Deck 17: Societys Response to Maladaptive Behavior

Question 1

Primary prevention is concerned with

A) reducing relapse rates.
B) reducing new cases of a disorder.
C) improving response to therapeutic interventions.
D) protecting "at-risk" people from developing disorders.

Answer 1

B

Question 2

Which of the following is an example of primary prevention?

A) premarital counseling
B) treating a hyperactive child with stimulant drugs
C) providing social support for people who want to stop smoking
D) sending juvenile delinquents to prison to meet with convicts to "scare them straight"

Answer 2

A

Question 3

Which of these is an example of primary prevention?

A) taking iron pills to treat anemia
B) group homes for juvenile offenders
C) public campaigns about drinking and driving
D) special classes for emotionally disturbed children

Answer 3

C

Question 4

Which of the following most accurately describes primary prevention?

A) efforts to reduce the consequences of certain disorders or diseases once they have developed
B) efforts aimed at a particular population to reduce the development of new cases of disorders or diseases
C) efforts to reduce the chances that certain problems will develop in subgroups that are considered to have a high risk
D) separation of cases of those who have certain diseases from those who do not in order to reduce the spread of such diseases

Question 5

Which of the following is an example of secondary prevention of PKU?

A) distribution of written materials describing PKU to expectant mothers
B) analysis of genetic tests to determine if a child has the genes for PKU
C) public service announcements describing the cause and the symptoms of PKU
D) development of a special diet for a child who has been diagnosed as having PKU

Question 6

Which of the following is an example of secondary prevention?

A) taking vitamins to prevent catching a cold
B) discouraging young people from beginning to smoke
C) putting warning labels on car seats to insure they are used properly
D) providing social support groups for people who have experienced serious traumatic events

Question 7

Programs for men who have been violent toward their family members in which they receive support and counseling to change their behavior are
examples of

A) postvention.
B) tertiary prevention.
C) primary prevention.
D) secondary prevention.

Question 8

Secondary prevention is concerned with:

A) reducing the potential disability of an existing abnormal condition
B) educating couples on sexual diseases
C) medical awareness of conditions
D) All of the above.

Question 9

Rehabilitation and resocialization are associated with:

A) secondary prevention
B) primary prevention
C) tertiary prevention
D) school-based programs for prevention

Question 10

Which of these is an example of tertiary prevention?

A) taking vitamins every day
B) speech therapy for stroke victims
C) avoiding alcohol during pregnancy
D) public campaigns against smoking

Question 11

Which of the following is the best example of tertiary prevention for hyperactivity in children?

A) evaluating all children in a school system for the possible diagnosis of hyperactivity
B) training teachers in techniques used to detect cases of hyperactivity in the classroom
C) instituting behavior therapy for a child diagnosed as hyperactive in order to improve attention skills
D) distributing pamphlets describing the symptoms of hyperactivity to parents of children in a school district

Question 12

What type of prevention focuses on people who have already developed a disorder?

A) postvention
B) tertiary prevention
C) primary prevention
D) secondary prevention

Question 13

Approximately what percentage of American teenagers are referred to courts each year for suspected offenses other than traffic offenses?

A) 1%
B) 4%
C) 8%
D) 12%

Question 14

Which of these is an example of primary prevention for juvenile delinquency?

A) residential programs for delinquents
B) therapy for families of serious offenders
C) programs to provide safe, low-cost housing
D) after-school activities for kids who have been to court

Question 15

Reducing or eliminating the environmental causes of disordered behavior is called

A) tertiary prevention.
B) secondary prevention.
C) situation-focused prevention.
D) competency-focused prevention.

Question 16

________ prevention attempts to reduce environmental causes of maladaptive behavior. ___________ prevention enhances a community's ability to cope with conditions leading to maladaptive behavior.

A) Competency focused; primary
B) Primary; situation-focused
C) Tertiary; secondary
D) Situation-focused, competency-focused

Question 17

Robert and Evan are growing up in an area with a high number of very aggressive gangs. They are in a special school program to foster early development of job skills in hopes that these skills will keep them out of gangs. This program is an example of

A) tertiary prevention.
B) primary prevention.
C) situation-focused prevention.
D) competency-focused prevention.

Question 18

About what percentage of all children in the U.S. can expect to experience their parents' divorce during childhood?

