Deck 1: The National Strength and Conditioning Association (NSCA)

Question 1

What is the correct order of structures of a muscle from smallest to largest?

A)Muscle fiber, endomysium, fascicles, perimysium, epimysium
B)Muscle fiber, epimysium, fascicles, perimysium, endomysium
C)Muscle fiber, endomysium, perimysium, fascicles, epimysium
D)Muscle fiber, epimysium, endomysium, fascicles, perimysium

Answer 1

Muscle fiber, endomysium, fascicles, perimysium, epimysium

Question 2

What part within the muscle fiber stores glycogen and myoglobin and is made up of lipids, enzymes and various types of cellular organelles?

A)Sarcolemma
B)Sarcoplasm
C)Transverse tubules
D)Myofibrils

Answer 2

Sarcoplasm

Question 3

What is the function of calcium in the muscle stimulation process?

A)Provides the action potential
B)Binds with troponin to open up binding sites
C)Binds to actin filaments' binding sites
D)Conducts the electrical impulse along the myofibril

Answer 3

Binds with troponin to open up binding sites

Question 4

What controls the process of changing membrane potential in the nerve cell membrane by allowing sodium ions to rush into the cell?

A)Depolarization
B)Hyperpolarization
C)Sodium-potassium pump
D)Saltatory conduction

Question 5

What relays information to the central nervous system about changes in the body and limbs' positions due to muscular motions?

A)Proprioceptors
B)Nerve cells
C)Muscle spindles
D)Motor endplates

Question 6

Which part of the muscle fiber senses changes in the tension of the muscle?

A)Pacinian corpuscles
B)Neurotransmitters
C)Muscle spindles
D)Golgi tendon organs

Question 7

What type of tissue has a form called serous, which is fluid-filled?

A)Osseous
B)Tendons
C)Collagen
D)Fascia

Question 8

Which organ system is responsible for transport of nutrients, removal of waste and overall environmental maintenance to support the body's function?

A)Endocrine
B)Cardiovascular
C)Respiratory
D)Reproductive

Question 9

Which components of an electrocardiogram represent the electrical stimulus as it passes through the atrial and ventricular myocardium?

A)Q and T waves
B)P and Q waves
C)QRS complex and T wave
D)QRS complex and P wave

Question 10

When would it not be abnormal to observe a systolic pressure measurement of 220 to 260?

A)During aerobic exercise
B)During the Valsalva maneuver
C)During low intensity work in hot temperatures
D)During low intensity work in cold temperatures

Question 11

Which of the following is not a part of the body's respiratory center?

A)Dorsal group
B)Ventral group
C)Pneumotaxic group
D)Alveolar group

Question 12

What term describes the total process of the breakdown of food molecules to release energy and the subsequent use of that energy to build up new molecules within the body?

A)Metabolic
B)Anabolic
C)Catabolic
D)Myobolic

Question 13

Which of the following is not true about lactic acid?

A)It is the end-product of fast glycolysis during reduced oxygen availability.
B)It causes an artificial sense of energy in muscles during exercise.
C)It is converted to lactate in the blood and muscles.
D)Its conversion to lactate and subsequent clearing out of the blood by oxidation is an indication of ability to recover.

Question 14

What is the term for the oxygen uptake that is maintained to restore the body to pre-exercise condition?

A)Oxygen debt
B)Oxygen deficit
C)Oxygen consumption
D)Oxygen elevation

Question 15

Which of the following factors affects the ability to determine actual work done during resistance training?

A)Body weight of participant
B)Energy level of participant prior to commencing the set
C)Angle of weight movement during the exercise
D)Mass of the weight used relative to participants body's weight

Question 16

Which type of muscle arrangement resembles the layout of a feather, with angled fibers?

A)Radiate
B)Fusiform
C)Pennate
D)Longitudinal

Question 17

Which of the following correctly indicates the two factors that make up fluid resistance?

A)Surface drag and form drag
B)Form drag and friction
C)Friction and bracketing
D)Liquid and gas

Question 18

All of the following are factors that affect adaptations to resistance training EXCEPT?

A)Specificity
B)Diet
C)Age
D)Genetics

Question 19

Which of the following changes in the body's relationship to insulin could greatly affect the status of a diabetic's health as aging occurs?

