Deck 1: Physical Therapy
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Deck 1: Physical Therapy
1
What are the three types of muscle tissue?
A)Cardiac, smooth, rough
B)Cardiac, smooth, skeletal
C)Smooth, rough, skeletal
D)Cardiac, type I, type II
A)Cardiac, smooth, rough
B)Cardiac, smooth, skeletal
C)Smooth, rough, skeletal
D)Cardiac, type I, type II
Cardiac, smooth, skeletal
2
Which muscular structure surrounds the actual muscle fiber and is responsible for depolarization of the surface of the fiber and protection and insulation of the fiber from others around it?
A)Satellite cells
B)Sarcoplasm
C)Fascia
D)Sarcolemma
A)Satellite cells
B)Sarcoplasm
C)Fascia
D)Sarcolemma
Sarcolemma
3
Within the myofibril, which of the following is the lighter band that contains only actin?
A)H zone
B)M line
C)A band
D)I band
A)H zone
B)M line
C)A band
D)I band
I band
4
Which of the following does not correctly describe fast-twitch muscles fibers?
A)They have a quick rate of calcium ion releases
B)They use blood glucose and muscle glycogen for energy.
C)They are used during aerobic exercises.
D)They generate fast, powerful muscle actions.
A)They have a quick rate of calcium ion releases
B)They use blood glucose and muscle glycogen for energy.
C)They are used during aerobic exercises.
D)They generate fast, powerful muscle actions.
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5
What is the correct name for the type of nerves that excite organ systems, such as the digestive system or the circulatory system?
A)Autonomic
B)Somatic
C)Afferent
D)Central
A)Autonomic
B)Somatic
C)Afferent
D)Central
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6
What is the anatomical name for the location on a muscle fiber where a nerve impulse is received?
A)Synapse
B)Motor endplate
C)Neuromuscular junction
D)Golgi organ
A)Synapse
B)Motor endplate
C)Neuromuscular junction
D)Golgi organ
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7
Which part of the muscle fiber senses changes in the tension of the muscle?
A)Pacinian corpuscles
B)Neurotransmitters
C)Muscle spindles
D)Golgi tendon organs
A)Pacinian corpuscles
B)Neurotransmitters
C)Muscle spindles
D)Golgi tendon organs
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8
What type of osseous tissue makes up the Haversian system and comprises up 80% of skeletal mass?
A)Spongy
B)Trabecular
C)Cancellous
D)Compact
A)Spongy
B)Trabecular
C)Cancellous
D)Compact
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9
What occurs at the epiphyseal plate?
A)Ossification
B)Hematopoiesis
C)Depolarization
D)Neurotransmission
A)Ossification
B)Hematopoiesis
C)Depolarization
D)Neurotransmission
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10
What type of tissue has a form called serous, which is fluid-filled?
A)Osseous
B)Tendons
C)Collagen
D)Fascia
A)Osseous
B)Tendons
C)Collagen
D)Fascia
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11
Which organ system is responsible for transport of nutrients, removal of waste and overall environmental maintenance to support the body's function?
A)Endocrine
B)Cardiovascular
C)Respiratory
D)Reproductive
A)Endocrine
B)Cardiovascular
C)Respiratory
D)Reproductive
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12
All of the following are components of the heart's electrical conduction system EXCEPT:
A)Sinoatrial node
B)Atrioventricular node
C)Catecholamines
D)Purkinje fibers
A)Sinoatrial node
B)Atrioventricular node
C)Catecholamines
D)Purkinje fibers
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13
Which of the following is a measure of the pressure exerted upon the artery walls as blood is forced out of the heart during ventricular contraction?
A)Diastolic blood pressure
B)Systolic blood pressure
C)Total peripheral resistance
D)Mean arterial pressure
A)Diastolic blood pressure
B)Systolic blood pressure
C)Total peripheral resistance
D)Mean arterial pressure
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14
What is the movement of oxygen across a cell membrane called?
A)Concentration gradient
B)Osmosis
C)Diffusion
D)Dissociation
A)Concentration gradient
B)Osmosis
C)Diffusion
D)Dissociation
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15
Movement in and out of the lungs is controlled mainly by which of the following actions?
