Deck 8: Nervous System

Question 1

The smooth muscle,cardiac muscle,and glandular epithelial tissue are controlled by the

A) olfactory cranial nerve
B) vagus cranial nerve
C) autonomic nervous system
D) somatic nervous system

Answer 1

autonomic nervous system

Question 2

Which of the following are components of the central nervous system?
(1)Brain.
(2)Spinal cord.
(3)Twelve pairs of cranial nerves.

A) 1 and 2 only
B) 1 and 3 only
C) 2 and 3 only
D) 1, 2, and 3

Answer 2

1 and 2 only

Question 3

The basic unit of the nervous system is the

A) neuron
B) glioma
C) meningi
D) corpus callosum

Answer 3

neuron

Question 4

Which portion of the brain lies between the cerebrum and the midbrain?

A) Brainstem.
B) Diencephalon.
C) Corpus callosum.
D) Choroid plexus.

Question 5

What is the function of the thalamus?

A) A link between mind and body and is the reward center for primary drives.
B) Coordinates skeletal muscles to maintain equilibrium and balance.
C) To control position and automatic movements.
D) A relay station that receives sensory impulses before sending them to the cerebral cortex.

Question 6

What is the function of the tentorium cerebelli?

A) Separate the cerebral hemispheres.
B) Separate the cerebellar hemispheres.
C) Separate the cerebral occipital lobe from the cerebellum.
D) Separate the cerebellum from the temporal lobes of the cerebrum.

Question 7

The midbrain consists of the

A) pons and medulla
B) brain and spinal cord
C) cerebrum and corpus callosum
D) thalamus and hypothalamus

Question 8

The central nervous system is composed of the

A) spinal nerves and ganglia
B) brain and spinal cord
C) brain and cranial nerves
D) spinal cord and spinal nerves

Question 9

What is the function of the cerebellum?

A) To control position and automatic movements.
B) A link between mind and body and is the reward center for primary drives.
C) Coordinates skeletal muscles to maintain equilibrium and balance.
D) Center of control for nonvital functions, such as coughing, sneezing, hiccupping, etc.

Question 10

The ventricles of the brain are filled with

A) air
B) cerebrospinal fluid
C) blood
D) lymph

Question 11

Which of the following is an extension of the dura mater that projects downward into the longitudinal fissure to separate the cerebral hemispheres?

A) Tentorium cerebelli.
B) Tentorium cerebri.
C) Falx cerebelli.
D) Falx cerebri.

Question 12

Which of the following supplies the striated skeletal muscles?

A) Meningeal cranial nerve.
B) Hypoglossal cranial nerve.
C) Autonomic nervous system.
D) Somatic nervous system.

Question 13

What is the myelin sheath?

A) The basic unit of the nervous system.
B) The innermost layer of the protective covering of the CNS.
C) A fatty insulation covering of the axon.
D) A long, threadlike extension of the nerve cell.

Question 14

Which portion of the brain lies between the cerebrum and the spinal cord?

A) Brainstem.
B) Cerebellum.
C) Basal ganglia.
D) Diencephalon.

Question 15

Deterioration of the myelin sheath is a characteristic abnormality of

A) meningitis
B) neoplasm
C) osteomyelitis
D) multiple sclerosis

Question 16

The largest part of the brain is the

A) cerebellum
B) cerebrum
C) medulla
D) pons

Question 17

Which of the following are parts of the basal ganglia?
(1)Globus pallidus.
(2)Caudate nuclei.
(3)Putamen.

A) 1 and 2
B) 1 and 3
C) 2 and 3
D) 1, 2, and 3

Question 18

What are the basal ganglia?

A) The portion of the brain between the cerebrum and the spinal cord.
B) The portion of the brain between the cerebrum and the midbrain.
C) Islands of gray matter deep within the white matter of the cerebrum.
D) Islands of white matter deep within the gray matter of the cerebellum.

Question 19

The inner protective layer of the central nervous system is composed of three layers.The tough,outermost covering is called the

A) dura mater
B) arachnoid membrane
C) pia mater
D) myelin sheath

Question 20

Which of the following are components of the peripheral nervous system?
(1)Spinal cord.
(2)Thirty-one pairs of spinal nerves.
(3)Autonomic nerves.

A) 1 and 2 only
B) 1 and 3 only
C) 2 and 3 only
D) 1, 2, and 3

Question 21

What is the function of the arachnoid villi?

A) Separate the cerebellar hemispheres.
B) Protect the CNS.
C) Absorption of CSF into venous blood.
D) Secrete CSF.

Question 22

What is the most common cause of a subdural empyema?

