Deck 2: Diseases and Conditions

Question 1

What could be the diagnosis if the electrocardiogram shows no sinus origin rhythm associated with 'P' waves presenting as F waves with a characteristic saw-tooth pattern, and a T wave dominated by an atrial wave?

A)Atrial fibrillation
B)Atrial flutter
C)Sinu atrial exit block
D)Sinus arrest

Answer 1

Atrial flutter

Question 2

Based on the blood gas analysis, which group of values in the choices below may indicate that the patient has a chronic carbon dioxide retention?

A)Pco2 55 mmHg , pH 7.25
B)Pco2 55 mmHg , pH 7.32, Base excess +3
C)Pco2 55 mmHg , pH 7.35
D)None of the above

Answer 2

Pco2 55 mmHg , pH 7.35

Question 3

Which is the most definitive test used to detect pulmonary embolism?

A)Ultrasound
B)Pulmonary angiogram
C)Ventilation perfusion scan
D)Positive emission tomography

Answer 3

Pulmonary angiogram

Question 4

Which cardiac injury enzyme is a more sensitive indicator of myocardial infarction?

A)Creatine kinase
B)Aspertate aminotransferase
C)LDH1
D)Total LDH

Question 5

In an acute asthmatic attack, which one of the following results is NOT expected in the lung function test?

A)Increased total lung capacity
B)Increased peak expiratory flow rate
C)Reduced vital capacity
D)Reduced FEV1/VC

Question 6

Of the following, what is the common cause of primary lymphedema?

A)Infection
B)Inflammation
C)Trauma
D)None of the above

Question 7

In aortic regurgitation, what does the Hill's sign refer to?

A)Prominent carotid pulsation in neck
B)Popliteal cuff systolic pressure exceeding the brachial cuff systolic pressure
C)To and from movement of head synchronized with cardiac cycle
D)Booming systolic and diastolic sounds heard over the femoral artery

Question 8

A 35-year-old male presents with fever, and cough which is chronic and worse in the mornings. He expectorates copious, purulent, foul- smelling sputum which is three layered. The chest X-ray shows a honey-comb appearance. What can be the diagnosis?

A)Asthma
B)Chronic bronchitis
C)Tuberculosis
D)Bronchiectasis

Question 9

Which is a differentiating feature between pleural effusion and hydropneumothorax?

A)Pain
B)Dyspnea
C)Percussion note
D)Chest expansion reduction

Question 10

A 30-year-old female has a history of repeated attacks of spontaneous pneumothorax on the right side. It occurs 48-hours after the onset of menstruation. What can be the diagnosis?

A)Recurrent spontaneous pneumothorax
B)Catamenial pneumothorax
C)Valvular pneumothorax
D)Clicking pneumothorax

Question 11

Which of the following is NOT the usual side effect of salbutamol?

A)Anxiety
B)Nervousness
C)Insomnia
D)Dysrhythmias

Question 12

Which is the drug of choice for acute asthma?

A)Fluticasone
B)Salmeterol
C)Albuterol
D)Omeprazole

Question 13

Which one of the following oxygen delivery systems is a high-flow system?

A)Nasal prongs
B)Transtracheal oxygen catheter
C)Venturi mask
D)Partial rebreathing mask

Question 14

Which muscle is affected in the vertical approach of median sternotomy?

A)External intercostals
B)Internal intercostals
C)Pectoralis major
D)Trapezius

Question 15

In which congenital condition does the scapula fail to descend from its embryological position in the neck?

A)Sprengel's shoulder
B)Madelung's deformity
C)Syndactilism
D)Polydactylism

Question 16

What is the infection at the hip joint that is spread by a septic umbilicus called?

A)Tom Smith's arthritis
B)Osteomyelitis
C)Small pox arthritis
D)Cultton's joint

Question 17

What is the cause of primary osteoporosis?

A)Prolonged use of corticosteroids
B)Hypercorticism
C)Aging
D)Malignancy

Question 18

What is rickety rosary?