A)Changes in the pleural pressure and deep abdominal relaxation of the rectus abdominus
B)Downward and upward motion of the diaphragm and elevation and depression of the ribs to increase the diameter of the chest cavity
C)Alveolar contraction and contractions of the heart, circulating blood through the lung anatomy
D)Changes in atmospheric pressure within the respiratory cavities and relaxation of abdominal musculature
A)Changes in the pleural pressure and deep abdominal relaxation of the rectus abdominus
B)Downward and upward motion of the diaphragm and elevation and depression of the ribs to increase the diameter of the chest cavity
C)Alveolar contraction and contractions of the heart, circulating blood through the lung anatomy
D)Changes in atmospheric pressure within the respiratory cavities and relaxation of abdominal musculature
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16
What causes air to flow into the lungs during inspiration?
A)A decrease in alveolar pressure as compared to atmospheric pressure
B)An increase in alveolar pressure as compared to atmospheric pressure
C)A decrease in osmotic pressure as compared to atmospheric pressure
D)A decrease in pleural pressure as compared to atmospheric pressure
A)A decrease in alveolar pressure as compared to atmospheric pressure
B)An increase in alveolar pressure as compared to atmospheric pressure
C)A decrease in osmotic pressure as compared to atmospheric pressure
D)A decrease in pleural pressure as compared to atmospheric pressure
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17
Which of the following fields of study is concerned with the conversion of food into biologically usable energy?
A)Nutrition
B)Dietetics
C)Bioenergetics
D)Anatomical biochemistry
A)Nutrition
B)Dietetics
C)Bioenergetics
D)Anatomical biochemistry
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18
Which energy system is the primary one for short-term, high-intensity activity?
A)Oxidative system
B)Glycolysis system
C)Phosphagen system
D)Metabolic system
A)Oxidative system
B)Glycolysis system
C)Phosphagen system
D)Metabolic system
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19
What is the energy yield of the process of glycolysis when glycogen is the source?
A)2 molecules of ATP
B)3 molecules of ATP
C)6 molecules of ATP
D)8 molecules of ATP
A)2 molecules of ATP
B)3 molecules of ATP
C)6 molecules of ATP
D)8 molecules of ATP
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20
What bioenergetic system is dominant while at rest and during aerobic exercise?
A)Phosphagen system
B)Glycogen system
C)Oxidative system
D)Krebs cycle
A)Phosphagen system
B)Glycogen system
C)Oxidative system
D)Krebs cycle
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21
Which of the following is a measure of the amount of physical work performed for a particular duration of time?
A)Energy
B)Exertion
C)Effort
D)Power
A)Energy
B)Exertion
C)Effort
D)Power
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22
Which knowledge base allows personal trainers to select exercise programming that meets their clients' goals and minimizes risk of injury?
A)Anatomy
B)Bioenergetics
C)Physics
D)Biomechanics
A)Anatomy
B)Bioenergetics
C)Physics
D)Biomechanics
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23
In which type of lever are the applied and resistive forces on the same side of the fulcrum?
A)First class
B)Second class
C)Third class
D)Fourth class
A)First class
B)Second class
C)Third class
D)Fourth class
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24
Which of the following factors affects the ability to determine actual work done during resistance training?
A)Body weight of the participant
B)Angle of the weight movement during the exercise
C)Mass of the weight used relative to the body weight of the participant
D)None of the above
A)Body weight of the participant
B)Angle of the weight movement during the exercise
C)Mass of the weight used relative to the body weight of the participant
D)None of the above
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25
Which type of muscle arrangement resembles the layout of a feather, with angled fibers?
A)Radiate
B)Fusiform
C)Pennate
D)Longitudinal
A)Radiate
B)Fusiform
C)Pennate
D)Longitudinal
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26
Which of the following anatomical locations is an example of a type of pennate muscle arrangement?
A)Biceps brachii
B)Rectus abdominis
C)Gluteus medius
D)Tibialis posterior
A)Biceps brachii
B)Rectus abdominis
C)Gluteus medius
D)Tibialis posterior
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27
During what phase of exercise is the greatest amount of muscle force possible?
A)Concentric
B)Isometric
C)Eccentric
D)Possible muscle force does not vary dependent upon phase.
A)Concentric
B)Isometric
C)Eccentric
D)Possible muscle force does not vary dependent upon phase.
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28
When fitness training is focused on a target activity and improvement in performance of that activity is an example of which principle?
A)Kinetic energy
B)Bracketing principle
C)Newton's law
D)Specificity principle
A)Kinetic energy
B)Bracketing principle
C)Newton's law
D)Specificity principle
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29
Which of the following hormones increases as a result of exercise in order to facilitate the breakdown of fats and carbohydrates?
