Deck 1: Physician Assistant

Question 1

Which of the following cardiovascular disorders is most likely associated with abnormal pupillary responses (Argyll Robertson pupil)?

A)Aortic regurgitation
B)Coarctation of the aorta
C)Thoracic aortic aneurysm
D)Myocarditis

Answer 1

Thoracic aortic aneurysm

Question 2

Which of the following cardiovascular disorders is most likely associated with jugular venous distension and exophthalmoses?

A)Massive tricuspid regurgitation
B)Coarctation of the aorta
C)Thoracic aortic aneurysm
D)Myocarditis

Answer 2

Massive tricuspid regurgitation

Question 3

Flushing and paling of the nail beds (Quincke pulse) and a bounding radial pulse are typical physical findings found in which of the following cardiovascular disorders?

A)Tricuspid regurgitation
B)Coarctation of the aorta
C)Thoracic aortic aneurysm
D)Aortic regurgitation

Answer 3

Aortic regurgitation

Question 4

Conjunctivitis, urethral discharge, and arthralgia are common symptoms present in which of the following cardiovascular disease?

A)Tricuspid regurgitation
B)Coarctation of the aorta
C)Myocarditis
D)Aortic regurgitation

Question 5

IA patient arrives with short stature, webbed neck, low-set ears, and epicanthal fold. Which of the following cardiovascular disorders he is most likely suffering from?

A)Tricuspid regurgitation
B)Coarctation of the aorta
C)Myocarditis
D)Aortic regurgitation

Question 6

Which of the following disorders are usually characterized by weight loss, depressed mood, feeling of tired, fatigue and frequent, nonspecific abdominal pain?

A)Pheochromocytoma
B)Pancreatic carcinoma
C)Adrenocortical insufficiency
D)Cushing syndrome

Question 7

Release of which of the following hormones is inhibited by insulin?

A)Glucagon
B)ADH
C)Beta cells
D)Somatostatin

Question 8

Which of the following metabolic effects is caused by insulin release?

A)Increased breakdown of fats
B)Increased breakdown of proteins
C)Decreased blood sugar
D)Causes glucose to be phosphorylated in kidney

Question 9

All of the following statements are true about Type I diabetes mellitus EXCEPT:

A)It may be linked to autoimmune issues
B)Onset is usually prior to age 20
C)Beta islet cells are destroyed
D)Insulin injections are unnecessary

Question 10

Which of the following is NOT a complication of chronic diabetes mellitus?

A)Atherosclerosis
B)Neuropathy
C)Glaucoma
D)Hypotension

Question 11

A typical duodenal ulcer is characterized by all of the following EXCEPT

A)Primarily affects males
B)Occasional malignancy
C)Can lead to weight gain
D)Affects people over 65

Question 12

Regarding the EKG findings of premature atrial contractions, all of the following are present EXCEPT:

A)P waves may be present
B)The QRS is usually narrow
C)Extra P waves may be hidden within the QRS complex or T waves
D)P waves are invariably absent

Question 13

Which of the following clinical symptoms are NOT usually present in dilated cardiomyopathy?

A)Paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea
B)Fatigue and feeling tired
C)Increased Jugular venous distension
D)Increased ejection fraction

Question 14

In Parkinson's disease, which neurotransmitter deficiency primarily is responsible for the symptoms?

A)Acetylcholine
B)Epinephrine
C)Norepinephrine
D)Dopamine

Question 15

Which of the following statements about Hashimoto's thyroiditis is true?

A)The condition is associated with prior radioactive exposure.
B)Patients diagnosed with this disorder have an increased incidence of thyroid cancer
C)Antinuclear antibodies are pathognomonic for this disease
D)Hashimoto's thyroiditis is an autoimmune disease

Question 16

In which of the following cardiomyopathies is the murmur heard typically decreased when the patients are standing or while performing Valsalva maneuvers?

A)Restrictive cardiomyopathy
B)Dilated cardiomyopathy
C)Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy
D)Ischemic cardiomyopathy

Question 17

Which of the following types of cardiaomyopathy is commonly found in hypertensive patients and athletes?

A)Restrictive cardiomyopathy
B)Dilated cardiomyopathy
C)Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy
D)None of the above

Question 18

While evaluating the diagnosis of atrial fibrillation, all of the following EKG findings are typically present EXCEPT:

A)Irregular rhythm
B)QRX complex of ? 0.12 seconds
C)No visible P waves
D)Abnormal P waves

Question 19

Which of the following statements is NOT true about different types of sleep apnea?

