Deck 13: Cognitive Impairment Disorders

Question 1

Bob Oxley, whose case was described in the text, suffered a severe headache that led him to seek medical attention. A CT scan revealed areas of swollen brain tissue. Later, Bob referred to his doctor as "blotcher" and when asked to name 10 animals he could utter only two. What happened to Bob?

A) Bob had aphasia resulting from damage to the left frontal lobe.
B) Bob had apraxia resulting from damage to the right frontal lobe.
C) A CT scan revealed evidence of Huntington's disease, which affects his motor movement.
D) A CT scan revealed evidence of Parkinson's disease, which affected his motor movement.

Answer 1

A

Question 2

How do cognitive impairment disorders differ from most other DSM-IV-TR categories?

A) They are irreversible conditions.
B) They are generally present from birth.
C) They are usually treated with surgery.
D) They are due to known medical conditions or substances.

Answer 2

D

Question 3

Which of the following is not a type of the cognitive impairment disorders?

A) delirium
B) amnestic disorders
C) agnosia
D) dementia

Answer 3

C

Question 4

A psychology professor is lecturing to a class on Physiological Psychology. She routinely uses overheads to outline the topic and begins with a one line summary of the topic under discussion. How might she summarize the topic of how the brain ages?

A) The brain stops growing after childhood.
B) The brain actually begins to deteriorate at birth.
C) Different parts of the brain ages at different rates.
D) In most people the brain stops growing in middle age.

Question 5

Which of the following is not an area of brain research pertinent to the understanding of normal and abnormal behaviors?

A) examining the effects of medications on brain interaction
B) clearly defining the role of the brain in regulating and monitoring internal bodily processes
C) examining how the brain grows and maintains itself
D) identifying memory systems used by the brain at the cellular and module levels

Question 6

Which of the following is not a causal factor in the unusual behavior in relation to the brain?

A) damage to the brain
B) diseases to the brain
C) strokes
D) psychobiological stressors

Question 7

All of the following are factors influencing vulnerability to brain disorders except:

A) stress
B) medications
C) physical condition
D) personality factors

Question 8

What is the association between age and vulnerability to brain damage and brain disorders?

A) Infants are less vulnerable.
B) The elderly are most vulnerable.
C) Young adults are most vulnerable.
D) The association depends on the disorder.

Question 9

In general, how does healthy psychological and social functioning at the onset of an organic condition influence the impact of the condition on behavior?

A) hinders adjustment
B) unpredictable effect
C) promotes adjustment
D) increases risk for depression

Question 10

For an assignment in your abnormal class, you are to compare brain injuries, epilepsy, and acute cerebrovascular diseases with schizophrenia and panic disorders. What will you find when you compare the two groups of disorders?

A) The two groups occur with equal frequency.
B) Both sets of disorders occur at lower rates now than they did in the past.
C) There are large and significant sex differences in the two sets of disorders.
D) The group of brain disorders occurs more frequently than schizophrenia and panic disorder.

Question 11

A physician suspects that a patient has a subtle form of brain damage that has not shown up on brain scans. The symptoms include apathy, overeating, reduced capacity to use language, and loss of orientation to time and place. A referral is made to a neuropsychologist. Which part of the brain might the neuropsychologist suspect has been damaged?

A) parietal lobes
B) corpus callosum
C) cerebellum
D) frontal lobes

Question 12

Which of the following is a possible sign of changes that occur in patients with frontal lobe malfunctions?

A) delusions of grandeur and odd postures
B) auditory hallucinations and depersonalization
C) dissociative amnesia and migraine headaches
D) diminished ability to concentrate and loss of orientation to time or place

Question 13

What is the primary purpose of the mental status examination?

A) to make a psychiatric diagnosis
B) to describe current behavior and thought
C) to draw inferences about the cause of a disorder
D) to record direct observation of brain abnormalities

Question 14

Alan is scheduled for a mental status examination tomorrow. What can he expect to happen?

A) He will undergo PET and CT scans.
B) A clinical interview will be conducted.
C) A complete blood analysis will be done.
D) He will take a battery of psychological tests.

Question 15

All of the following are considered for evaluation in a mental status examination except:

A) stream of thought
B) long-term memory
C) mood
D) appearance

Question 16

The mental status examination is supplemented by:

A) psychological testing; neurological exam
B) neurological exam; educational testing
C) neurological exam; medical exam
D) psychological testing; CT scan

Question 17

Clinical neuropsychologists are particularly interested in understanding changes in behavior due to

A) anxiety.
B) brain lesions.
C) hormonal imbalances.
D) intrapsychic conflicts.