A) 10%
B) 25%
C) 50%
D) 75%

Question 19

Parental permissiveness and failures in monitoring are associated with increased risk for what child behavior or disorder?

A) anxiety
B) depression
C) aggression
D) attention deficit

Question 20

Children of psychotic parents have an increased risk for

A) epilepsy.
B) dysthymia.
C) eating and sleeping problems.
D) attention-deficit/hyperactivity and mental retardation.

Question 21

For a number of years Agnes has consumed large amounts of alcohol. When she became pregnant, she did not alter her drinking habits. Her physician suspected she was a heavy drinker and warned her to stop. During their discussion, the physician pointed out that Agnes has increased the risk her child will develop which of the following problems?

A) autism
B) depression
C) hyperactivity
D) schizophrenia

Question 22

Which of the following are characteristics of parents who abuse their children?

A) impulsive and immature
B) mood swings and auditory hallucinations
C) high level of intelligence and low socioeconomic status
D) overinflated sense of self-worth and doubts concerning ability

Question 23

Which of the following characterizes the family histories of parents who abuse their children?

A) married later in life
B) raised in small families
C) experienced abuse as children
D) showered with affection from parents

Question 24

Which of the following characterizes the parenting practices of abusive parents?

A) psychological damage can be observed immediately
B) excessive praise of children
C) children are highly supervised
D) few demands are placed on the child

Question 25

A psychologist was asked by the mental health department to create a program for abusive parents. After reviewing the literature on effective programs, what is she likely to include in the program she designs?

A) existential therapy
B) systematic desensitization
C) group assertiveness training
D) behavioral training in impulse control

Question 26

What is the primary focus of Parents Anonymous?

A) helping single parents
B) helping abusive parents
C) assisting children who are abused
D) assisting couples who are trying to conceive

Question 27

A group of citizens met recently because they were alarmed by the high rate of child abuse in their community. They invited an expert on child abuse prevention programs to outline some of the methods that could be used to reduce child abuse. Which of the following items is most likely to be on the list of techniques to be used in the prevention efforts?

A) financial support for parents
B) legal consequences for abuse
C) monitoring of the home situation
D) group therapy for family members

Question 28

Approximately what percentage of women who are murdered in the U.S. are killed by a husband, ex-husband, or suitor?

A) 8%
B) 15%
C) 30%
D) 65%

Question 29

The state Department of Corrections and the Department of Mental Health are collaborating on a survey to determine the number of women who are killed by a husband, ex-husband, or suitor. They sampled 1,000 cases of murder of a woman. Based on past research, approximately what number would you expect
to have been killed by a husband, ex-husband, or suitor?

A) 10
B) 80
C) 300
D) 500

Question 30

Which of these is a contributing factor to spouse abuse and murder?

A) changing sex roles
B) genetic abnormalities
C) false reports of abuse
D) cultural acceptance of male dominance

Question 31

Compared to other husbands, husbands who abuse their wives are more likely to have

A) legal difficulties.
B) behaved violently in other situations.
C) high levels of assertiveness in social situations.
D) witnessed spouse abuse between their parents.

Question 32

Which of the following is an example of a secondary prevention program for spouse abuse?

A) premarital counseling
B) marital counseling to reduce discord
C) providing spouses with safety, shelter, and counseling
D) psychological testing to determine whether a spouse is likely to become an abuser

Question 33

Premarital counseling designed to reduce spouse abuse is an example of

A) postvention.
B) tertiary prevention.
C) primary prevention.
D) secondary prevention.

Question 34

Compared to other children, which of the following is more likely to occur among children of divorced parents?

A) remain unmarried
B) develop schizophrenia
C) become spouse abusers
D) receive mental health services

Question 35

Which of the following is an important guideline for helping children to adjust to a divorce?

A) explain the reasons for the divorce
B) delay telling them until it is absolutely necessary
C) have only one of the parents continue frequent contact
D) suggest that the parents will one day get back together

Question 36

What are some of the techniques that can be used to teach parents to be effective behavior-change agents for their children and help to develop their social and cognitive skills?

A) modeling and reinforcement
B) milieu therapy and implosive therapy
C) cognitive restructuring and group therapy
D) existential therapy and aversive conditioning

Question 37

For many years, family members have been considered causal agents for the mental illnesses of other family members. How has this view changed?

