Deck 6: Human Movement Applications
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Deck 6: Human Movement Applications
1
The movement of the arms during walking can be described as:
A) Countering the angular momentum of the lower limbs.
B) Generating lift for the centre of mass.
C) Generating propulsion for the centre of mass.
D) A purely pendular action.
E) Increasing the ground reaction force during propulsion.
A) Countering the angular momentum of the lower limbs.
B) Generating lift for the centre of mass.
C) Generating propulsion for the centre of mass.
D) A purely pendular action.
E) Increasing the ground reaction force during propulsion.
A
2
What is the theoretical maximum speed of walking for a person of limb length 0.95m, calculated using the inverted pendulum model ?
A) 4.00 m/s
B) 3.50 m/s
C) 3.05 m/s
D) 2.95 m/s
E) 2.50 m/s
A) 4.00 m/s
B) 3.50 m/s
C) 3.05 m/s
D) 2.95 m/s
E) 2.50 m/s
C
3
The typical ratio of stance and swing time during walking is?
A) 70 Stance, 30 Swing
B) 30 Stance, 70 Swing
C) 50 Stance, 50 Swing
D) 60 Stance, 40 Swing
E) 40 Stance, 60 Swing
A) 70 Stance, 30 Swing
B) 30 Stance, 70 Swing
C) 50 Stance, 50 Swing
D) 60 Stance, 40 Swing
E) 40 Stance, 60 Swing
D
4
Which of the following statements about walking gait are true?
A) Walking is characterised by periods of swing and stance.
B) During walking periods of double leg stance are separated by a flight phase.
C) During double stance weight is transferred from one leg to the other.
D) Single leg stance is when first heel contact occurs.
A) Walking is characterised by periods of swing and stance.
B) During walking periods of double leg stance are separated by a flight phase.
C) During double stance weight is transferred from one leg to the other.
D) Single leg stance is when first heel contact occurs.
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5
Which of the following statements about walking gait are true?
A) During the loading phase of stance the knee flexes by 30 degrees to absorb impact forces.
B) The hip joint moves through approximately 40 degrees during swing.
C) The hip joint continues to extend throughout stance.
D) The ankle reaches maximum dorsi-flexion during mid-stance.
A) During the loading phase of stance the knee flexes by 30 degrees to absorb impact forces.
B) The hip joint moves through approximately 40 degrees during swing.
C) The hip joint continues to extend throughout stance.
D) The ankle reaches maximum dorsi-flexion during mid-stance.
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6
Which of the following statements about walking gait are true?
A) Peak vertical forces occur during double leg stance when the mass centre experiences its greatest vertical acceleration.
B) During constant speed walking the propulsive force is always larger than the braking force.
C) The force loading rate is greater in walking due to the double support phase.
D) The horizontal force acts as a braking force during the first 45-50% of stance.
A) Peak vertical forces occur during double leg stance when the mass centre experiences its greatest vertical acceleration.
B) During constant speed walking the propulsive force is always larger than the braking force.
C) The force loading rate is greater in walking due to the double support phase.
D) The horizontal force acts as a braking force during the first 45-50% of stance.
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7
Which of the following statements about walking gait are true?
A) The hamstring muscles are important for absorbing initial impact force at the knee.
B) Most muscle activity in walking is associated with initiating and ending joint movements.
C) The hamstring muscles are active throughout most of the swing phase.
D) During mid-stance, both hamstring and quadricep muscles are maximally active to support body weight.
A) The hamstring muscles are important for absorbing initial impact force at the knee.
B) Most muscle activity in walking is associated with initiating and ending joint movements.
C) The hamstring muscles are active throughout most of the swing phase.
D) During mid-stance, both hamstring and quadricep muscles are maximally active to support body weight.
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8
The peak force during walking is around 1.5 times body weight
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9
The swinging motion of the arms counteracts the angular momentum of the legs during walking.
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10
There is a single recognisable 'normal' gait pattern from which any deviation represents an abnormal gait.
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11
Describe the role of the upper body during the walking gait cycle.
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12
Explain why, at fast walking speeds, it is inevitable that a flight phase will eventually occur.