Question 18

Steve was involved in a serious auto accident last week. A team of surgeons worked on him for 8 hours and saved his life. However, the extensive damage to his head raised the possibility that he suffered brain damage. In addition to the use of brain scans, which of the following professionals is likely to be consulted in order to determine if Steve suffered brain damage?

A) neuropsychologist
B) clinical psychologist
C) forensic psychologist
D) counseling psychologist

Question 19

A positron emission tomography (PT) scan provides information about

A) structural damage to the brain.
B) biochemical changes in the brain.
C) interneuronal electrical activity in the limbic system.
D) extent of neuronal connections across the hemispheres.

Question 20

Which brain imaging technique shows patterns of glucose metabolism in areas of the brain?

A) computer tomography (CT)
B) electroencephalography (EEG)
C) brain electrical activity mapping
D) positron emission tomography (PT)

Question 21

Which brain imaging technique illustrates anatomical structures in only one plane?

A) computer tomography
B) magnetic resonance imaging
C) positron emission tomography
D) brain electrical activity mapping

Question 22

Which brain imaging technique provides a three-dimensional image of the anatomical structures of the brain?

A) computer tomography
B) magnetic resonance imaging
C) positron emission tomography
D) brain electrical activity mapping

Question 23

Computer tomography and magnetic resonance imaging are similar in that they both provide information about

A) electrical activity in the brain.
B) glucose utilization in the brain.
C) infections in cerebrospinal fluid.
D) anatomical structures in the brain.

Question 24

Carl has a high fever and appears disoriented. He has difficulty following his nurse's instructions to sit up and drink some water. He yells things to people who are not there, and he is difficult to understand. When his fever subsides, he no longer exhibits these symptoms. Carl's behavior is consistent with a diagnosis of

A) delirium.
B) Parkinson's disease.
C) Alzheimer's disease.
D) multi-infarct dementia.

Question 25

Which of the following is characteristic of cases involving delirium?

A) disorientation
B) motor disturbances
C) atrophy of brain tissue
D) progressive loss of intellectual ability

Question 26

Denzel is disoriented and confused. He has difficulty focusing and shifting attention. What is Denzel's diagnosis?

A) dementia
B) attention disorder
C) delirium
D) Korsakoff's syndrome

Question 27

Which of the following conditions is not an organic cause of delirium?

A) withdrawal from drugs
B) tumor
C) intoxication
D) confabulation

Question 28

Last year, Bob was admitted and released from the hospital within two days. The diagnosis was a cognitive disorder. Since that time he has held down a job as an engineer. Which of the following disorders is most likely to have caused Bob's hospitalization?

A) delirium
B) dementia
C) Parkinson's disease
D) Huntington's disease

Question 29

Which disorder develops over a short period of time and is marked by relatively global cognitive impairment, disorientation, and confusion?

A) delirium
B) dementia
C) Parkinson's disease
D) Alzheimer's disease

Question 30

Which of these individuals is at greatest risk for experiencing delirium?

A) Steve who drinks lots of water every day
B) Ray who sleeps more than eight hours each night
C) Ted who eats a lot of chocolate on break each day
D) William who is hospitalized after undergoing heart surgery

Question 31

Which of the following is a primary cause of delirium?

A) dopamine deficit
B) brain deterioration
C) lack of oxygen to the brain
D) excess glucose in the brain

Question 32

Which of these people represents the group of individuals with the highest incidence of delirium?

A) Alice who is 5 years old
B) George who is 15 years old
C) Nancy who is 25 years old
D) Margaret who is 65 years old

Question 33

Which of these people is most likely to experience the effects of delirium tremors?

A) Zach who prefers to drink wine
B) Tom who drinks alcoholic beverages very slowly
C) Oz who eats lots of high calorie foods when he drinks
D) Rob who suddenly stopped drinking after drinking heavily for years

Question 34

Frank is rushed to the emergency room where a physician quickly determines he is experiencing delirium tremors. Which of the following class of drugs is likely to be administered?

A) antibiotics
B) tranquilizers
C) antipsychotic
D) antidepressant

Question 35

Which condition is associated with the cessation of heavy drinking?

A) dementia
B) general paresis
C) delirium tremors
D) Parkinson's disease

Question 36

About what percentage of alcoholics experience delirium tremors?

A) 1%
B) 5%
C) 15%
D) 25%

Question 37

What is the effect of delirium tremens on brain wave activity?

A) more rapid firing of neurons
B) slowing of brain wave patterns
C) more erratic brain wave patterns
D) increased risk of epileptic seizure

Question 38

Which acute brain condition is characterized by terrifying visual hallucinations?

