Deck 1: Assessment and Diagnosis

Question 1

Test J has a correlation of .60 with test K and a correlation of .30 with test L. test J accounts for how much less or more variability in test K as it does in test L?

A)Half as much
B)Twice as much
C)Four times as much
D)Eight times as much

Answer 1

Four times as much

Question 2

There are three ways to measure reliability in test construction. Which of the following is NOT one of those ways?

A)Alternate forms
B)Test-retest
C)Internal consistency
D)Statistical analysis

Answer 2

Statistical analysis

Question 3

Test construction requires that tests have both validity and reliability. What is the Spearman-Brown prophecy formula used for in this context?

A)To predict increase in reliability if a test were longer than it is
B)To predict reliability of a speeded test
C)To predict criterion-related validity of a test score
D)To predict if standard error of measurement is useful

Answer 3

To predict increase in reliability if a test were longer than it is

Question 4

In statistical test construction, factorial design allows for analysis of the effect of each factor on the response variable, as well as the effect of interactions between factors on the response variable. If a factorial design yields main and interaction effects, how should results be interpreted?

A)Analyze the main effect in light of the interaction effect
B)Analyze the main effect and interaction effect together
C)Analyze the interaction effect independently
D)Analyze all effects independently

Question 5

Test construction requires that tests have both validity and reliability. Split-half reliability is useful in determining the reliability of the following tests except for the:

A)APBN board test
B)Tests with a time limit
C)Tests with both easy and difficult questions
D)Tests administered to one group of people

Question 6

Test construction requires that tests have both validity and reliability. If reliability of a test is perfect (1.00), what is the standard error of measurement?

A)0)0
B)1)00
C)Cannot be calculated
D)The standard deviation of scores

Question 7

A questionnaire designed to assess level of anxiety is administered. When analyzing results, researchers obtain a reliability coefficient of .65. What should they do with this information?

A)Nothing; .65 is an acceptable reliability coefficient
B)Decrease the number of items in the questionnaire
C)Use a more heterogeneous sample
D)Use a homogeneous but larger sample

Question 8

Test construction involves determining the reliability of a test-how consistent and dependable obtained scores are. What does the classical test theory state about reliability?

A)That total variability equals true score variability plus error variability
B)That total variability equals true score variability minus error variability
C)That variable scores cannot be considered reliable unless they remain within a certain range over the course of multiple administrations of one test.
D)That total variability depends on subject intelligence, therefore true score variability cannot be determined

Question 9

One of the most important tasks of human resources is to obtain and analyze information about a particular job (tools and training needed, what the requirements of the job are). There are a number of ways to obtain this data. Which of the following techniques involves determining specific actions that lead to desirable or undesirable consequences on the job?

A)Open-ended interviews
B)Structured interviews
C)Critical incident
D)Incident analysis

Question 10

Employee selection is based on a range of information and assessment that employers gather and conduct, one of which is interviews. Interviews have the worst criterion-related validity, especially when unstructured. There are a number of biases that can occur in an unstructured interview. Which of those biases is defined as an interview's ratings of a candidate being affected by their rating of the previous candidate?

A)First impression
B)Contrast effect
C)Negative effect
D)Halo effect

Question 11

Employee selection is based on a range of information and assessment that employers gather and conduct, one of which is interviews. Interviews have the worst criterion-related validity, especially when unstructured. There are a number of biases that can occur in an unstructured interview. Which of those biases refers to the occurrence of an interviewer determining that an individual is generally competent and well-qualified because they are notably more attractive than other candidates?

A)First impression
B)Contrast effect
C)Interviewer prejudices
D)Halo effect

Question 12

Different assessment tests are used in evaluating candidates, including cognitive ability tests, aptitude tests, and personality tests. Which of the following tests is a cognitive ability test?

A)Wonderlic personnel test
B)Situational judgment test
C)Typing test
D)Work sample tests

Question 13

Different assessment tests are used in evaluating candidates, including cognitive ability tests, aptitude tests, and personality tests, among others. What does Holland's self-direct search test for?

A)Cognitive ability
B)Learning capacity
C)Personality
D)Career interest

Question 14

Neuropsychological testing is used to determine neurological function, screen for various disorders, or assess brain damage. Which of the following neuropsych tests is used to screen for brain damage and developmental disorders and has high validity?

A)Halstead-Reitan Neuropsychological Battery
B)Boston Diagnostic Examination
C)Bender Visual Motor Gestalt Test
D)Hayling and Brixton Tests

Question 15

Neuropsychological testing is used to determine neurological function, screen for various disorders, or assess brain damage. Which of the following tests is used to assess physical aspects and location of neurological damage?