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13
At 5 m/s, a runner with a stride frequency of 1.6 Hz will have a step length of?
A) 3.125m
B) 3.4m
C) 1.7m
D) 1.56m
E) 5m
A) 3.125m
B) 3.4m
C) 1.7m
D) 1.56m
E) 5m
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14
The normal range of pronation and supination during running is?
A) 0 degrees supination to 20 degrees pronation
B) 10 degrees supination to 10 degrees pronation
C) 20 degrees supination to 0 degrees pronation
D) 20 degrees supination to 20 degrees pronation
E) 10 degrees supination to 20 degrees pronation
A) 0 degrees supination to 20 degrees pronation
B) 10 degrees supination to 10 degrees pronation
C) 20 degrees supination to 0 degrees pronation
D) 20 degrees supination to 20 degrees pronation
E) 10 degrees supination to 20 degrees pronation
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15
Which of the following statements about running are true?
A) The use of running shoes has no impact on the vertical ground reaction force in running.
B) For a heel-toe runner peak impact force occurs within the first 50-100ms.
C) There is always a greater propulsive impulse than braking impulse during running.
D) Runners who land on the middle or front of their foot do not demonstrate the same pattern of vertical impact force.
A) The use of running shoes has no impact on the vertical ground reaction force in running.
B) For a heel-toe runner peak impact force occurs within the first 50-100ms.
C) There is always a greater propulsive impulse than braking impulse during running.
D) Runners who land on the middle or front of their foot do not demonstrate the same pattern of vertical impact force.
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16
What methods are used to help reduce the energy cost of running?
A) The storage and return of elastic energy in muscles and tendons.
B) The passive transfer of energy between segments.
C) Reducing stride frequency as speed increases.
D) Using a mid-foot striking pattern to reduce impact force.
A) The storage and return of elastic energy in muscles and tendons.
B) The passive transfer of energy between segments.
C) Reducing stride frequency as speed increases.
D) Using a mid-foot striking pattern to reduce impact force.
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17
If three runners experiences the following peak vertical impact forces: Runner A: mass = 60kg, GRF = 1470 / Runner B: mass = 75kg, GRF = 1910N /Runner A: mass = 80kg, GRF = 1880N. Which statements about these runners is true?
A) Runner C experiences a greater impact relative to their Body Weight than Runner B.
B) Runner B experiences the greatest impact force relative to Body Weight.
C) Runner A experiences a greater impact relative to their Body Weight than Runner C.
D) Runner A experiences the lowest impact force relative to Body Weight.
A) Runner C experiences a greater impact relative to their Body Weight than Runner B.
B) Runner B experiences the greatest impact force relative to Body Weight.
C) Runner A experiences a greater impact relative to their Body Weight than Runner C.
D) Runner A experiences the lowest impact force relative to Body Weight.
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18
Running is different to walking because there is an identifiable flight phase.
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19
Pronation during running is always problematic and a cause of injury.
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20
Peak vertical impact forces increase as a function of running speed.
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21
Describe the main kinematic differences between running and walking and explain why the knee flexes more during the swing phase of running
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22
Explain the movements of the subtalar joint during running and how these help reduce the magnitude of the vertical ground reaction force.
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23
The arm swing in vertical jumping is believed to contribute approximately what percentage to the performance?
A) 0-5%
B) 5-10%
C) 10-15%
D) 10-20%
A) 0-5%
B) 5-10%
C) 10-15%
D) 10-20%
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24
The best method for determining jump height is?
A) Use high speed video to measure the movement of the body.
B) Calculate impulse from a force platform.
C) Measure the flight time using a jump mat or force plate.
D) Use a target and ask performers to touch this at their highest point.
A) Use high speed video to measure the movement of the body.
B) Calculate impulse from a force platform.
C) Measure the flight time using a jump mat or force plate.
D) Use a target and ask performers to touch this at their highest point.
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25
An athlete performs a vertical jump on a jump mat and records a flight time of 0.7s. What height did they jump?
