.

Question 37

The _____ of the WAIS-IV measures visual-spatial and fluid reasoning

A) Verbal Comprehension Index (VCI)
B) Working Memory Index (WMI)
C) Perceptual Reasoning Index (PRI)
D) Processing Speed Index (PSI)

Question 38

Harvey is asked to recall a series of digits in forward order and backward order. Which of the following scales is being tested in Harvey's case?

A) Verbal comprehension
B) Working memory
C) Perceptual reasoning
D) Processing speed

Question 39

Which index of the Wechsler Adult Intelligence Scale-IV includes symbol search tests and coding tests?

A) Verbal Comprehension Index (VCI)
B) Working Memory Index (WMI)
C) Perceptual Reasoning Index (PRI)
D) Processing Speed Index (PSI)

Question 40

Dr. Meyer completes a WAIS-IV assessment of his patient, George. George performs well above average on the Block Design and Matrix Reasoning subtests, and well below average on the Symbol Search and Coding subtests. Dr. Meyer is most likely to conclude that George

A) is low in verbal abilities, but high in the amount of information he can keep in mind at one time.
B) is high in mathematical abilities, but has a below-average vocabulary.
C) is high in perceptual reasoning abilities, but low in processing speed.
D) has an average Full-Scale IQ.

Question 41

A psychological test with standardized questions having fixed response categories that the test-taker completes independently is referred to as a

A) projective test.
B) standard interview.
C) neurological assessment.
D) self-report clinical inventory.

Question 42

Amelia takes a psychological test with standardized questions having fixed response category as "true" or "false." She completes the test independently on the computer and reports the extent to which the responses are accurate characterizations. This test is objective in the sense that the scoring does not involve any form of subjective judgment on the part of the examiner. Which form of personality test did Amelia undertake?

A) Neuropsychological
B) Self-report clinical inventory
C) Consensus-based assessment
D) Projective

Question 43

Which of the following is the most commonly administered self-report inventory?

A) Wechsler Adult Intelligence Scale-R
B) Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders
C) Minnesota Multiphasic Personality Inventory
D) Rorschach Inkblot Test

Question 44

Recent efforts to revamp the MMPI-2 have involved the development of

A) projective scales.
B) additional validity scales.
C) an essay component for the test.
D) restructured clinical scales.

Question 45

Which of the following self-report clinical inventories yields scores on ten "clinical" and three "validity" scales?

A) WAIS
B) EPQ
C) POI
D) MMPI-2

Question 46

Which of the following makes it possible to determine whether or not a person is lying on the MMPI-2?

A) Observations of the test-taker
B) The reliability scales
C) Discrepant scores on 2 of the 10 subscales
D) The validity scales

Question 47

Which of the following clinical scales of the MMPI-2 is designed to measure antisocial tendencies and delinquencies?

A) Schizophrenia
B) Psychopathic deviate
C) Depression
D) Psychasthenia

Question 48

The extent to which an individual ascribes to stereotypic sex-role behaviors and attitudes is measured by which scale of the MMPI-2?

A) Gender role
B) Masculinity-femininity
C) Sex role
D) Sexual orientation

Question 49

Samantha has persistent delusions that the CIA is trying to kill her. Based on this information, on which subscale of the MMPI-2 would she be likely to score highly?

A) Hypochondriasis
B) Hysteria
C) Paranoia
D) Hypomania

Question 50

A person who has uncontrollable urges to act as well as unreasonable fears would probably score high on which scale of the MMPI-2?

A) Psychasthenia
B) Schizophrenia
C) Hypomania
D) Paranoia

Question 51

Joshua is overactive and aggressive most of the times. He has an unrealistic sense of superiority and his behavior lacks substantial forethought. Which clinical scale of the MMPI-2-RF indicates Joshua's condition?