A)Persistent fontenellae, even after 2 years of age
B)Beading at the costochondral junction
C)Groove-like deformity in the lower chest
D)Protuberant abdomen

Question 19

According to the American Rheumatism Association, which of the following is NOT the essential criteria in the diagnosis of rheumatoid arthritis>

A)Morning stiffness
B)Pain in one joint
C)Swelling in one joint for 6 weeks
D)Asymmetrical joint involvement

Question 20

Which factor is responsible for ankylosing spondylitis?

A)IgM
B)HLA- B27
C)Both A. and B.

Question 21

In an anteroposterior X-ray, which of the following shows a characteristic "bamboo spine "?

A)Ankylosing spondylitis
B)Rheumatoid arthritis
C)Osteoarthritis
D)Chorcot's joints

Question 22

What is a muscle strain?

A)Complete rupture occurring through the tendon
B)Tearing of some muscle fibers
C)Superficial injury

Question 23

What is Chauffeur's fracture?

A)Fracture of distal end of the radius
B)Fracture of distal end of radius with palmar displacement
C)Fracture of radial styloid process
D)Intra articular fracture of base of the first metacarpal bone

Question 24

What is the name of the fracture that occurs as a transverse fracture of the cortex which extends into the mid portion of the bone and runs along the long axis of the bone in children?

A)Buckle fracture
B)Epiphyseal fracture
C)Greenstick fracture
D)Displaced fracture

Question 25

What is the term for the complete removal of the lamina?

A)Laminotomy
B)Hemilaminectomy
C)Laminectomy
D)Fenestration

Question 26

Of the following, which one is NOT a skin traction?

A)K - wire
B)Dunlop's
C)Gallow's
D)Buck's extension

Question 27

Which one of the following is a bone cement?

A)Polyethylene
B)Polymethylmethacrylate (PMMA)
C)Silicone
D)Titanium

Question 28

Which surgical procedure is performed to tighten the subscapularis tendon and shoulder capsule in a dislocated shoulder?

A)Bankart's operation
B)Putti-Platt's operation
C)Bristow's operation

Question 29

A 40-year-old male met with a road traffic accident. He was in the driver's seat when the accident occurred. While he was brought to the hospital, there was limb shortening along with hip flexion, adduction and internal rotation deformity. What is the type of dislocation expected in this patient?

A)Posterior dislocation of hip
B)Posterior fracture dislocation of hip
C)Anterior dislocation of hip
D)Central dislocation of hip

Question 30

Which of the following statements is NOT true about medial meniscus?

A)Semicircular in shape
B)More mobile
C)More commonly injured than lateral meniscus
D)Injury of medial meniscus is commonly among young athletes

Question 31

Hitch-hiker's sign is seen in what injury?

A)Ulnar nerve injury
B)Median nerve injury
C)Radial nerve injury
D)Brachial plexus injury

Question 32

If the radial nerve is injured between the spiral groove and lateral epicondyle, what muscle group will NOT be affected?

A)Wrist extensors
B)Thumb extensors
C)Elbow extensors
D)Finger extension

Question 33

What could be the posture adapted by the patient when there is disc herniation lateral to the nerve root?

A)Incline to the same side of compression
B)Incline to the opposite side of compression
C)No inclination

Question 34

What is a chorea?

A)Irregular, repetitive, writhing movements
B)Slow, sustained, abnormal movements
C)Irregular, repetitive, jerky movements
D)Explosive violent movements

Question 35

What is the clinical use of positron emission tomography?

A)Examines the spontaneous electrical activity of the brain
B)Detects the relationship between cerebral blood flow, oxygen utilization and extraction in focal areas of ischemia
C)Detection of early ischemia in occlusive and hemorrhagic CVA
D)Embolization

Question 36

Which type of electrode is commonly used in nerve conduction studies?

A)Disc
B)Cup
C)Ring
D)B and C
E)All of the above

Question 37

In a median somatosensory evoked potential, what generates an N9 wave form?

A)Brachial plexus
B)Dorsal cervical roots
C)Rostral cervical cord
D)Primary sensory cortex

Question 38

Which disc space is contraindicated for lumbar puncture?