A)Increased sensitivity to insulin due to long term aerobic training
B)Decreased sensitivity to insulin due to long term aerobic training
C)Greater rate of insulin secretion
D)Increased cooperation between insulin and other hormones within the endocrine system

Question 20

What is the most commonly recommended daily intake of carbohydrates for non-performance individuals?

A)15-20 grams per kilogram of body weight
B)8-10 grams per kilogram of body weight
C)5-6 grams per kilogram of body weight
D)2-3 grams per kilogram of body weight

Question 21

What is the recommended dietary allowance for male and female adults for calcium (in milligrams per day)?

A)500
B)800
C)1000
D)2000

Question 22

What is it called when the body experiences a relaxing effect due to a cascade of certain events catalyzed by exercise?

A)Thermodynamic effect
B)Thermogenic effect
C)Calming effect
D)Tryptophan effect

Question 23

Which of the following is not advisable for effective goal setting with a fitness client?

A)Goals need to be rigid and fixed in order to be able to effectively measure their success.
B)Check to see if the client feels like the goals are successfully being met.
C)Prioritize the client's goals by choosing three to focus on first.
D)Determine what short-term steps are necessary to accomplish long-term goals.

Question 24

What has the most impact on raising a client's self-efficacy?

A)Achieving success
B)Meeting milestones
C)Competing against peers
D)Feel overall improved health

Question 25

What risk factor for coronary artery disease results in vascular injury and increased vascular wall stress?

A)Hypercholesterolemia
B)Hypertension
C)Cigarette smoking
D)Obesity

Question 26

Which of the following terms refer's to a test's ability to consistently repeat the same results?

A)Reliability
B)Validity
C)Relevance
D)Repeatability

Question 27

Which of the following should a client not engage in prior to performing assessment tests with a personal trainer?

A)Moderate food intake 2-4 hrs before testing
B)Partaking of chemicals that affect heart rate (non-medically)
C)Adequate hydration
D)Resting for 6-8 hrs of sleep the night before testing is to occur

Question 28

What is an aneroid sphygmomanometer used to detect?

A)Pulse
B)Heart beats
C)Temperature
D)Blood pressure

Question 29

Which of the following is not a measure of body composition?

A)Body Mass index
B)Bioelectrical impedance
C)Near-infrared interactance
D)Weight

Question 30

What test has been traditionally used to assess a future risk of developing lower back pain?

A)Push-up test
B)YMCA bench press test
C)Astrand-Rhyming test
D)Sit and reach

Question 31

Which condition below can lead to problems in a flexibility training program?

A)Menopause
B)Hyperlaxity
C)Hypertension
D)Arthritis

Question 32

Which of the following is an example of a dynamic flexibility movement?

A)Butterfly
B)Lunge walk
C)Semistraddle
D)Back extension

Question 33

What is the safest location to provide spotting during overhead or over-the-face free weight exercises?

A)Wrist
B)Elbow
C)Forearm
D)Upper arm

Question 34

Which of the following statements regarding hydration during exercise is not true?

A)Exercise can blunt the thirst mechanism.
B)Water makes the quickest transition from the digestive tract into tissues, as compared to energy and electrolyte drinks.
C)The most important time to hydrate is just prior to commencing exercise.
D)Adequate hydration helps reduce the body core temperature, heart rate and level of perceived exertion.

Question 35

What could be the result of poor positioning on the stationary bike wherein the hips rock and the extended leg locks?

A)Knee and back pain
B)Strained muscles in the thigh area
C)Hyperextension of the foot (plantar flexion)
D)Overuse injury

Question 36

What is the result of a slow overstride in running?

A)Greater speed
B)Less speed
C)More impact
D)Less impact

Question 37

Which of the following is not a program design variable?

A)Rest
B)Frequency
C)Challenge
D)Repetitions

Question 38

What specific type of core exercise involves placing axial stress on the spine and uses the muscles of the torso to keep the body posture upright?

A)Postural
B)Structural
C)Power
D)Assistance

Question 39

Which of the following does a trainer utilize when she exercises within a workout to minimize the impact of one exercise on the ability to properly perform subsequent ones?

A)Arrangement
B)Technique prioritizing
C)Order
D)Planning

Question 40

What is one way to test a client's strength and repetition maximum using body weight?

A)Repetition maximum
B)Load
C)Goal repetition
D)Trial load

Question 41

Your client can perform 2 more repetitions than the repetition goal on the last set for 2 consecutive sessions. According to the 2-for-2 rule, what does this indicate?