A) 0.6m
B) 1.7m
C) 0.3m
D) 1.2m
A) 0.6m
B) 1.7m
C) 0.3m
D) 1.2m
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26
The momentum generated in the 'free-leg' during a horizontal jump can contribute what % to centre of mass velocity?
A) 0-5%
B) 5-10%
C) 10-15%
D) 15-20%
A) 0-5%
B) 5-10%
C) 10-15%
D) 15-20%
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27
During a vertical jump, an athlete of mass 65 kg generates a vertical impulse of 300 Ns. Which of these statements is true?
A) Their take of velocity is 4.6 m/s
B) They jumped 1.08m
C) The peak vertical force was 300N
D) They jumped 0.46m
A) Their take of velocity is 4.6 m/s
B) They jumped 1.08m
C) The peak vertical force was 300N
D) They jumped 0.46m
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28
Which of the following statements are true?
A) Squat jumps are better than counter-movement jumps for generating height.
B) Performing a counter-movement stimulates the stretch-shorten cycle.
C) Having a greater range of movement after a counter-movement allows more time to generate a greater impulse.
D) A counter-movement is best performed slowly to maximise stretch.
A) Squat jumps are better than counter-movement jumps for generating height.
B) Performing a counter-movement stimulates the stretch-shorten cycle.
C) Having a greater range of movement after a counter-movement allows more time to generate a greater impulse.
D) A counter-movement is best performed slowly to maximise stretch.
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29
Which of the following statements are true?
A) A long-jumper can control their forward rotation by either cycling their legs or adopting a long position in the air.
B) The leg cycling motion in a hitch-kick helps the athlete jump further.
C) The angular momentum of a jumper is reduced by using a 'Hang' technique.
D) The 'Hang' technique increases the moment of inertia of the body slowing angular velocity.
A) A long-jumper can control their forward rotation by either cycling their legs or adopting a long position in the air.
B) The leg cycling motion in a hitch-kick helps the athlete jump further.
C) The angular momentum of a jumper is reduced by using a 'Hang' technique.
D) The 'Hang' technique increases the moment of inertia of the body slowing angular velocity.
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30
Vertical jump height is determined by the 'power' of the take-off.
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31
Running faster will always result in a greater jump distance in long-jumping.
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32
The arm and leg movements of a long-jumper help to reduce the amount of forward rotation of the body in flight.
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33
Explain the purpose of the counter-movement phase in vertical jumping.
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34
Describe the ways that arm swing can contribute to jump height.
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35
In what ways can a long jumper control their tendency to rotate forward in order to achieve the optimal landing position?
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36
Throwing is often referred to as what type of movement?
A) Rectilinear
B) Curvilinear
C) Open Chain
D) Closed Chain
A) Rectilinear
B) Curvilinear
C) Open Chain
D) Closed Chain
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37
Which of the following statements about throwing are true.
A) The follow-through predominately involves concentric muscle activity.
B) The preparation phase increases the length of the pulling path allowing a greater impulse to be created.
C) Elbow extension in the late pulling phase depends upon substantial muscular activity.
D) Flexion at the elbow increases the moment of inertia about the shoulder supporting the generation of a greater degree of external rotation.
A) The follow-through predominately involves concentric muscle activity.
B) The preparation phase increases the length of the pulling path allowing a greater impulse to be created.
C) Elbow extension in the late pulling phase depends upon substantial muscular activity.
D) Flexion at the elbow increases the moment of inertia about the shoulder supporting the generation of a greater degree of external rotation.
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38
Which of the following factors is important for a thrower to maximise in order to achieve the greatest range.
A) The release velocity.
B) Take-off angle.
C) Mass of the object.
D) Height of release relative to landing.
A) The release velocity.
B) Take-off angle.
C) Mass of the object.
D) Height of release relative to landing.
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39
Greater linear velocity of the release can be achieved by:
A) Ensuring all joints reach peak velocity at the same time.
B) Reducing the length of the preparation phase.
C) Using a faster run-up.
D) Maintaining a larger radius between each joint and the axis of rotation.
A) Ensuring all joints reach peak velocity at the same time.
B) Reducing the length of the preparation phase.