A)Halstead-Reitan Neuropsychological Battery
B)Hayling and Brixton Tests
C)Kaufman Short Neuropsychological Assessment
D)MCI Screen

Question 16

Neuropsychological testing is used to determine neurological function, screen for various disorders, or assess brain damage. The Halstead-Reitan Neuropsychological Battery is used to assess physical aspects and location of neurological damage. Which of the following is NOT included in this combination of tests?

A)Tactual Performance Test
B)Finger Oscillation Test
C)Figural Fluency Test
D)Controlled Oral Word Association Test

Question 17

You want to administer an intelligence test to a 15-year-old who has significant performance problems in school to determine if there is a potential cognitive cause. What is the most appropriate test option?

A)WISC-IV
B)WAIS-III
C)MMPI-2
D)Stanford-Binet

Question 18

The Rorschach personality test aims to assess personality structure. There are a number of scoring systems used. However, each response is usually scored on a variety of dimensions. Which of the following is NOT one of those dimensions?

A)Content
B)Location
C)Developmental quality
D)Response time

Question 19

Personality tests are used in both clinical and non-clinical settings. Which of the following tests is the best choice for a business owner to employ in the hiring process?

A)MMPI-2
B)CPI
C)MCMI-III
D)PORT

Question 20

The MMPI-2 is an objective personality test that uses self-reporting and includes several clinical and validity scales. Someone whose scores suggest distress or an attempt at a cry for help likely scored how on which scale?

A)High on the L scale
B)High in the D scale
C)High on the F scale
D)Low on the K scale

Question 21

For the past month, Joan has been volunteering on multiple new projects at her office and spends most of her time outside of work shopping online. One day she resigns, explaining to her boss that she's decided to spend six months in Spain. What do you suspect her diagnosis might be?

A)Schizoaffective disorder
B)Bipolar Type 2 disorder
C)Bipolar Type 1 disorder
D)Substance abuse

Question 22

Which type of delusional disorder involves the belief that the self has a physical deformity or medical condition?

A)Persecutory type
B)Hypochondriac type
C)Somatic type
D)Mixed type

Question 23

Imagine that Joan, a patient who presented with symptoms of bipolar type 1 disorder in the recent past, later returns to your office. Her daily life has settled down and she seems to be generally content, except that she is now convinced that her coworkers are scheming to get her fired and spreading rumors about her personal life. What do you suspect her diagnosis might be, given this additional information?

A)Bipolar type 1
B)Bipolar type 2
C)Schizophrenia
D)Schizoaffective disorder

Question 24

Dysthymia is a specific type of depressive disorder, differentiated from major depression disorder by a number of features. Which of the following differentiations between these two disorders is NOT valid?

A)Dysthymia often lasts longer than major depression.
B)Someone with dysthymia is likely to develop major depression.
C)Someone with major depression is likely to develop dysthymia.
D)More than half of those diagnosed with dysthymia have a comorbid psychiatric disorder or chronic physical illness.

Question 25

A new patient has had manic and psychotic episodes within the past year. Which of the following indicators might suggest a diagnosis of schizoaffective mood disorder rather than mood disorder with psychotic features?

A)Patient has not shown mood symptoms in the past four weeks
B)Patient does not respond well to lithium
C)Patient agrees with your belief that she is suffering from a psychotic disorder
D)Full criteria for a manic episode have never been met

Question 26

A patient has limited expressive language abilities, including limited vocabulary, poor word recall, and difficulty understanding specific concepts such as "if . . . then" or "here" vs. "there." What communication disorder might you diagnosis this patient with?

A)Expressive language disorder
B)Phonological disorder
C)Mixed expressive-receptive language disorder
D)Mixed expressive-phonological disorder

Question 27

You are evaluating a child who has difficulty socializing, displays unusual motion, performs repetitive behavior, and performs well on cognitive tests. Which diagnosis is most likely, given the symptoms?

A)Autism
B)Asperger's syndrome
C)Obsessive-compulsive personality disorder
D)Pervasive developmental disorder

Question 28

Conduct disorder is signified by an ongoing pattern of behavior that violates basic rights of others or age-appropriate societal norms. There are four main categories of behavior used to identify conduct disorder. Which of the following is NOT one of those categories?

A)Aggression toward people or animals
B)Destruction of property
C)Lying and theft
D)Excessive talking

Question 29

Tic disorders include Tourette's disorder and transient tic disorder, and are marked by recurrent, rapid motor movements or vocalizations. Which of the following behaviors is NOT considered a tic?