A) Family members are often so aloof from family members with mental illness that they play little role in the illness.
B) The family member's mental illness is now viewed as a stressor, which can create a need to develop coping skills.
C) Members of the family share common genes for mental illness, and members who have not developed an illness do not wish to be reminded of this possibility.
D) Most of the maladaptive behavior seen in families with mental illness present results from genetic factors that should be addressed by genetic
counseling.

Question 38

Jake has been identified as at risk for dropping out of school. What would be most helpful in preventing his dropout?

A) placing him larger classes
B) moving him to a new school
C) not singling him out as needing help
D) setting high but realistic expectations for achievement

Question 39

A group of social workers is monitoring programs in several poor neighborhoods. The data they have collected indicates that the neighborhood they are working in at the current time has a high degree of "collective efficacy." What might they expect to find in this neighborhood based on this information?

A) There is high level of fear of police intervention.
B) Neighbors are more willing to keep quiet about crime.
C) Adults are more likely to discipline children for missing school.
D) Neighbors are more likely to be involved in political efforts to change their current situation.

Question 40

Jack's neighborhood is described as trusting, sharing common values, and cohesive. Which term would researchers use to describe this set of characteristics?

A) meshed
B) collective efficacy
C) communal effectiveness
D) neighborhood solidarity

Question 41

What is the main focus of community psychology?

A) diagnosis
B) prevention
C) treatment
D) normal development

Question 42

Miguel is a community psychologist. What type of work is he likely to do?

A) testing therapy clients
B) developing prevention programs in the schools
C) providing psychiatric treatment for hospitalized patients
D) overseeing welfare payments in a social services center

Question 43

Under what set of circumstances can paraprofessionals be especially effective in providing mental health services?

A) when they have religious training
B) when their backgrounds are similar to their clients
C) when they are recruited from well-educated populations
D) when they are used primarily for statistical and clerical tasks

Question 44

Alcoholics Anonymous is an example of

A) a self-help group.
B) primary prevention.
C) professional social support.
D) situation-focused prevention.

Question 45

When considering treatment in the community, a basic component of needed services is:

A) hospitals
B) recreational centers
C) affordable housing
D) schools

Question 46

What is an example of alternative housing for the mentally ill?

A) co-ops
B) group homes
C) personal care homes
D) partial hospital programs

Question 47

What is an example of custodial housing for the mentally ill?

A) co-ops
B) group homes
C) nursing homes
D) halfway houses

Question 48

The public television station is going to air a program on the case of Sylvia Frumkin. Because you are a volunteer at the station and a psychology major, they ask you for suggestions for possible titles. Which of the following would be the best title for the program?

A) "Falling through the mental health system"
B) "Violence and mental illness: The dangerous connection"
C) "Reason to hope: The effectiveness of new antipsychotic drugs"
D) "Reversing the ravages of psychosis with diet and tender loving care"

Question 49

What is one of the clearest consequences of deinstitutionalization?

A) There are now more re-admissions to hospitals.
B) Patients now remain in hospitals for longer stays.
C) There are more first-time admissions now than in the past.
D) Rates of mental illness among the homeless have declined.

Question 50

What is the process of placing a person in a psychiatric hospital without their consent?

A) habeas corpus
B) civil commitment
C) deinstitutionalization
D) declaration of insanity

Question 51

Under what conditions can civil commitment proceedings occur?

A) the individual is a risk to self or others
B) a crime was the result of mental illness
C) the patient voluntarily checks into the hospital
D) with the assurance that no basic human rights are violated

Question 52

What is the most serious problem with forced institutionalization?

A) Hospitalization is expensive.
B) The process is time-consuming.
C) The individual is deprived of basic human rights.
D) There is little benefit unless the patient consents to treatment.

Question 53

Under which set of circumstances is criminal commitment of an individual to a mental hospital most likely to occur?

A) an individual is not adjusting well to prison
B) the individual is judged to be dangerous to him/herself or to others
C) he or she has committed a criminal act that is legally declared to be a result of insanity
D) an individual convicted of a crime voluntarily decides to go to a hospital as opposed to a prison

Question 54

The legal concept of insanity refers to the person's state of mind at what point in time?