C) Using a faster run-up.
D) Maintaining a larger radius between each joint and the axis of rotation.
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40
The main differences between overarm and round arm throwing are determined by the orientation of the trunk and degree of abduction of the shoulder.
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41
A shot putter achieves a release velocity of 10m/s for a 4kg shot during a standing throw. If they apply force for 0.2s they must exert an average force of 2000N?
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42
Explain how you can determine the relative contribution of the segments of the upper limb to throwing performance.
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43
Which of the following would not be typical of the driving phase of the right-footed kicking action?
A) Hip Flexion
B) Knee Extension
C) Clockwise pelvic rotation
D) Hip Adduction
A) Hip Flexion
B) Knee Extension
C) Clockwise pelvic rotation
D) Hip Adduction
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44
During a penalty kick, a soccer player manages to accelerate his foot to a peak velocity of 27 m/s, which coincides with the time that his foot strikes the ball. What speed would you estimate the ball to travel (assuming good contact between the foot and the ball)?
A) 35.5 m/s
B) 32.4 m/s
C) 27 m/s
D) 33.8 m/s
A) 35.5 m/s
B) 32.4 m/s
C) 27 m/s
D) 33.8 m/s
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45
Immediately following a kick, the ball is registered as travelling at a velocity of 34 m/s. Assuming good contact between the foot and the ball, what would the foot's velocity have been at the time of contact?
A) 26.5 m/s
B) 27.4 m/s
C) 30.2 m/s
D) 28.3 m/s
A) 26.5 m/s
B) 27.4 m/s
C) 30.2 m/s
D) 28.3 m/s
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46
The preparation phase of a left-footed kick is characterised by
A) Counter-clockwise pelvic rotation
B) Hip adduction
C) Ankle pronation
D) Knee extension
A) Counter-clockwise pelvic rotation
B) Hip adduction
C) Ankle pronation
D) Knee extension
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47
The follow-through phase of a left-footed kick
A) Slows the limb to reduce injury risk
B) Allows last minute fine tuning
C) Involves clockwise pelvic rotation
D) Involves strong concentric contractions
A) Slows the limb to reduce injury risk
B) Allows last minute fine tuning
C) Involves clockwise pelvic rotation
D) Involves strong concentric contractions
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48
During kicking, movements of the upper body
A) Increase the risk of injury
B) Assist with maintaining balance
C) Is not important
D) Contribute to the ball's speed and distance travelled
A) Increase the risk of injury
B) Assist with maintaining balance
C) Is not important
D) Contribute to the ball's speed and distance travelled
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49
The initiation of the driving phase is characterised by rapid and concommitant hip flexion and knee extension
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50
The speed of the ball following contact is directly related to the speed of the foot at the time of contact
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51
Anterior Cruciate Ligament injuries in soccer may occur when the femur internally rotates on an externally rotated tibia
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52
Using your understanding of biomechanical principles, explain why it is likely to be easier to accelerate the hip (thigh) while the knee is in a flexed position.
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53
Describe the ways in which incorporating a run-up into the kicking action can improve the outcome
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54
What are the two main factors that will increase swimming velocity?
A) stroke rate and type of stroke
B) stroke rate and distance achieved per stroke
C) stroke rate and water temperature
D) water temperature and type of stroke
E) water density and stroke type
A) stroke rate and type of stroke
B) stroke rate and distance achieved per stroke
C) stroke rate and water temperature
D) water temperature and type of stroke
E) water density and stroke type
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55
What are the main resistive forces in swimming?
A) water temperature and water density
B) water temperature and swimming speed
C) lift and drag forces
D) air and water resistance
E) Form, wave and surface drag
A) water temperature and water density
B) water temperature and swimming speed
C) lift and drag forces
D) air and water resistance
E) Form, wave and surface drag
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56
What is the Reynolds number?