A)Obstructive apnea: Restricts inspiratory airflow
B)Central apnea: There is a lack of signal from respiratory center, no drive to breathe
C)Mixed apnea: It is a combination of the above factors
D)Central apnea is the most common type of sleep apnea

Question 20

Which of the following types of pleural effusion results from CHF, cirrhosis, or nephrotic syndrome?

A)Transudative
B)Exudative
C)Mixed
D)Combined

Question 21

Which of the following types of tumors is the most common tumor originating in the mediastinum?

A)Fibroadenoma
B)Squamous cell carcinoma
C)Thymoma
D)Adenoma

Question 22

Which of the following is the most common type of cyanotic congenital heart disease?

A)Tricuspid atresia
B)Tetrology of Fallot
C)Truncus Arteriosus
D)Transposition of the Great Vessels

Question 23

Anterior mediastinal tumours include all of the following EXCEPT:

A)Thymoma
B)Teratoma
C)Adenoma
D)Lymphoma

Question 24

Which of the following statements best defines forced vital capacity?

A)It is a measurement of the volume of airflow expired with the patient blowing as hard and fast as possible.
B)It is a measurement of the volume of airflow inspired with the patient blowing as hard and fast as possible.
C)It is a measurement of the volume of airflow expired and inspired with the patient blowing as hard and fast as possible.
D)It is a measurement of the volume of airflow expired and inspired with the patient sitting at rest.

Question 25

Which of the following cardiomyopathies shows enlarged balloon like heart and pulmonary congestion on a chest radiograph?

A)Restrictive cardiomyopathy
B)Dilated cardiomyopathy
C)Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy
D)Both restrictive and hypertrophic cardiomyopathies

Question 26

Which of the following DOES NOT contribute to the etiology of atrial fibrillation?

A)Pulmonary disease
B)Ischemia
C)Rheumatic heart disease
D)Hypothyroidism

Question 27

Irregularly irregular pulse is a typical clinical sign found commonly in which of the following cardiovascular conditions?

A)Atrial fibrillation
B)Ventricular fibrillation
C)Cardiomegaly
D)CHF

Question 28

Which of the following is NOT a side effect of beta channel blockers?

A)Impotence
B)Bradycardia
C)Hypertension
D)Hypotension

Question 29

Which of the following cells differentiates into osteoblasts that form bone for remodeling and repair?

A)Osteoclasts
B)Osteogenic cells
C)Osteons
D)Osteocytes

Question 30

The closing of which valves is responsible for producing the first heart sound?

A)Mitral and tricuspid valves
B)Aortic and tricuspid valves
C)Aortic and pulmonic valves
D)Aortic and mitral valves

Question 31

Which of the following is the most sensitive test for the diagnosis of primary hypothyroidism?

A)Determining thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH) levels
B)Determining thyroxine levels
C)Determining triiodothyronine levels
D)Determining T4 levels

Question 32

Which of the following conditions describes periods of deep breathing alternating with periods of no breathing and can be caused by heart failure?

A)Ataxic breathing
B)Obstructive breathing
C)Kussmaul breathing
D)Tachypnea

Question 33

Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of tetralogy of fallot?

A)Large ventricular septal defect
B)Right ventricular outflow obstruction
C)Right ventricular hypertrophy
D)A left to right cardiac shunt

Question 34

What are the clinical features of esophageal achalasia?

A)Fever
B)Dysphagia to both liquid and solid foods
C)Food regurgitation
D)Epigastric pain

Question 35

Which of the following is the causative organism for Rocky Mountain spotted fever?

A)Bordetella pertussis
B)Rickettsia rickettsii
C)Rickettsia siberica
D)Corynebacterium

Question 36

Which of the following statements is NOT true regarding Prinzmetal angina?

A)It occurs during strenuous physical activity
B)There is an ST segment elevation
C)It is also known as variant angina
D)It is caused by vasospasm (narrowing) of coronary arteries

Question 37

Each of the following are signs/symptoms one would find in a patient with non-Hodgkin lymphoma EXCEPT:

A)night sweats
B)malaise
C)fatigue
D)weight gain

Question 38

Each of the following, with regard to von Willebrand disease, is correct EXCEPT:

A)It is a qualitative platelet defect
B)vWF allows adhesion of platelets to collagen
C)it affects both the platelet plug and coagulation cascade
D)vWF functions independent of factor VIII

Question 39

Which of the following is TRUE regarding vitamin K deficiency?