A)Coprolalia
B)Jumping
C)Sniffing
D)Choreia

Question 30

Substance dependence is marked by maladaptive behaviors that interfere with social or professional activities, as well as by devoting significant amounts of time in procuring or recovering from particular substances, among other things. Which theory was proposed by Conger to explain alcohol dependence?

A)Social anxiety hypothesis
B)Tension reduction hypothesis
C)Genetic-cognitive hypothesis
D)Relief hypothesis

Question 31

There are a number of legal processes, acts, and landmark cases that affect industrial/organizational psychology. One of those affected the issue of workplace testing designed to assess general abilities for hiring and promotion decisions. Which of the following resulted in new requirements for testing design?

A)Uniform guidelines on employee selection
B)Title VII of the Civil Rights Act
C)Hayowrth vs. the State of California
D)Griggs vs. Duke Power Company

Question 32

There are a number of problems in assessment and hiring that result in discrimination. Which of those problems refers to the following situation? A member of a minority group scores lower on the MCAT than a member of a non-minority group. However, they perform equally well on the criterion.

A)Unfairness
B)Adverse impact
C)Differential validity
D)Reverse discrimination

Question 33

Development of human resources includes ways to effectively select, test, train, and evaluate employees. Which of the following procedures of human resources refers to the collection and assay of data that provides information about job tasks?

A)Job description
B)Job analysis
C)Job evaluation
D)Job specifications

Question 34

Development of human resources includes ways to effectively select, test, train, and evaluate employees. Which of the following procedures of human resources refers to the formal process of determining the financial worth of a specific job to an organization?

A)Job description
B)Job analysis
C)Job evaluation
D)Job specifications

Question 35

Candidate selection in the hiring process is based on a number of factors, which are given different weight based on employer and job type. There are different techniques used to evaluate multiple criteria. Which of the following techniques allows for low performance on one predictor to be compensated by high performance on others?

A)Multiple regression approach
B)Multiple cutoff approach
C)Multiple hurdle approach
D)Multiple contrast approach

Question 36

Human resources departments have methods of evaluation that may include ratings by supervisors, peers, or self-ratings. Some of these methods are comparative - employee performances are compared with each other - while some are absolute - employee performance ratings are considered individually, not in relation to other employee performance ratings. Which of the following methods is a comparative method?

A)Forced distribution
B)Behaviorally anchored rating scales
C)Graphic rating scales
D)Forced choice

Question 37

Human resources has methods of evaluation that may include ratings by supervisors, peers, or self-ratings. Some of these methods are comparative - employee performances are compared with each other - while some are absolute - employee performance ratings are considered individually, not in relation to other employee performance ratings. Which of the following methods is an individual/absolute method?

A)Straight rankings
B)Forced comparison
C)Behavioral observation scale
D)Forced distribution

Question 38

Human resources has methods of evaluation that may include ratings by supervisors, peers, or self-ratings. Some of these methods are comparative - employee performances are compared with each other - while some are absolute - employee performance ratings are considered individually, not in relation to other employee performance ratings. Which of the following individual/absolute methods requires the rater to choose between two seemingly equal desirable or undesirable choices to include in performance evaluation?

A)Forced choice
B)Behavioral checklist
C)Graphic rating scales
D)Straight rankings

Question 39

Cultural differences impact views and diagnoses of mental health. Which of the following disorders is similar in symptomatology and prevalence rate across cultures?

A)Depression
B)Schizophrenia
C)Borderline personality disorder
D)Bulimia

Question 40

What are the three basic elements to look for when assessing a psychology test?

A)Ease in understanding the questions, length of test, time given
B)Test style, font used, the phase of the moon
C)Reliability, validity, standardization
D)Common element, standardization, biserial correlation

Question 41

To make a diagnosis of a Major Depressive Episode based on DSM-5 criteria, a client would need to have five or more specific symptoms, with at least one of two necessary symptoms. Which symptom below is one of those necessary symptoms?

A)Significant weight loss
B)Feelings of worthlessness
C)Markedly diminished interest or pleasure
D)Fatigue or loss of energy

Question 42

What is the differential diagnosis for Reactive Attachment Disorder according to the DSM-5?

A)Schizophrenia
B)Depression
C)Pervasive Developmental Disorders
D)Anxiety Disorders

Question 43

A person who scores highly in the Realistic area of Holland's vocational types is someone who_____.

A)Is very realistic in their goals.
B)Enjoys helping others reach their goals
C)Likes to work with their hands, machines, and tools.
D)Has a down-to-earth approach to life

Question 44

What are two of the criticisms of projective tests?