A)Epinephrine
B)Cortisol
C)Insulin
D)Testosterone
A)Epinephrine
B)Cortisol
C)Insulin
D)Testosterone
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30
Which of the following conditions can possibly be improved by the chronic adaptation of bone formation and degeneration that comes with exercise?
A)Arthritis
B)Osteoporosis
C)Osteoarthritis
D)Leukemia
A)Arthritis
B)Osteoporosis
C)Osteoarthritis
D)Leukemia
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31
What do the following symptoms likely indicate when present in a person who has been practicing resistance training? Sleep disturbance
Lingering colds
Soreness
Mood changes
Flu-like symptoms
A)Influenza
B)Detraining
C)Overtraining
D)Fitness plateau
Lingering colds
Soreness
Mood changes
Flu-like symptoms
A)Influenza
B)Detraining
C)Overtraining
D)Fitness plateau
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32
What response to exercise is thought to be a result of increased parasympathetic influence, decreased sympathetic influence, and lower heart rate?
A)Decreased resting and sub-maximal heart rate
B)Increased resting and sub-maximal heart rate
C)Decreased resting and increased sub-maximal heart rate
D)Increased resting and decreased sub-maximal heart rate
A)Decreased resting and sub-maximal heart rate
B)Increased resting and sub-maximal heart rate
C)Decreased resting and increased sub-maximal heart rate
D)Increased resting and decreased sub-maximal heart rate
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33
Which of the following changes in the body's relationship to insulin could greatly affect the status of a diabetic's health as aging occurs?
A)Increased sensitivity to insulin due to long term aerobic training
B)Decreased sensitivity to insulin due to long term aerobic training
C)Greater rate of insulin secretion
D)Increased cooperation between insulin and other hormones within the endocrine system
A)Increased sensitivity to insulin due to long term aerobic training
B)Decreased sensitivity to insulin due to long term aerobic training
C)Greater rate of insulin secretion
D)Increased cooperation between insulin and other hormones within the endocrine system
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34
What do the following symptoms indicate?Altered blood pressureDecreased muscle glycogenIncreased muscle sorenessA decrease in performance
A)Detraining
B)Aerobic overtraining
C)Resistance overtraining
D)Fatigue
A)Detraining
B)Aerobic overtraining
C)Resistance overtraining
D)Fatigue
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35
Which of the following is a measure of the calories required to maintain normal bodily functions?
A)Resting energy expenditure
B)Energy requirement
C)Resting metabolic rate
D)Minimum daily intake value
A)Resting energy expenditure
B)Energy requirement
C)Resting metabolic rate
D)Minimum daily intake value
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36
What is the most commonly recommended daily intake of carbohydrates for non-performance individuals?
A)15-20 grams per kilogram of body weight
B)8-10 grams per kilogram of body weight
C)5-6 grams per kilogram of body weight
D)2-3 grams per kilogram of body weight
A)15-20 grams per kilogram of body weight
B)8-10 grams per kilogram of body weight
C)5-6 grams per kilogram of body weight
D)2-3 grams per kilogram of body weight
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37
What is the estimated percentage of calories derived from fat in the average American's diet?
A)10%
B)25%
C)30%
D)34%
A)10%
B)25%
C)30%
D)34%
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38
What is the recommended amount of water to drink daily in order to maintain healthy integrity of body cells?
A)6 to 8 8-ounce glasses daily
B)7.5 liters
C)Amount is assessed individually based on activity levels, food and drink intake, health conditions, etc
D)Water should be consumed when thirst is felt, in order to avoid dehydration
A)6 to 8 8-ounce glasses daily
B)7.5 liters
C)Amount is assessed individually based on activity levels, food and drink intake, health conditions, etc
D)Water should be consumed when thirst is felt, in order to avoid dehydration
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39
What is the danger of rapid weight loss due to extreme calorie restriction?
A)Greater muscle definition becomes apparent
B)Females' menstrual cycles may cease
C)Loss of lean muscle mass, vitamin and mineral status, and dehydration
D)Extreme hunger
A)Greater muscle definition becomes apparent
B)Females' menstrual cycles may cease
C)Loss of lean muscle mass, vitamin and mineral status, and dehydration
D)Extreme hunger
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40
What is the recommended dietary allowance for male and female adults for calcium (in milligrams per day)?
A)500
B)800
C)1000
D)2000
A)500
B)800
C)1000
D)2000
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41
What is the name of the effect of exercise on the function of neurotransmitters?