A) Aberrant experiences
B) Somatic complaints
C) Hypomanic activation
D) Cynicism

Question 52

Which of the following is an advantage that the Personality Assessment Inventory (PAI) has over the Minnesota Multiphasic Personality Inventory (MMPI)?

A) Personality Assessment Inventory (PAI) is of value in describing a client's "personality" as distinct from the client's symptoms.
B) Personality Assessment Inventory (PAI) focuses on the client's current status rather than asking about symptoms over a previous period of time.
C) Personality Assessment Inventory (PAI) measures the test-taker's current experiencing of 90 physical and psychological symptoms.
D) Personality Assessment Inventory (PAI) calculates the validity scale independently of any of the content scales.

Question 53

Which of the following is an advantage of the Personality Assessment Inventory (PAI)?

A) It describes a client's "personality" as distinct from the client's symptoms.
B) Clinicians can use it with clients who may not have the language or reading skills to complete the MMPI-2.
C) It focuses on the client's current status rather than asking about symptoms over a previous period of time.
D) It assesses a client's auditory information processing speed, flexibility, and calculation ability.

Question 54

Which of the following is an advantage of SCL-90-R?

A) It focuses on the client's current status rather than asking about symptoms over a previous period of time.
B) It assesses a client's auditory information processing speed, flexibility, and calculation ability.
C) Clinicians can use it with clients who may not have the language or reading skills to complete the MMPI-2.
D) It describes a client's "personality" as distinct from the client's symptoms.

Question 55

Scott has just taken a self-report inventory that will indicate his scores on the five personality dimensions, or sets of traits. The scales are designed so the test-taker can complete them as well as individuals who know the test-taker, such as spouses, partners, or relatives. Scott has just taken the

A) SCL-90-R.
B) NEO-PI-R.
C) PASAT.
D) MMPI-2.

Question 56

You accidentally walk into a room where a psychologist is conducting a Rorschach Test with a client. You are most likely to overhear the client say

A) "That woman is sad because she is remembering everything she lost."
B) "I would consider myself very creative."
C) "2, 7, 9, 8, 3."
D) "It looks like two bears dancing."

Question 57

The _____ test requires the client to comment on what he or she sees when presented with an ambiguous stimulus.

A) introspective
B) self-report
C) behavioral
D) projective

Question 58

Why are clients less guarded about their responses on projective tests?

A) The tests assess a client's auditory information processing speed, flexibility, and calculation ability.
B) The tests focus on the client's current status rather than asking about symptoms over a previous period of time.
C) Client's don't know how the assessor will interpret their answers.
D) The tests describe a client's "personality" as distinct from the client's symptoms.

Question 59

Which of the following is the most famous projective technique?

A) Kinetic Family Drawing Test
B) Thematic Apperception Test
C) Personal Orientation Inventory
D) Rorschach Inkblot Test

Question 60

Which projective test consists of stimuli that are a series of black-and-white ink drawings and photographs portraying people in a variety of ambiguous contexts?

A) Thematic Apperception Test
B) Rorschach Inkblot Test
C) Picture-Story Completion Test
D) California Personality Inventory

Question 61

Pablo's therapist is telling him to look at black-and-white drawings that portray people in a variety of ambiguous situations. Pablo's task is to tell a story about what is happening in each scene, focusing on such details as what the characters in the picture are thinking and feeling. Pablo's therapist is administering the

A) Rorschach.
B) TAT.
C) MMPI-2.
D) BCT.

Question 62

A person taking the Thematic Apperception Test (TAT) is asked to

A) keep a running log of problem behaviors for a week.
B) draw a picture of his or her family engaging in some everyday activity.
C) answer several fill-in-the-blank questions.
D) tell a story about the scene shown on the card.

Question 63

Measurement techniques based on objective recordings of an individual's actions are referred to as

A) psychological tests.
B) behavioral assessments.
C) projective tests.
D) standard interviews.

Question 64

Behaviors of interest or concern that the client and clinician wish to change are called

A) target behaviors.
B) antecedents.
C) baseline behaviors.
D) independent behaviors.