A) The number that is derived from the product of stroke rate and distance achieved per stroke
B) The number that represents the density of water
C) A dimensionless number that is related to surface or friction drag
D) The number that indicates the 'hull speed' of a swimmer
E) The number that represents the propulsive forces generated while swimming
A) The number that is derived from the product of stroke rate and distance achieved per stroke
B) The number that represents the density of water
C) A dimensionless number that is related to surface or friction drag
D) The number that indicates the 'hull speed' of a swimmer
E) The number that represents the propulsive forces generated while swimming
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57
What is the Froude number?
A) A measure of surface drag
B) A measure of form drag
C) A measure of wave drag
D) A measure of propulsive force
E) A measure of the lift force
A) A measure of surface drag
B) A measure of form drag
C) A measure of wave drag
D) A measure of propulsive force
E) A measure of the lift force
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58
What is the formula to determine wave drag?
A) Fr = V/√gL
B) Fr=SR x DPS
C) Fr=v-u/at
D) Fr=V x gL
E) Fr = ut + 1/2 at2
A) Fr = V/√gL
B) Fr=SR x DPS
C) Fr=v-u/at
D) Fr=V x gL
E) Fr = ut + 1/2 at2
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59
What is a common swimming injury?
A) knee instability
B) hip pain
C) ankle dislocation
D) shoulder pain
E) all of these
A) knee instability
B) hip pain
C) ankle dislocation
D) shoulder pain
E) all of these
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60
Surface drag is a propulsive force in swimming
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61
Form, wave and surface drag are the three main resistive forces in swimming
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62
Swimming velocity can be increased by increasing your stroke rate
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63
Drag propulsion is a method for propelling the swimmer through the water
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64
Swimming velocity can be increased by decreasing the distance you achieve per stroke
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65
The one-piece performance enhancing swimming suits developed by companies like Speedo and Adidas actually slowed the swimmers down
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66
The lift force in swimming lifts the swimmer out of the water
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67
A more streamlined position in the water i.e. lying flat would help reduce the form drag acting on the swimmer
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68
Explain what was the function of the one-piece swimming suit designed by such companies as Speedo and Adidas
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69
Identify what is currently allowed by the international ruling body for swimming (FINA) for both male and female competitive swimmers, with regards to swimming suits
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70
Describe how the drag and lift propulsion methods used in swimming help the swimmer to swim faster
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71
Explain how you would reduce the three forms of resistive forces seen in swimming
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72
Estimates from the early 2000's suggested that golf was regularly enjoyed by how many people Worldwide?
A) About 60 million
B) Fewer than 20 million
C) About 30 million
D) About 80 million
E) Over 100 million
A) About 60 million
B) Fewer than 20 million
C) About 30 million
D) About 80 million
E) Over 100 million
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73
Shoulder injuries account for approximately what percentage of golf-related injuries?
A) 0.117
B) 0.135
C) 0.2
D) 0.05
E) 0.253
A) 0.117
B) 0.135
C) 0.2
D) 0.05
E) 0.253
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74
The tendency for the body to 'unwind' in a sequential order from the more proximal (i.e. pelvis) to more distal (i.e. wrist) segments conforms with:
A) The conservation of angular momentum principle
B) Newton's 3rd Law of angular motion
C) The classic golf swing
D) The summation of speed principle
E) None of these
A) The conservation of angular momentum principle
B) Newton's 3rd Law of angular motion
C) The classic golf swing
D) The summation of speed principle
E) None of these
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75
At which time points during the golf swing are low back injuries most commonly sustained?
A) Late follow-through
B) Impact
C) Top of backswing
D) Start of backswing
E) Early follow-through
A) Late follow-through
B) Impact
C) Top of backswing
D) Start of backswing
E) Early follow-through
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76
All golfers with low back pain will benefit equally from a specific rehabilitation program
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77
Golfers should attempt to delay ulnar deviation during the latter stages of the downswing to maximise the angular velocity of the clubhead
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78
During the golf swing, the backswing phase commences when the shoulders begin to rotate away from the target
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79
Using Fig. F7.1 and Fig F7.2, describe some of the key differences between the classic and modern golf swings and discuss what attributes of the modern swing are most likely to contribute to the higher rate of golf-related injuries associated with this technique.
Fig. F7.1
Fig. F7.2 
Fig. F7.1


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