A)Dopamine effect
B)Psychotropic effect
C)Neuropathic effect
D)Neurotrophic effect
A)Dopamine effect
B)Psychotropic effect
C)Neuropathic effect
D)Neurotrophic effect
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42
Over which type of goal does the client have little control?
A)Performance goals
B)Process goals
C)Outcome goals
D)Diversified goals
A)Performance goals
B)Process goals
C)Outcome goals
D)Diversified goals
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43
Which of the following is not a part of the self-determination continuum?
A)Extroverted regulation
B)Introjected regulation
C)Amotivation
D)Integrated regulation
A)Extroverted regulation
B)Introjected regulation
C)Amotivation
D)Integrated regulation
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44
What is the method in which a client fully contracts each muscle group and then relaxes it?
A)Warming up
B)Progressive warming up
C)Progressive relaxation
D)Yoga
A)Warming up
B)Progressive warming up
C)Progressive relaxation
D)Yoga
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45
Which of the following is not a part of informed consent?
A)Description of the fitness program
B)Risks and benefits
C)Non-compete clause
D)Responsibility of the participant
A)Description of the fitness program
B)Risks and benefits
C)Non-compete clause
D)Responsibility of the participant
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46
What condition is characterized by spasmodic contraction of smooth muscles around the bronchi, swelling, and excessive mucous production?
A)Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)
B)Bronchitis
C)Asthma
D)Emphysema
A)Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)
B)Bronchitis
C)Asthma
D)Emphysema
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47
Which of the following should a client not engage in prior to performing assessment tests with a personal trainer?
A)Moderate food intake 2-4 hrs before testing
B)Partaking of chemicals that affect heart rate (non-medically)
C)Adequate hydration
D)Resting for 6-8 hrs of sleep the night before testing is to occur
A)Moderate food intake 2-4 hrs before testing
B)Partaking of chemicals that affect heart rate (non-medically)
C)Adequate hydration
D)Resting for 6-8 hrs of sleep the night before testing is to occur
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48
What type of athletic performance test is a 300-yard shuttle run?
A)Sprint
B)Anaerobic capacity
C)Agility
D)Maximal aerobic capacity
A)Sprint
B)Anaerobic capacity
C)Agility
D)Maximal aerobic capacity
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49
What is the proper term for the process of using a stethoscope to hear heart sounds?
A)Auscultation
B)Sphygmomanometry
C)Palpation
D)Cardiology
A)Auscultation
B)Sphygmomanometry
C)Palpation
D)Cardiology
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50
What is the body mass index (BMI) of a client who is 5' 7" tall and weighs 176 pounds?
A)27.6
B)32
C)37.8
D)46.9
A)27.6
B)32
C)37.8
D)46.9
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51
Which of the following tests is used for assessing muscular endurance?
A)Astrand-Rhyming test
B)YMCA step test
C)Partial curl-up test
D)1RM bench press
A)Astrand-Rhyming test
B)YMCA step test
C)Partial curl-up test
D)1RM bench press
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52
Which of the following is a factor that can be affected by flexibility training?
A)Muscle and connective tissue
B)Age
C)Joint structure
D)Gender
A)Muscle and connective tissue
B)Age
C)Joint structure
D)Gender
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53
Which is not a characteristic benefit of a pre-exercise warm-up and increase in body temperature?
A)Increased blood flow to muscles
B)Increased nerve receptor sensitivity
C)Increased muscle viscosity
D)Decreased energy rate of metabolic chemical reactions
A)Increased blood flow to muscles
B)Increased nerve receptor sensitivity
C)Increased muscle viscosity
D)Decreased energy rate of metabolic chemical reactions
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54
What makes proprioceptive neuromuscular facilitation stretching superior to other forms of stretching?
A)It does not involve bouncing movements.
B)It activates the stretch reflex.
C)It assists in muscle relaxation and promotes more ROM.
D)It is safe.
A)It does not involve bouncing movements.
B)It activates the stretch reflex.
C)It assists in muscle relaxation and promotes more ROM.
D)It is safe.
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55
Where should the trainer be standing when spotting for a forward lunge with a client holding weight?