A)Respondents cannot fake their responses; the tests are too easy
B)The tests cause too much anxiety; they are too unstructured
C)Two different examiners can interpret the same results two different ways; low reliability and validity of the tests
D)The results are worthless; the tests take too much time

Question 45

A test using cards that portray human figures in a variety of settings and situations is called___________.

A)The Thematic Apperception Test
B)The Unconscious Personality Test
C)The Apperception Test
D)The Henry Murray Test

Question 46

What is the Rorschach test?

A)A method for assessing personality
B)It's a test known as the inkblot test
C)It's a test using cards with pictures
D)All of the above

Question 47

What is the difference between the MMPI-1 and MMPI-2?

A)MMPI-1 is more up-to-date with current cultural and language changes
B)MMPI-2 is a revision of the tests done in 1989
C)Neither one has been changed much
D)None of the above

Question 48

Why are most of the questions on the MMPI test about abnormal behavior?

A)Most clients have abnormal behavior
B)Its purpose is to rule out the abnormal behaviors
C)It is designed primarily to diagnose psychological disorders
D)Both A and B

Question 49

The DSM-5 includes a section for significant psychosocial and environmental problems. Which of the following would you report in this section?

A)Recent job loss
B)Failing the GED exam
C)Difficulty finding housing
D)All of the above

Question 50

One of the reasons bipolar disorder can be difficult to diagnose in a child under ten is that ________.

A)The symptoms mimic or overlap ADHD
B)Children under ten do not experience bipolar disorder
C)Children under ten usually are very irritable anyway
D)None of the above

Question 51

A critical component of the diagnostic interview includes which of the following?

A)Family and social history
B)Medical history
C)Previous diagnoses
D)All of the above

Question 52

The empirical approach to test development uses the construction of comparison groups. Empirical evidence is gathered through __________ and __________ .

A)Indirect observation, exploration
B)Direct observation, exploration
C)Direct observation, experiment
D)Indirect observation, experiment

Question 53

A test user should be aware of the possible limitations of any particular test, including those associated with __________ . Choose all that apply.

A)Confidence intervals
B)Standard error of measurement
C)Reliability
D)All of the Above

Question 54

What are the benefits of doing an employee performance evaluation? Choose all that apply.

A)Improve employer-employee relationship
B)Increase employee motivation
C)Satisfy employee's need for recognition
D)All of the above

Question 55

Job analysis is a group of methods used to distinguish the content of a job in terms of activities involved, and job requirements. There are two approaches to job analysis.

A)Job-oriented, task-oriented
B)Task-oriented, worker-oriented
C)Task-oriented, employer-oriented
D)Employer-oriented, Worker-oriented

Question 56

Holland's theory of Vocational Types identifies six behavioral and personality styles that tend to drive individuals toward certain careers. One of these is the realistic style, which describes an individual who __________ .

A)Likes to help people; is friendly
B)Likes mathematics; is mechanical
C)Likes working with tools; is scientific
D)Likes creative arts; is expressive

Question 57

The first part of a community needs assessment is to develop a plan or approach to evaluating what resources are needed. Why is having a plan in place important for conducting a community needs assessment?

A)To give community members a voice
B)To give participants straightforward procedures
C)To save time and excessive effort
D)All of the above

Question 58

The Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders (DSM-5) is a system created by the American Psychiatric Association. The DSM-5 is used by clinicians to __________ and __________ mental disorders

A)Prioritize, classify
B)Diagnose, classify
C)Prioritize, treat
D)Diagnose, explore

Question 59

Although the DSM-5 continues to specifically categorize disorders, there is a new element that was not found in the previous version, the DSM-4. This additional aspect is __________ .

A)Therapeutic approaches
B)Acuteness measures
C)Treatment plans
D)All of the above

Question 60

The purpose of putting out the new edition of the DSM was __________ . Choose all that apply.

A)To improve diagnosis
B)To improve treatment
C)To decrease diagnoses
D)To advance research

Question 61

DSM-5 included some significant changes to certain mental disorders and diagnoses. Some diagnoses even had name changes. One of these major changes was to the previously labeled Childhood bipolar disorder. This is now called __________ .

A)Disorderly Mood Disorder
B)Mood Dysregulation Disorder
C)Disruptive Mood Dysregulation Disorder
D)Mood Regulation Disorder

Question 62

Global Assessment of Functioning (GAF) is a numerical scale (0-100) used by clinicians to gauge an individual's social, occupational, and __________ functioning.

A)Psychological
B)Physical
C)Socioeconomic
D)Community

Question 63

In psychological assessment, a test's __________, and __________ should be considered before administration.

A)Rationality, validity
B)Reliability, validity
C)Reliability, rationality
D)Trustworthiness, validity

Question 64

The Millon Behavioral Health Inventory (MBHI) is used with chronically ill clients. The purpose of using the MBHI is to __________ . Choose all that apply.