A) dementia
B) Pick's disease
C) delirium tremens
D) Parkinson's disease

Question 39

Dementia is primarily characterized by loss of

A) hearing.
B) peripheral vision.
C) fine motor control.
D) intellectual abilities.

Question 40

Over a period of several years, Lena has shown a gradual decline in cognitive abilities, although physically she remains healthy. She may be exhibiting

A) delirium.
B) dementia.
C) delirium tremors.
D) general paresis.

Question 41

Typically, the onset of dementia is

A) sudden.
B) gradual.
C) induced by head injury.
D) associated with infection.

Question 42

All are symptoms of dementia except:

A) confusion
B) loss of self-control
C) difficulty focusing attention
D) language problems

Question 43

Beyonce just celebrated her 68^th birthday. Her daughter describes her as being confused with language difficulties. She has loss of self-control and changes in personality. Her diagnosis is:

A) dementia
B) delirium
C) senile dementia
D) Korsakoff's syndrome

Question 44

Which of the following individuals is most likely to suffer from senile dementia?

A) Sam who is 68 years old
B) Alice who suffered from delirium
C) Alex who is withdrawing from alcohol
D) Steve who is recovering from a head injury

Question 45

What term is used to designate degeneration of brain tissue?

A) infarct
B) plaque
C) atrophy
D) tremens

Question 46

When Mr. Bolden is asked about something he cannot remember, he gives a detailed, but inaccurate, answer. His responses often make it difficult for others to realize he has memory lapses. Mr. Bolden's behavior is called

A) delirium.
B) malingering.
C) confabulation.
D) amnestic disorder.

Question 47

As part of a routine interview of a patient in a psychiatric hospital, a psychologist asked, "What did you have for dinner?" The patient described a dinner of Beef Wellington and all the trimmings. After determining that Beef Wellington had not been served, the psychologist checked the patient's records and found he had been admitted for severe alcohol problems. With that information, the psychologist concluded the answer was most likely an example of

A) repression.
B) confabulation.
C) delusional thinking.
D) dissociative amnesia.

Question 48

The staff of the mental health center is discussing guidelines they can use to distinguish depression from dementia. Which of the following is likely to occur in cases of dementia but not in cases of depression?

A) The patient exaggerates any disability.
B) The patient attempts to hide memory loss.
C) Abuse of alcohol is the actual presenting problem.
D) Symptoms severity is greatest in the morning hours.

Question 49

Which symptom must be present in order to meet the criteria for a diagnosis of dementia?

A) memory impairment
B) vague or empty speech
C) disturbances in planning ability
D) disturbance in the ability to abstract

Question 50

Treatment of dementia focuses on:

A) reducing patient distress
B) improving behavior and cognitive function
C) reducing family distress
D) All of the above.

Question 51

Which of the following questions and responses would provide the most useful information in assessing a patient suspected of suffering Alzheimer's disease?

A) "Can you point to your eye?"
B) "How are you feeling today?"
C) "Spell the word 'chair' backwards."
D) "Walk a straight line from here to the wall."

Question 52

What are the two major types of Alzheimer's disease?

A) sporadic and familial
B) psychotic and neurotic
C) delirious and demented
D) primary and secondary

Question 53

What is the most common form of presenile dementia?

A) delirium
B) Pick's disease
C) Alzheimer's disease
D) multi-infarct dementia

Question 54

An epidemiologist from the U.S. Department of Health and Human Services wrote a report on the current and future prevalence of Alzheimer's disease. Which of the following titles would be most suitable for that report?

A) "Rates to rise"
B) "Predicting the unpredictable"
C) "Genetic breakthroughs have cut the toll"
D) "Surgery will reverse the effects of Alzheimer's disease"

Question 55

What is the average time between the diagnosis of Alzheimer's disease and the person's death?

A) 6 months
B) 3 years
C) 8 years
D) 15 years

Question 56

Which disorder constitutes 50% to 60% of the 1.3 million people in nursing homes?

A) Pick's disease
B) Alzheimer's disease
C) Korsakoff's syndrome
D) Huntington's disease

Question 57

What are plaques?

A) epileptic seizures
B) stroke-causing tumors
C) periods of oxygen deprivation
D) disintegrated nerve cell branches

Question 58

Which of the following is one of the most distinctive characteristics of Alzheimer's disease?

A) tangled clumps of nerve cells in the brain
B) insufficient levels of dopamine in the brain
C) abnormal electrical activity in the cerebellum
D) abnormal glucose metabolism in the limbic system

Question 59

Alzheimer's disease is associated with lowered amounts of what substance in the brain?