A)In front of the client
B)In front of the client, but slightly to the side to avoid the forward lunging leg
C)Slightly behind the client on the side that will lunge forward
D)Directly behind the client, moving forward simultaneously as the lunge is performed
A)In front of the client
B)In front of the client, but slightly to the side to avoid the forward lunging leg
C)Slightly behind the client on the side that will lunge forward
D)Directly behind the client, moving forward simultaneously as the lunge is performed
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56
Which types of exercise equipment is a very popular one that offers a wide range of motion, no impact and multiple modes of operation in order to really vary a workout?
A)Treadmill
B)Upright bike
C)Recumbent bike
D)Elliptical
A)Treadmill
B)Upright bike
C)Recumbent bike
D)Elliptical
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57
What is the result of a slow overstride in running?
A)Greater speed
B)Less speed
C)More impact
D)Less impact
A)Greater speed
B)Less speed
C)More impact
D)Less impact
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58
What is necessary for a client to experience in order to move forward in progress during fitness training?
A)Specificity
B)Variety
C)Progression
D)Overload
A)Specificity
B)Variety
C)Progression
D)Overload
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59
Which of the following is not a resistance training goal?
A)Strength
B)Hypertrophy
C)Endurance
D)Weight loss
A)Strength
B)Hypertrophy
C)Endurance
D)Weight loss
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60
How many resistance training sessions per week are recommended for a beginner?
A)4-5
B)2-3
C)1-2
D)Is client specific
A)4-5
B)2-3
C)1-2
D)Is client specific
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61
Which is not a commonly used way of arranging a resistance training workout?
A)Core then assistance exercises
B)Alternating "push" and "pull" exercises
C)Alternating upper and lower body exercises
D)Alternating loaded and then repetitive exercises
A)Core then assistance exercises
B)Alternating "push" and "pull" exercises
C)Alternating upper and lower body exercises
D)Alternating loaded and then repetitive exercises
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62
Which of the following is the correct term for either the total number of repetitions or the total weight lifted in a training session?
A)Maximum
B)Set
C)Volume
D)Repetitions
A)Maximum
B)Set
C)Volume
D)Repetitions
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63
Your client can perform 2 more repetitions than the repetition goal on the last set for 2 consecutive sessions. According to the 2-for-2 rule, what does this indicate?
A)Maximum effort is not being exerted.
B)Repetitions should be increased gradually throughout all sets.
C)Repetitions should be increased immediately throughout all sets.
D)Load should be increased in all sets of that exercise the next session.
A)Maximum effort is not being exerted.
B)Repetitions should be increased gradually throughout all sets.
C)Repetitions should be increased immediately throughout all sets.
D)Load should be increased in all sets of that exercise the next session.
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64
Heart rate is commonly used to assess physical intensity of activities, and its relationship to oxygen consumption is described as what?
A)A bell curve
B)Linear
C)Inverse
D)Unrelated
A)A bell curve
B)Linear
C)Inverse
D)Unrelated
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65
What is the amount of oxygen required to continue bodily functions while at rest?
A)Minimal oxygen consumption
B)Resting functional capacity
C)Resting metabolism
D)Metabolic equivalent
A)Minimal oxygen consumption
B)Resting functional capacity
C)Resting metabolism
D)Metabolic equivalent
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66
What type of exercise is defined as a quick, powerful movement that is preceded by a countermovement and involves the stretch-shortening cycle?
A)Power
B)Sprint
C)Plyometric
D)Spike
A)Power
B)Sprint
C)Plyometric
D)Spike
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67
What is another name for the amortization phase of a plyometric action?
A)Eccentric
B)Concentric
C)Isometric
D)Synaptic
A)Eccentric
B)Concentric
C)Isometric
D)Synaptic
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68
Which client would be markedly inappropriate as a candidate for plyometric training?
A)A 12-year-old student athlete
B)A 57-year-old very active adult
C)A 41-year-old triathlete
D)A 28-year-old semi-pro soccer player
A)A 12-year-old student athlete
B)A 57-year-old very active adult
C)A 41-year-old triathlete
D)A 28-year-old semi-pro soccer player
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69
What type of plyometric activity involves jumping and landing in the same spot, repeatedly, with no rest between repetitions?
A)Depth jumps
B)Box jumps
C)Jumps-in-place
D)Standing jumps
A)Depth jumps
B)Box jumps
C)Jumps-in-place
D)Standing jumps
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70
Which of the following exercises is a speed drill?
A)Jump from box
B)Alternate-leg bound
C)Butt kick
D)Front barrier hop
A)Jump from box
B)Alternate-leg bound
C)Butt kick
D)Front barrier hop
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71
What affect does supine hypotensive syndrome have on exercising during pregnancy?