A) Spread of infection from frontal or ethmoid sinuses.
B) Osteomyelitis.
C) Herpes simplex virus.
D) Scalp infection.

Question 23

Which of the following involves bilateral and horizontal fractures of the maxillae?

A) Stellate fracture.
B) Le Fort fracture.
C) Blow-out fracture.
D) Tripod fracture.

Question 24

A brain abscess is usually the result of a

A) trauma
B) osteomyelitis
C) herpes simplex virus
D) chronic infection of sinuses, middle ear, or mastoids or systemic infection (that is, pneumonia)

Question 25

Which of the following is caused by venous bleeding in the cranium?

A) Intracerebral hematoma.
B) Medullocerebellar hematoma.
C) Subdural hematoma.
D) Epidural hematoma.

Question 26

Which fracture separates the zygoma from the other facial bones?

A) Le Fort.
B) Blow-out.
C) Depressed.
D) Tripod.

Question 27

Where is cerebrospinal fluid (CSF)formed?

A) In the meninges.
B) In the diploë of the skull.
C) In the corpus callosum.
D) In the choroid plexus.

Question 28

Which of the following types of gliomas are slow growing and tend to calcify?

A) Astrocytomas.
B) Glioblastomas.
C) Medulloblastomas.
D) Oligodendrocytomas.

Question 29

Which projection is useful in demonstrating fractures of the zygomatic arches?

A) SMV.
B) Parietoacanthial (Waters').
C) AP.
D) Lateral.

Question 30

Networks of capillaries in the ventricles that form CSF are known as

A) choroid plexuses
B) meninges
C) diploë
D) falx cerebri

Question 31

Which of the following facial fractures is usually caused by a direct blow to the orbit?

A) Stellate fracture.
B) Le Fort fracture.
C) Blow-out fracture.
D) Tripod fracture.

Question 32

An acute inflammation of the pia mater and arachnoid is called

A) encephalitis
B) meningitis
C) subdural empyema
D) supradural empyema

Question 33

What term is used to denote the sudden and dramatic development of a focal neurologic deficit?

A) Stroke.
B) Arteriovenous malformation (AVM).
C) Hematoma.
D) Aneurysm.

Question 34

Which of the following is the primary imaging modality used to examine head injuries (trauma)?

A) Radiography.
B) CT.
C) MRI.
D) Ultrasound.

Question 35

What is the most common primary malignant brain tumor?

A) Dendroma.
B) Glioma.
C) Acoustic neuroma.
D) Meningioma.

Question 36

What are the most common primary malignancies that metastasize to the brain?

A) Liver and lung.
B) Prostate and breast.
C) Pancreas and kidneys.
D) Lung and breast.

Question 37

Which of the following is the most common type of glioma?

A) Oligodendrocytoma.
B) Glioblastoma multiforme.
C) Astrocytoma.
D) Ependymoma.

Question 38

Which of the following is caused by arterial bleeding in the cranium?

A) Epidural hematoma.
B) Subdural hematoma.
C) Intraventricular hemorrhage.
D) Subcerebellar hemorrhage.

Question 39

Which of the following is a slow-growing,benign tumor that occurs on the eighth cranial nerve?

A) Acoustic neuroma.
B) Pineal tumor.
C) Glioblastoma.
D) Oligodendrocytoma.

Question 40

What is the most common facial bone fracture?

A) Maxillae.
B) Nasal bones.
C) Zygoma.
D) Mandible.

Question 41

Encephalitis is most commonly caused by the herpes simplex virus.

Question 42

Viral inflammation of the brain is termed

A) encephalitis
B) meningitis
C) brain abscess
D) subdural empyema

Question 43

The middle meningeal layer is the arachnoid membrane.

Question 44

Which benign CNS tumor arises from arachnoid lining cells and is attached to the dura?

A) Oligodendrocytoma.
B) Meningioma.
C) Ependymoma.
D) Astrocytoma.

Question 45

The cerebellum is the largest portion of the brain.

Question 46

A rupture of a berry aneurysm is a major cause of

A) Huntington's disease
B) Alzheimer's
C) subarachnoid hemorrhage
D) TIA

Question 47

A focal neurologic defect that completely resolves within 24 hours is known as a

A) stroke
B) AVM
C) aneurysm
D) transient ischemic attack (TIA)

Question 48

A condition in which brain impulses are disturbed and that causes symptoms ranging from loss of consciousness to violent seizures is

A) Huntington's disease
B) epilepsy
C) Parkinson's disease
D) multiple sclerosis

Question 49

Which of the following CNS degenerative disorders has the CT pathologic hallmark of atrophy of the caudate nucleus and putamen,causing focal dilatation of the frontal horns?