A)T12 - L1
B)L2 - L3
C)L3 - L4
D)L5 - S1

Question 39

In which condition is a "festinating" gait present?

A)Cerebellar ataxia
B)Hemiplegia
C)Parkinson's disease
D)Lower motor neuron weakness

Question 40

Which is the most common primary brain tumor?

A)Astrocytoma
B)Oligodendroglioma
C)Meningioma
D)Ependymoma

Question 41

Where is the common source of microorganism that causes a cerebral abscess?

A)Middle ear
B)Sinus
C)Blood
D)All of the above

Question 42

In which condition is the "Kernig's sign" usually positive?

A)Subarachnoid hemorrhage
B)Meningitis
C)Intracranial hemorrhage
D)Both A and B
E)Both B and C

Question 43

Which is NOT a clinical feature of Brown-Sequard syndrome?

A)Ipsilateral pyramidal weakness
B)Contralateral pain and temperature sensation impairment
C)Contralateral impaired joint position sense
D)Ipsilateral impaired touch localization

Question 44

In which of the following conditions is "Gower's sign" usually present?

A)Duchenne dystrophy
B)Polymyositis
C)Myasthenia gravis

Question 45

Which of the following is NOT a feature of cholinergic crisis?

A)Worsening of weakness
B)Increased sweating
C)Large pupils
D)Respiratory failure

Question 46

What is Uhthoff's phenomenon?

A)Return of the multiple sclerosis symptoms following a hot bath
B)Sudden neck flexion will evoke a shock like sensation in the limbs
C)Prolonged latency in visual evoked potential
D)Presence of discrete bands in CSF electrophoresis

Question 47

In which condition does jaw claudication occur?

A)Giant cell arteritis
B)Peripheral vascular disease
C)Migraine
D)Cluster headache

Question 48

What is the amount of cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) secreted in a day?

A)100 ml
B)200 ml
C)500 ml
D)1000 ml

Question 49

When there is presence of subtentorial mass, what is the complication following a misguided lumbar puncture?

A)Lateral tentorial herniation
B)Tonsillar herniation
C)Midline shift
D)Central tentorial herniation

Question 50

What is a prodrome?

A)Symptoms that occur before a seizure attack
B)Attack of seizure
C)Mood changes before the seizure attack
D)The time period immediately after the seizure attack

Question 51

Which drug is used to treat the raised intracranial pressure?

A)Levadopa
B)Mannitol
C)Calcium channel blockers
D)Phenytoin

Question 52

What is status epilepticus?

A)Repeated tonic/clonic convulsions with a gap between them
B)Does not regain consciousness between the seizure attacks
C)The weakness for a few hours of the affected limb after a motor seizure
D)Feeling of unfamiliarity

Question 53

Which condition is contraindicated for surgical treatment of epilepsy?

A)Tumor
B)Hemartoma
C)Severe mental retardation
D)Ateriovenous malformation

Question 54

Which of the following statements is NOT true about the closed technique of wound care?

A)Holds the topical antimicrobial agent
B)Reduces fluid loss
C)Allows ongoing inspection of wound and healing process
D)Protects the wound

Question 55

Which antibiotic is used against gram negative organisms in the treatment of burns?

A)Gentamycin
B)Collagenase
C)Bacitracin
D)Silver nitrate

Question 56

What is a sheet graft?

A)Cultured autologous skin
B)Skin taken from cadaver
C)Skin taken from different species
D)Skin is applied without any alteration after harvesting

Question 57

What is NOT a criterion for admission to a designated burn center according to The American Burn Association?

A)Chemical burns
B)Inhalation injury
C)Partial thickness burn less than 10% of total body surface in under 10 years of age
D)Full thickness burn >5% of total body surface in any age

Question 58

What is the action of beta blockers?

A)Help your body eliminate sodium and water, reducing blood volume.
B)Keep calcium from the muscle cells and constricting blood vessels
C)Decrease nerve impulses to the heart and blood vessels.
D)Keep the hormone from interacting with blood vessels.