A) serotonin
B) thiamine
C) dopamine
D) acetylcholine

Question 60

What is beta amyloid?

A) a protein found in Alzheimer's plaques
B) a vitamin whose deficiency causes pellagra
C) an experimental drug for Parkinson's disease
D) a messenger chemical produced by cholinergic cells

Question 61

Which of the following is being investigated as a risk factor for Alzheimer's disease?

A) history of syphilis
B) thiamine deficiency
C) dopamine deficiency
D) presence of apolipoprotein E

Question 62

Darcia's family has noticed very subtle signs of intellectual decline, most notably in executive functions. Her family is concerned even though this factor has not interfered with daily life. What is her diagnosis?

A) dementia
B) delirium
C) mild cognitive impairment
D) persenile dementia

Question 63

Which of the following is a strategy recommended for the caregivers of Alzheimer's patients?

A) write only in large letters
B) color code rooms in the house
C) speak very slowly and deliberately
D) increase the amount of protein in the diet

Question 64

Research on stress for caregivers of Alzheimer's victims has shown that which of the following is of the greatest importance?

A) Will I inherit this disorder?
B) Is the medication working?
C) Will they get better?
D) What will happen next?

Question 65

Former President Ronald Reagan suffered from

A) Parkinson's disease.
B) Alzheimer's disease.
C) Huntington's disease.
D) Korsakoff's syndrome.

Question 66

What is one way of diagnosing Alzheimer's disease?

A) use chromosomal analysis
B) use brain imaging techniques
C) administer psychological tests
D) There is a characteristic pattern of decrease in metabolic function in certain areas of the brain.

Question 67

What do Alzheimer's disease and Pick's diseases have in common?

A) They are both caused by toxins.
B) They are distinguishable only after an autopsy.
C) They are more common in women than in men.
D) They are examples of the normal consequences of aging.

Question 68

Pick's disease is most likely to develop between the ages of

A) 20 and 30.
B) 40 and 50.
C) 60 and 70.
D) 80 and 90.

Question 69

Which of the following individuals is most likely to develop Pick's disease?

A) Ken who is 65 years old
B) Jane who is 40 years old
C) 40-year-old Vickie who has syphilis
D) 33-year-old Terry who abuses alcohol

Question 70

Jamar has been diagnosed with a less common form of Alzheimer's disease. His diagnosis would be:

A) Huntington's disease
B) Crone's disease
C) Pick's disease
D) Parkinson's disease

Question 71

What is the cause of Huntington's disease?

A) viral infection
B) a dominant gene
C) bacterial infection
D) chromosomal mutation

Question 72

Chorea is a symptom of

A) vascular disease.
B) Alzheimer's disease.
C) Parkinson's disease.
D) Huntington's disease.

Question 73

If one parent is affected with Huntington's disease, what are the odds that a child will inherit the disorder?

A) 0%
B) 50%
C) 75%
D) 100%

Question 74

Newly developed genetic tests make it possible to determine if individuals have the genes for diseases such as Huntington's disease. Because Marsha and Ray know that the disease runs in their families, they had their newborn daughter tested. If the genetic test reveals that the baby has the gene for Huntington's disease, what is the likely outcome?

A) She will inevitably develop the disease.
B) She can be treated with preventive medications.
C) She will be a carrier, but may not develop the disease.
D) She may develop the disease if she experiences stress.

Question 75

Which disorder is an autosomal dominant disorder?

A) Pick's disease
B) Huntington's disease
C) Parkinson's disease
D) Alzheimer's disease

Question 76

Which symptom is found in Huntington's disease?

A) fugue
B) mania
C) cataplexy
D) choreiform movements

Question 77

What are choreiform movements?

A) changes in metabolism
B) spasmodic jerking and twisting
C) tremor and chewing movements
D) wandering associated with dementia

Question 78

A neurologist diagnosed a patient as suffering from Huntington's disease. The patient wants to know what other symptoms he can expect to develop as the disease progresses. Which symptoms will the neurologist list as likely to occur?

A) anorexia, aphasia, and mania
B) apraxia, apathy, and insomnia
C) amnesia, delusions, and double vision
D) dementia, depression, and hallucinations

Question 79

Which psychological symptoms are often associated with Huntington's disease?

A) flat affect, slurred speech, euphoria
B) depression, obsessions, and compulsions
C) restlessness, disorientation, and insomnia
D) drowsiness, lack of attention, and memory loss

Question 80

Huntington's disease is associated with deficiencies in

A) acetylcholine.
B) beta amyloid.
C) apolipoprotein E.
D) gamma-amino-butyric-acid.