A) Huntington's disease.
B) Parkinson's disease.
C) Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (Lou Gehrig).
D) Alzheimer's.

Question 50

Sinus infections can spread to the brain and cause an empyema or abscess.

Question 51

Which type of primary brain tumor usually arises in the walls of the fourth ventricle in children and in the lateral ventricles in adults?

A) Glioblastoma.
B) Astrocytoma.
C) Medulloblastoma.
D) Ependymoma.

Question 52

What position is recommended to obtain facial bone radiographic images to evaluate facial trauma?

A) Supine.
B) Upright.
C) Prone.
D) Recumbent lateral.

Question 53

Which of the following is used to initially screen patients suspected of a transient ischemic attack?

A) CT.
B) Computed tomography angiography (CTA).
C) Magnetic resonance angiography (MRA).
D) Color-flow Doppler ultrasound.

Question 54

Which of the following degenerative neurologic diseases causes widespread selective atrophy and loss of motor nerves that eventually leads to paralysis and death?

A) Parkinson's disease.
B) Normal aging.
C) Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (Lou Gehrig).
D) Alzheimer's.

Question 55

What position is recommended to obtain trauma images of the facial bones when the patient cannot be positioned upright?

A) Dorsal decubitus.
B) Recumbent lateral.
C) Supine.
D) Prone.

Question 56

What is the most common cause of nontraumatic intraparenchymal hemorrhage in persons under age 20?

A) AVM.
B) TIA.
C) Stroke.
D) Aneurysm rupture.

Question 57

Paralysis on one side of the body is termed

A) paraplegia
B) quadriplegia
C) hemiplegia
D) dysplegia

Question 58

Where is the most common site for traumatic arteriovenous fistulas to arise in the CNS?

A) The superior ophthalmic artery and cavernous sinus.
B) The superior ophthalmic artery and internal carotid artery.
C) The internal and external carotid arteries.
D) The internal carotid artery and cavernous sinus.

Question 59

Which type of skull fracture can cause separation of the suture?

A) Diastatic.
B) Le Fort.
C) Stellate.
D) Depressed.

Question 60

Cerebrospinal fluid is formed in the arachnoid villi.

Question 61

MRI is considered the best imaging modality for suspected brain tumors.

Question 62

Match the disease to its definition.
Tripod fracture

A)Results from direct blow to orbit
B)Bilateral horizontal fractures of maxillae
C)Fracture that separates zygoma from other facial bones
D)Star-shaped fracture with multiple fracture lines radiating from a central point

Question 63

Radiography of the skull for fractures is essential to the diagnosis of associated brain injury.

Question 64

The nasal bones are the most commonly fractured facial bones.

Question 65

Match the disease to its definition.
Astrocytoma

A)Arises from the embryonic neural tube
B)Benign tumor arising from arachnoid membrane
C)Slow-growing,benign tumor of eighth cranial nerve
D)Slow-growing and most common form of glioma

Question 66

Match the disease to its definition.
Acoustic neuroma

A)Arises from the embryonic neural tube
B)Benign tumor arising from arachnoid membrane
C)Slow-growing,benign tumor of eighth cranial nerve
D)Slow-growing and most common form of glioma

Question 67

Match the disease to its definition.
Chordoma

A)Arises from the embryonic neural tube
B)Benign tumor arising from arachnoid membrane
C)Slow-growing,benign tumor of eighth cranial nerve
D)Slow-growing and most common form of glioma

Question 68

Match the disease to its definition.
Blow-out fracture

A)Results from direct blow to orbit
B)Bilateral horizontal fractures of maxillae
C)Fracture that separates zygoma from other facial bones
D)Star-shaped fracture with multiple fracture lines radiating from a central point

Question 69

The most common type of primary brain tumor is a glioma.

Question 70

Match the disease to its definition.
Meningioma

A)Arises from the embryonic neural tube
B)Benign tumor arising from arachnoid membrane
C)Slow-growing,benign tumor of eighth cranial nerve
D)Slow-growing and most common form of glioma

Question 71

Match the disease to its definition.
Stellate fracture

A)Results from direct blow to orbit
B)Bilateral horizontal fractures of maxillae
C)Fracture that separates zygoma from other facial bones
D)Star-shaped fracture with multiple fracture lines radiating from a central point

Question 72

Bilateral fractures are common in the mandible.

Question 73

Match the disease to its definition.
Le Fort fracture

A)Results from direct blow to orbit
B)Bilateral horizontal fractures of maxillae
C)Fracture that separates zygoma from other facial bones
D)Star-shaped fracture with multiple fracture lines radiating from a central point