A)Increased activity of clotting factors II, VII, IX, X
B)Decreased PT
C)No change in PTT
D)It is caused by fat malabsorption

Question 40

Which of the following bacteria is a grampositive cocci which commonly causes skin infection and abscess formation?

A)Staphylococcus aureus
B)Streptococcus bovis
C)Streptococcus viridans
D)Staphylococcus saprophyticus

Question 41

What does the ACTH stimulation test accomplish?

A) Differentiates between primary and secondary hyperparathyroidism
B) Differentiates between hyper- and hypothyroidism
C) Differentiates between Cushing disease and syndrome
D) Differentiates between primary and secondary Addison disease

Question 42

Which of the following would be an adequate treatment for Addison's disease?

A)Administer cortisol
B)Administer aldosterone
C)Administer androgens
D)Administer growth hormone

Question 43

Which of the following endogenous pigments is formed via auto-oxidation, accumulates in Kupffer cells, and is indicative of hepatocellular injury?

A)Ceroid
B)Lipofuscin
C)Hemosiderin
D)Melanin

Question 44

Which of the following conditions is caused by backflux of acid and a weak lower esophageal sphincter?

A)Achalasia
B)Mallory-Weiss syndrome
C)Hiatal hernia
D)Gastroesophageal reflux disease

Question 45

Each of the following is characteristic of basal cell carcinoma EXCEPT:

A)it is locally aggressive
B)it is malignant
C)it is the most common skin cancer
D)it appears as a pearly papule

Question 46

Each of the following is true regarding chronic bronchitis EXCEPT:

A)it is caused by mucous hypersecretion in the bronchi and smaller airways
B)symptoms include a productive cough and wheezing
C)there is a decreased Reid index
D)you would expect to find an increased POB-

Question 47

Aortic dissection is characterized by all of the following EXCEPT:

A)rupture can cause pericardial tamponade
B)the carotid artery may become occluded, leading to stroke
C)it can be life threatening
D)the mitral valve often becomes damaged

Question 48

The specific accumulation of serious fluid in the pericardial space is referred to as:

A)hemopericardium
B)acute pericarditis
C)constrictive pericarditis
D)hydropericardium

Question 49

Consider a patient who is unaware of the cardiac condition he is suffering from. You note splinter hemorrhages under his finger nails. What is this clinical sign indicative of?

A)Cardiac tamponade
B)Endocarditis
C)Primary hypertension
D)Coronary artery disease

Question 50

Each of the following is commonly found in patients afflicted with cystic fibrosis EXCEPT:

A)malfunction of the Cl? transporter
B)meconium ileus
C)pathology of chromosome 9
D)pancreatic exocrine insufficiency

Question 51

Each of the following is a characteristic of the non-progressive/early stage of shock EXCEPT:

A)it is considered compensated
B)the body is maintaining perfusion to vital organs
C)increased total peripheral resistance
D)metabolic acidosis

Question 52

If a patient is stricken with Caisson disease, one would expect to find:

A)solid mass occluding a vessel
B)fatty emboli from a broken bone
C)air embolizing within the circulation
D)a blood clot

Question 53

A dietary deficiency of vitamin B12 causes which of the following?

A)Aplastic anemia
B)Sickle cell anemia
C)Pernicious anemia
D)Plummer-Vinson syndrome

Question 54

Each of the following have different values in type I diabetes mellitus and type II diabetes mellitus EXCEPT:

A)symptoms
B)cause
C)genetic predisposition
D)treatment

Question 55

Hyperglycemia is characterized by blood glucose levels greater than:

A)100 mg/dL
B)90 mg/dL
C)125 mg/dL
D)75 mg/dL

Question 56

Each of the following is true of ketoacidosis EXCEPT:

A)it is caused by starvation or severe insulin deficiency
B)it is most common in type II diabetes
C)it is caused by an accumulation of ketone bodies
D)it is acetoacetic acid and betahydroxybutyric acid are synthesized from free fatty acids

Question 57

Each of the following is a risk factor for atherosclerosis EXCEPT:

A)smoking
B)hypertension
C)premenopause
D)nephrosclerosis

Question 58

Which of the following is TRUE of right sided heart failure?