A)Explore the patient's medical background
B)Identify patient supports or lack thereof
C)Identify psychiatric problems in medical patients
D)Identify the person's childhood behaviors

Question 65

DSM-5 has moved away from axial diagnosis documentation, while maintaining importance on the factors that were previously associated with Axis IV. These __________ and __________ factors are now represented with V-codes.

A)Behavioral, socioeconomic
B)Psychosocial, environmental
C)Environmental, behavioral
D)Socioeconomic, psychological

Question 66

When taking a multiple-choice test in which you know nothing about the material, you have a 1 to n% chance of getting a question correct by solely guessing. This probability can be plotted on a(n) __________ curve.

A)Item characteristic
B)Three parameter model
C)Normative
D)Dichotomous

Question 67

Item analysis is the process of examining student responses to individual test items. This is important, because __________ . Choose all that apply.

A)It can reduce unclear or misleading items
B)It can improve quality of test items that will be reused
C)It can advance teacher skills
D)All of the above

Question 68

What is a common drawback of using a self-report personality test?

A)Test administrator's lack of support
B)Lack of education
C)Issue of self-presentation
D)None of the above

Question 69

A preliminary step in utilizing tests in counseling is:

A)To let the expectations of the test be known.
B)To check the client's IQ
C)To gather information about the client's work history.
D)Both A and B

Question 70

In the counseling assessment process, who is responsible for obtaining or bringing forth information needed for successful counseling?

A)The client
B)The counselor
C)The receptionist
D)The client's spouse

Question 71

Aaron Beck, who developed cognitive therapy, also developed numerous measures, and scales. Choose all that apply:

A)Beck Anxiety Inventory (BAI)
B)Beck Hopelessness Scale (BHS)
C)Beck Depression Inventory (BDI)
D)Beck Dysfunctional Thinking Inventory (DTI)

Question 72

The Dyadic Trust Scale is used to assess level of trust within __________ .

A)Sibling relationships
B)Intimate relationships
C)Marriage relationships
D)An individual

Question 73

In order to glimpse the unconscious of a patient and learn more about that individual's personality, a psychologist may show a patient a series of cards with ambiguous pictures and ask the patient to tell a story about each of the pictures. Which personality test is this?

A)Personality Assessment Inventory (PAI)
B)Rorschach Inkblot Test
C)Minnesota Multiphasic Personality Inventory-2 (MMPI-2)
D)Thematic Apperception Test (TAT)

Question 74

In response to the Stanford-Binet Intelligence test, David Weschsler created the Weschsler Adult Intelligence Scale (WAIS). The WAIS is said to be superior to the Stanford-Binet because it:

A)Provides a more accurate representation of intelligence
B)Is able to be used with adults and children
C)Places less emphasis on verbal abilities by measuring both verbal and nonverbal abilities
D)Uses more colorful and interesting testing materials, thus eliminating boredom for children taking the test

Question 75

Alfred Binet was commissioned by the French government in 1904 to develop a way to identify students in need of alternative education. His work resulted in an achievement test that examined how well a child performed at various cognitive tasks relative to:

A)How well the child performed on physical tasks
B)How well the child performed on the same test the previous year
C)Other children at the same age
D)Other children at the same level of education

Question 76

When using the Global Assessment of Functioning (GAF) scale, clinicians need to start ________.

A)At the bottom and evaluate each range for the function of the individual
B)At the top level and keep moving down the scale until the best match is found
C)By guessing at about which level the person might be functioning
D)With another type of assessment altogether

Question 77

Ethically speaking, clinicians have the __________ to learn the DSM-5, and utilize it responsibly.

A)Freedom
B)Option
C)Responsibility
D)Choice

Question 78

Although schizophrenia is considered a mental disorder that is culturally universal, symptomology varies from culture to culture. Beyond the variance in symptomology focus, culture also impacts the __________ of schizophrenia. Choose all that apply.

A)Diagnosis
B)Seriousness
C)Incidence
D)Treatment

Question 79

When assessing a client's progress toward counseling goals, a clinician should __________.

A)Ask the client how they are doing
B)Refer to the treatment plan
C)Ask other clinicians how they think the client is doing
D)Not worry about assessing progress; it's all about the journey

Question 80

Do assessment practices stop once the counseling begins?

A)Yes, assessment is a one-time process that is performed before counseling begins
B)Yes, assessments are too difficult to score and any further testing attempts will confuse the process
C)No, assessment is an ongoing process throughout counseling
D)No, assessment takes place at the beginning of each session