Question 65

Which of the following records actions rather than responses to rating scales or questions?

A) Psychological tests
B) In vivo observations
C) Behavioral assessments
D) Analog observations

Question 66

A process involving the recording of behavior in its natural context, such as the classroom or the home, is known as _____ observation.

A) systematic
B) in vivo
C) case study
D) analog

Question 67

Dr. Donahue is observing a hyperactive boy's aggressive behavior on the playground. Dr. Donahue is engaging in

A) systematic observation.
B) dichotomous observation.
C) in vivo observation.
D) analog observation.

Question 68

_____ observations take place in a setting or context such as a clinician's office or a laboratory specifically designed for observing the target behavior.

A) Analog
B) Dichotomous
C) In vivo
D) Systematic

Question 69

Since some natural settings do not lend themselves to unobtrusive observation, many clinicians utilize the technique of

A) in vivo observation.
B) self-report observations.
C) electrodermal observation.
D) analog observation.

Question 70

Which method of behavioral assessment requires that the client provide information about the frequency of particular behaviors?

A) Behavioral observation
B) Physiological measurement
C) Behavioral self-report
D) Motivational reporting

Question 71

A behavioral self-reporting technique in which the client keeps a record of the frequency of specified behaviors is known as

A) behavioral interviewing.
B) self-actualization.
C) behavioral observation.
D) self-monitoring.

Question 72

Dr. Schwartz is requesting that his client keep a tally of the number of times per hour he says negative things to his wife. Which assessment technique is Dr. Schwartz employing?

A) Behavioral interviewing
B) Self-monitoring
C) Self-actualization
D) Behavioral observation

Question 73

_____ is an assessment process in which clinicians ask questions about the target behavior's frequency, antecedents, and consequences.

A) Behavioral interviewing
B) In vivo observation
C) Behavioral observation
D) Systematic desensitization

Question 74

Dr. Winger questions her client about his drinking problem, focusing on events that precede and follow a drinking binge. This specific technique is called

A) behavioral observation.
B) in vivo observation.
C) behavioral interviewing.
D) systematic desensitization.

Question 75

An assessment process in which clinicians take into account the person's cultural, ethnic, and racial background is known as

A) multicultural assessment.
B) organizational assessment.
C) DISC assessment.
D) universal screening assessment.

Question 76

Lian, a Chinese American, was asked by her clinician if she could speak English fluently. The clinician took into account Lian's cultural, ethnic, and racial background. Which of the following was performed by Lian's clinician?

A) Universal screening assessment
B) Organizational assessment
C) DISC assessment
D) Multicultural assessment

Question 77

The process of gathering information about a client's brain functioning on the basis of performance on psychological tests is referred to as _____ assessment.

A) neuropsychological
B) psychophysiological
C) behavioral
D) neuroleptic

Question 78

Which of the following is true about neuropsychological assessment?

A) The procedure for conducting a neuropsychological assessment is rigid and inflexible.
B) Clinicians use neuropsychological assessment measures to attempt to determine the functional correlates of brain damage.
C) There is no similarity between neuropsychological tests and WAIS-IV as they are completely different tests.
D) Clinicians cannot evaluate "executive function" through neuropsychological assessments.

Question 79

According to the clinicians, which of the following refers to the ability to formulate goals, make plans, carry out those plans, and then complete the plans in an effective way?

A) Executive function
B) Motor coordination
C) Decision making
D) Divergent thinking

Question 80

A Trail Making Test

A) assesses a client's auditory information processing speed, flexibility, and calculation ability.
B) evaluates frontal lobe functioning, and focuses on attention, scanning of visual stimuli, and number sequencing.
C) evaluates the functioning of the temporal lobe that is involved in auditory perception and in high-level visual processing of complex stimuli.
D) assesses children with learning disabilities and adults who suffer from brain injury or dementia.