A)It causes increased blood pressure due to greater blood volume.
B)It requires cessation of supine positioned exercises.
C)It increases risk of overtraining.
D)It decreases risk of syncope.
A)It causes increased blood pressure due to greater blood volume.
B)It requires cessation of supine positioned exercises.
C)It increases risk of overtraining.
D)It decreases risk of syncope.
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72
What effect can medications such as beta-blockers have on cardiovascular response, especially in seniors?
A)Diminished lung capacity
B)Lower maximum heart rate
C)Increased chance of blood clots in the lung
D)Increased rate of cardiovascular fatigue
A)Diminished lung capacity
B)Lower maximum heart rate
C)Increased chance of blood clots in the lung
D)Increased rate of cardiovascular fatigue
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73
What is thought to be the most effective way to reduce sports-related injuries in adolescents?
A)Eliminate sports under the age of 12, or the onset of puberty.
B)Spend more time practicing sport-specific maneuvers.
C)Participate in 6-8 weeks of conditioning before sports begin.
D)Always remember to stretch before activities commence.
A)Eliminate sports under the age of 12, or the onset of puberty.
B)Spend more time practicing sport-specific maneuvers.
C)Participate in 6-8 weeks of conditioning before sports begin.
D)Always remember to stretch before activities commence.
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74
Which of the following will result in an increase in body weight?
A)Positive energy balance
B)Negative energy balance
C)Positive resting metabolic rate
D)Adipose tissue
A)Positive energy balance
B)Negative energy balance
C)Positive resting metabolic rate
D)Adipose tissue
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75
What is a generally safe recommendation for weight loss goals over time?
A)A very low calorie diet will achieve weigh loss goals more quickly and inexpensively.
B)An overall weight loss of 10% in the first month shows great success and will motivate the client to continue.
C)Overall weight loss of 10% over 6 months time
D)Overall weight loss of 10% per month
A)A very low calorie diet will achieve weigh loss goals more quickly and inexpensively.
B)An overall weight loss of 10% in the first month shows great success and will motivate the client to continue.
C)Overall weight loss of 10% over 6 months time
D)Overall weight loss of 10% per month
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76
What are some aspects of lifestyle change support that the personal trainer can provide the client, especially one who has not had any fitness programs in the past?
A)Goal setting, rewards and teaching stimulus control
B)Goal setting, rewards and consequences
C)Teaching stimulus control and rewarding with healthy foods
D)Allowing desserts as rewards but only in small portions so the client doesn't feel deprived, then working harder at the next session
A)Goal setting, rewards and teaching stimulus control
B)Goal setting, rewards and consequences
C)Teaching stimulus control and rewarding with healthy foods
D)Allowing desserts as rewards but only in small portions so the client doesn't feel deprived, then working harder at the next session
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77
Which exercise would not be appropriate to help reduce the weight-bearing stress of exercise on an obese client?
A)Hiking
B)Water aerobics
C)Step aerobics
D)Deep water running
A)Hiking
B)Water aerobics
C)Step aerobics
D)Deep water running
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78
Which of the following is not a specific set of health conditions that may be found concurrent with disordered eating?
A)Depression, anxiety and low self-esteem
B)Amenorrhea, digestive problems and extremely low body fat
C)Vomiting, diarrhea and decreased urine output
D)Euphoria, self-efficacy and body dysmorphia
A)Depression, anxiety and low self-esteem
B)Amenorrhea, digestive problems and extremely low body fat
C)Vomiting, diarrhea and decreased urine output
D)Euphoria, self-efficacy and body dysmorphia
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79
What interrelated conditions are indicative of the female athlete triad?
A)Disordered eating, hair loss and extreme weight loss
B)Disordered eating, amenorrhea and osteoporosis
C)Amenorrhea, osteoporosis and extreme weight loss
D)Rheumatoid arthritis, osteoporosis and amenorrhea
A)Disordered eating, hair loss and extreme weight loss
B)Disordered eating, amenorrhea and osteoporosis
C)Amenorrhea, osteoporosis and extreme weight loss
D)Rheumatoid arthritis, osteoporosis and amenorrhea
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80
What is the general term used to describe elevated lipid concentrations in the blood?
A)Triglyceridemia
B)Hyperlipidemia
C)Hypolipidemia
D)Dyslipidemia
A)Triglyceridemia
B)Hyperlipidemia
C)Hypolipidemia
D)Dyslipidemia
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