A)Isolated right heart failure is common
B)Typically occurs independent of left heart failure
C)Can be a sequelae of cor pulmonale
D)Typical symptoms include rales and cardiac enlargement

Question 59

Each of the following can be caused by Neisseria infection EXCEPT:

A)septic arthritis
B)Waterhouse-Friderichsen syndrome
C)meningitis
D)pseudomembranous colitis

Question 60

Which of the following is TRUE of syphilis infection?

A)The secondary form is characterized by gumma formation
B)It is treated with penicillin
C)It is caused by Mycobacterium infection
D)The primary form includes a highly infectious maculopapular rash

Question 61

Which of the following is TRUE of coronary artery disease?

A)Increased blood flow to myocardium
B)Increased oxygen and nutrients to myocardium
C)Hypotension is a risk factor
D)The classic symptom is angina

Question 62

Each of the following is seen in a patient with a myocardial infarct EXCEPT:

A)pain radiating to the right arm
B)sweating
C)ECG changes
D)angina

Question 63

Which of the following is NOT part of the triad of symptoms seen with multiple sclerosis?

A)Scanning speech
B)Dementia
C)Intention tremor
D)Nystagmus

Question 64

Which of the following cancers has the highest incidence in men?

A)Colorectal
B)Urinary tract
C)Prostate
D)Lung

Question 65

Which of the following skin neoplasms is benign?

A)Pigmented nevus
B)Squamous cell carcinoma
C)Melanoma
D)Keratocanthoma

Question 66

Each of the following is true regarding squamous cell carcinoma of the skin EXCEPT:

A)keratin pearls are seen histologically
B)there are increased laminin receptors seen in malignant epithelial cells
C)a normal treatment regimen requires chemotherapy
D)it can be caused by sun damage and radiation

Question 67

Which of the following is TRUE regarding the pathophysiology of shock?

A)There is a decrease in urinary output
B)The patient becomes hypertensive
C)There is an increase in blood flow
D)There is an increase in cardiac output

Question 68

Each of the following can lead to cirrhosis of the liver EXCEPT:

A)hemochromatosis
B)biliary obstruction
C)Wilson disease
D)portal hypertension

Question 69

Which of the following is TRUE of sickle cell anemia?

A)The homozygotic form is less severe
B)The spleen is rarely affected
C)Caucasians are most commonly affected
D)Patients with sickle-cell trait are heterozygotid

Question 70

Acute hyphema is associated with what type of injury?

A)orthopedic
B)eye
C)insect sting or snakebite
D)gynecological trauma

Question 71

The patient has sustained a hyphema; what intervention should the physician assistant take?

A)Have patient wear ear protectors in the future
B)Keep the patient at bed rest typically with head of bed up
C)Apply atropine eye drops
D)Apply an ice pack to the site of injury

Question 72

Which biological agent occurs when food is contaminated?

A)Tularemia
B)blister agents
C)plague
D)Salmonella

Question 73

Signs of internal bleeding include all of the following EXCEPT:

A)painful, swollen, or deformed extremities
B)a tender rigid abdomen
C)vomiting bile
D)bruising

Question 74

Patients with heart problems might complain of any of the following EXCEPT:

A)pain in the center of the chest
B)mild chest discomfort
C)sudden onset of sharp abdominal pain
D)difficulty in breathing

Question 75

To determine the stage of infection of HIV/AIDS, what laboratory tests are taken?

A)Elisa
B)CD4, HIV load
C)Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR)
D)Hepatitis, PPD

Question 76

The spread of active or primary tuberculosis is primarily by what means?

A)blood
B)droplet
C)airborne
D)contact

Question 77

Acute glomerulonephritis is associated with which of the following?

A)a recent case of impetigo
B)a coexisting sore throat
C)a chronic cough
D)Dysuria

Question 78

Which of the following is the most common mental health issue among older adults?

A)dementia
B)depression
C)substance abuse
D)suicide

Question 79

If an elder male experiences frequent urination, difficulty starting the urinary stream, dribbling, and retention of Urine, these clinical manifestations are indicative of:

A)normal physiologic changes of aging
B)prostatic hypertrophy
C)urinary tract infection
D)poor toileting habits

Question 80

When assisting a physician for a patient with Cushing's syndrome, which set of findings would most substantiate a diagnosis?

A)peptic ulcers, hypokalemia, impotence, and truncal obesity
B)muscle wasting, hirsutism, ecchymosis, and purple striae
C)hypertension, glycosuria, hypernatremia, and osteoporosis
D)weakness, renal calculi, amenorrhea, and polydipsia