A) at the time of trial
B) before the crime occurred
C) at the time the act was carried out
D) while imprisoned for the conviction

Question 55

Ted is a lawyer who was assigned a criminal case by the senior partner in his firm. The senior partner hands Ted the client's file and tells him the client
is incompetent. Which of the following is most likely to describe this client?

A) The client is not able to understand the charges against him.
B) The client was unable to complete a battery of psychological tests.
C) When tested, the client was found to have only a sixth grade reading level.
D) The client has had a court appointed person to make major decisions for him.

Question 56

On the basis of all the evidence, a judge has decided that Steve did indeed carry out a murder with criminal intent, but that he is not capable of understanding the judicial proceedings. The judge declares Steve to be

A) incompetent but not insane.
B) insane but not incompetent.
C) both insane and incompetent.
D) neither insane nor incompetent.

Question 57

Which principle refers to a person's ability to distinguish right from wrong?

A) Durham rule
B) parens patriae
C) M'Naghten rule
D) irresistible impulse

Question 58

Which principle holds that a person is not criminally responsible if a criminal act was the product of mental disease or mental defect?

A) Durham rule
B) parens patriae
C) M'Naghten rule
D) irresistible impulse

Question 59

A judge is instructing a jury that is hearing a case in which the defendant pled insanity to the charge of murder. The trial is taking place in a state where the Durham rule is used to decide insanity cases. What will the judge say when instructing the jury on the basis for rendering their decision?

A) "The defendant is insane if his crime was the product of a mental disease."
B) "You cannot convict the defendant if he was incompetent at the time he committed the crime."
C) "The defendant is insane if he could not tell right or wrong at the time the crime was committed."
D) "The defendant is insane if he experienced an irresistible impulse at the time the crime was committed."

Question 60

What did the Supreme Court decide in Jones v. the United States (1983) concerning people found not guilty by reason of insanity?

A) They can still serve a jail term.
B) They should be retried at a later date.
C) They should be released to their families.
D) They can be held indefinitely in a mental hospital.

Question 61

Which of the following is the best description of the M'Naghten test for determining insanity?

A) right-wrong
B) irresistible impulse
C) beyond moral control
D) product of mental disease

Question 62

In what proportion of criminal cases is the defendant declared not guilty by reason of insanity?

A) very few
B) about ¼
C) about 1/3
D) about half

Question 63

You are a member of a team of students that is investigating cases in which the defendant pled not guilty by reason of insanity. The team assembles 1,000 cases from all counties in the state. Based on past research, which of the following would you predict would be the approximate number of cases in which the individual was found to be insane?

A) 5
B) 100
C) 300
D) 500

Question 64

Assume that each of these individuals committed murder and was arrested for the crime. There is no doubt that the individuals committed the crime. The only question is whether the person will be held criminally responsible. If the position of the American Psychiatric Association is followed in these cases, which individual is most likely to be found not guilty by reason of insanity?

A) Larry who was drunk at the time the crime was committed
B) Al who was psychotic at the time the crime was committed
C) Ed who was depressed at the time the crime was committed
D) Mike who has been previously diagnosed as exhibiting antisocial personality disorder

Question 65

A newspaper investigator is assigned to write a story on the insanity plea. The editor tells the reporter to contrast what the general public believes about the insanity plea and people who use it with the facts. After collecting the data on the insanity plea, which of the following would make a good title for the story?

A) "How criminals are getting away with murder: It is insane"
B) "Accused use the insanity plea more than the public believes"
C) "Most people who plead insanity are not accused of murder"
D) "When the judge says 'not guilty by reason of insanity' it means you are free to go"

Question 66

Why did John Hinckley attempt to assassinate President Ronald Reagan?

A) He wanted to impress an actress.
B) He was following the instructions of voices he heard.
C) He wanted to engage in a behavior that would ensure that he received the treatment that he needed.
D) He wanted to make a point concerning certain policies that restricted the rights of the mentally ill.

Question 67

Last year Ron was arrested for murder. He pled "not guilty by reason of insanity." Jurors in the state where Ron lives may find the defendant "guilty but mentally ill" and this was the verdict returned in Ron's case. What will
happen to Ron?

A) He will live the rest of his life in a mental hospital.
B) He will serve time in prison and then be transferred to a mental hospital.
C) He will receive treatment and then serve out his full sentence like other prisoners.
D) Half of the time he will be in a mental hospital, and the rest of the time he will be in prison.