Question 59

Which medication keeps hormones from interacting with blood vessels, dilates vessels and hence reduces the blood pressure?

A)Angiotensin II receptor blockers (ARBS)
B)Calcium channel blockers
C)Beta blockers
D)Angiotensin converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors

Question 60

Which of the following is NOT a calcium channel blockers?

A)Nifedipine
B)Verapramil
C)Diltiazem
D)Analapril

Question 61

If the congestive cardiac failure patient presents with breathing difficulty, which is the preferred position to aid in better breathing?

A)Seat patient upright at 45 degree angle
B)Put the patient in a supine position
C)Move the patient to a wheelchair
D)Lying prone

Question 62

Which progressive disease destroys memory and other important mental functions?

A)Alzheimer's disease
B)ADHD
C)Parkinson's disease
D)Stroke

Question 63

In which disorder does a patient get unreasonable thoughts and obsessions that lead to do repetitive behaviors?

A)Depression
B)Epilepsy
C)Schizophrenia
D)Obsessive compulsive disorder

Question 64

Which one of the following options is associated with type II diabetes?

A)Fast healing process
B)Ketoacidosis
C)Obesity
D)Peaks at age 20

Question 65

In which condition does diabetic coma occur?

A)Hyperglycemia
B)Hypoglycemia
C)Adrenal crisis
D)Both A and B

Question 66

You are treating a patient with knee pain. The patient also has diabetes. If the patient presents with signs of hypoglycemia, what is the first step of care to be given?

A)Provide sugar juice
B)Provide fiber food
C)Provide starch
D)None of the above

Question 67

When a patient is under a seizure attack, which of the following precautions is NOT to be followed?

A)Leave in supine
B)Clear dangerous objects from reach
C)Attempt to restrain
D)Protect patient's head

Question 68

What is the normal range of body temperature for an adult?

A)90 - 91.5 degrees F
B)35.5 - 37.5 degrees F
C)96 - 99.5 degrees C
D)35.5 - 37.5 degrees C

Question 69

What is colostomy?

A)Surgical removal of colon
B)Surgical removal of gall bladder
C)Surgical removal of stomach
D)Surgical artificial opening in the large bowel

Question 70

Which is true about gastric ulcer?

A)Short duration of pain episodes
B)Heart burn is common
C)Ingestion of food causes the pain
D)Night pain is more common

Question 71

In hepatitis, which organ becomes inflamed?

A)Kidney
B)Lung
C)Liver
D)Pancreas

Question 72

Which hormone is secreted by the posterior pituitary gland?

A)Growth hormone
B)Oxytocin
C)Thyroid - stimulating hormone
D)Prolactin

Question 73

What is the medical complication of diabetes?

A)Retinopathy
B)Neuropathy
C)Slow healing
D)All of the above

Question 74

What is polydipsia?

A)Excessive urination
B)Excessive thirst
C)Excessive appetite
D)Difficulty in swallowing

Question 75

Which hormone is responsible for causing goiter?

A)Thyroxine
B)Triiodothyronine
C)Thyroid stimulating hormone
D)Iodine

Question 76

What is myxedema?

A)Hypothyroidism in children
B)Hypothyroidism in adults
C)Hyperthyroidism
D)Hypercortisolism

Question 77

In which autoimmune disease do the antibodies attach to specific sites of the thyroid gland leading to excess thyroid hormone production?

A)Thyrotoxic crisis
B)Grave's disease
C)Gigantism
D)Cretinism

Question 78

Which endocrine disorder may cause "Moon face" and "buffalo hump on the back"?

A)Addison's disease
B)Acromegaly
C)Cushing's syndrome
D)Hyperthyroidism

Question 79

What is the normal fasting blood glucose level?

A)80 - 90 mg/dl
B)120 - 140 mg/dl
C)20 - 70 mg/dl
D)150 - 200 mg/dl

Question 80

Which organ functions as a buffer system for the blood glucose?

A)Kidneys
B)Pancreas
C)Liver
D)Stomach