Question 68

How have the states of Montana, Idaho, and Utah addressed the controversies that surround the insanity plea?

A) They abolished the insanity plea.
B) They have forbidden the use of expert witnesses in insanity cases.
C) They have limited the use of insanity pleas to murder cases without additional charges.
D) They have limited the use of insanity pleas to cases in which the defendant has a prior diagnosed, serious mental illness.

Question 69

When a court appointed psychiatrist examined Ted Kaczynski, what conclusion was reached?

A) Kaczynski was faking.
B) Kaczynski was incompetent and insane.
C) Kaczynski was diagnosed as paranoid schizophrenic.
D) Kaczynski was diagnosed as suffering from bipolar disorder.

Question 70

Ted Kaczynski, the "Unabomber" was arrested for mailing bombs to people he had identified as moving the culture toward a more highly technological era. What was the outcome of his case?

A) He was found "not guilty by reason of insanity" and will be treated in a mental hospital.
B) He did not want mental health issues raised at trial, was diagnosed as paranoid schizophrenic, and agreed to plead guilty.
C) He is still appealing his case on the grounds that his attorney did not follow his wishes in seeking psychiatric testimony.
D) He was found "guilty but mentally ill" and will receive treatment for as long it takes to recover, and then be sent to a prison.

Question 71

According to what principle does the state act in what it considers to be the best interest of a child or incapacitated adult?

A) Durham rule
B) parens patriae
C) habeas corpus
D) insanity defense

Question 72

All civil commitment laws involve a judgment about whether an individual is suffering from a disabling mental illness and whether he or she is

A) indigent.
B) psychotic.
C) dangerous.
D) treatable.

Question 73

A prosecutor is petitioning the court to commit an individual the state considers to require hospitalization. The prosecutor's supervisor instructs him to read the case of Addington v. Texas. What will he find when he reads this case that is essential to his presentation to a judge?

A) The state cannot commit a person for more than one month.
B) Decisions to institutionalize people are based on a psychological battery.
C) The state must provide evidence that the individual is psychotic before it can institutionalize him.
D) The state must prove the person needs hospitalization by a clear and convincing standard of proof.

Question 74

How accurate are clinicians' predictions of whether a given individual will do something dangerous in the future?

A) often inaccurate
B) usually accurate
C) accurate in the short-term, but not the long-term
D) accurate in the long-term, but not the short-term

Question 75

A state commission is examining mental health predictions of dangerousness. The media is following the story and when the report is released they are likely to run stories under which of the following headlines?

A) "Accuracy increases with time"
B) "Highly accurate but unrecognized"
C) "High accuracy based on psychological testing"
D) "Inaccurate in the short-run and worse in the long-run"

Question 76

A professor of psychiatry is lecturing to mental health professionals on the issue of predicting dangerousness. Which of the following points will
he want to impress upon these people?

A) Patients are more likely to be dangerous to others than themselves.
B) When dangerous, patients are likely to be dangerous to themselves.
C) Patients are equally likely to be dangerous to themselves and to others.
D) The only reliable predictor of future dangerousness is the presence of brain damage.

Question 77

In the case of Wyatt v. Stickney (1971), what did the court rule about the state's responsibility for the mentally ill?

A) must use involuntary commitment only in criminal cases
B) must provide adequate treatment for involuntarily committed people
C) must require informed consent for individuals undergoing drug therapy
D) must deinstitutionalize all individuals who want to live in the community

Question 78

What right did the Supreme Court recognize in the case of O'Connor v. Donaldson for involuntarily committed patients who are not dangerous?

A) right to treatment
B) right to refuse medication
C) right to have a voice in selecting a therapy
D) right to communicate with people outside the institution

Question 79

What was the basis for the judgment of damages against two psychiatrists in the case of O'Connor v. Donaldson (1975)?

A) They had given him a wrong diagnosis.
B) They did not provide adequate treatment.
C) They refused to provide services paid for by private insurance.
D) They did not allow him grounds privileges while in the hospital.

Question 80

What right was established for individuals who are involuntarily committed to psychiatric hospitals in the case of Rennie v. Klein (1978)?

A) to have their files examined
B) to refuse to take medication
C) to refuse to participate in token economies
D) to participate in the "least restrictive treatment possible"