A)Maximum effort is not being exerted.
B)Repetitions should be increased gradually throughout all sets.
C)Repetitions should be increased immediately throughout all sets.
D)Load should be increased in all sets of that exercise the next session.

Question 42

What is the Karvonen formula used to calculate?

A)Heart rate reserve based on age-predicted max heart rate
B)Heart rate reserve based on resting heart rate
C)Heart rate reserve based on resting heart rate and age-predicted max heart rate
D)Heart rate reserve based on age-predicted max heart rate and target heart rate

Question 43

Which of the following is not a major advantage of interval training for aerobic endurance?

A)It can be performed in quick sessions.
B)It increases recovery time.
C)It burns a lot of calories per workout.
D)It allows more work to be performed.

Question 44

What occurs when the amortization phase is too long?

A)The energy becomes dissipated as heat.
B)The muscle action becomes even stronger.
C)The concentric phase becomes equally as long.
D)The muscle activity of the next phase increases.

Question 45

What types of specific preparatory actions should be taken prior to commencing plyometric training?

A)Warming up all muscle to be involved
B)Prior participation on some sort of resistance training
C)Properly hydrating
D)Being cleared for activity by a physician

Question 46

Which of the following correctly describes the position of the foot upon leaving the ground during a sprint?

A)The height of the foot decreases with increased speed.
B)The foot moves directly toward the buttock while remaining plantar-flexed.
C)The foot moves in an arc upward as high as the forward hip is during full extension.
D)The foot is dorsiflexed and moves directly towards the buttocks.

Question 47

Which of the following is the correct term for muscle loss at the rate of up to 1 pound per year after age 50?

A)Sarcopenia
B)Muscle myopathy
C)Rheumatoid arthritis
D)Myelin atrophy

Question 48

Which of the following statements is true regarding preadolescents?

A)Children as young as 6 have shown benefit from resistance training.
B)Resistance training could damage the epiphyseal plate and case stunted growth.
C)Children lack sufficient amounts of circulating androgens to benefit from cardiovascular training.
D)Cardiorespiratory adaptations are more noticeable in adolescents than in adults.

Question 49

What body type is likely indicative of increased risk for type 2 diabetes and coronary disease?

A)Hour glass shaped
B)Equally distributed obesity
C)Gynoid obesity
D)Android obesity

Question 50

Which of the following is true of a well-designed progressive program that would be appropriate for an obese person with a sedentary lifestyle?

A)Short but intense workouts initially will kick-start their weight loss.
B)Increasing the tasks of daily living will have a negligible affect.
C)Moderately challenging exercises will best motivate this client to continue.
D)A slow, progressive approach will help reduce chance of injury due to extreme deconditioning.

Question 51

Which exercise would not be appropriate to help reduce the weight-bearing stress of exercise on an obese client?

A)Hiking
B)Water aerobics
C)Step aerobics
D)Deep water running

Question 52

What interrelated conditions are indicative of the female athlete triad?

A)Disordered eating, hair loss and extreme weight loss
B)Disordered eating, amenorrhea and osteoporosis
C)Amenorrhea, osteoporosis and extreme weight loss
D)Rheumatoid arthritis, osteoporosis and amenorrhea

Question 53

What value below indicates an acceptable and healthy level for total cholesterol?

A)200-499 mg/dL
B)200-239 mg/dL
C)Under 200 mg/dL
D)Under 150 mg/dL

Question 54

Which of the following is not a term that describes the combination of cardiac risk factors and abdominal obesity?

A)Syndrome Z
B)Dyslipidemic hypertension
C)Insulin resistance syndrome
D)Metabolic syndrome

Question 55

Which of the following indicates that a diabetic client should stop exercising and should not resume workouts without a doctor's release?

A)Blood glucose under 250 mg/dL
B)Blood glucose over 250 mg/dL and ketones in urine
C)Mild kidney disease
D)Any signs of peripheral neuropathy

Question 56

Into what blood pressure stage and risk group would a client be placed who has a BP reading of 132/86 mmHg and diabetes?

A)Stage 2, group B
B)Stage 2, group C
C)Stage 1, group C
D)High normal, group C

Question 57

What occurs when the collagen cap associated with an area of plaque ruptures and is sent downstream?

A)Plaque will build up in the vessel and decrease normal flow.
B)The body's immune system will attack the cap and destroy it.
C)A sudden event such as myocardial infarction or cerebrovascular accident
D)Sudden death

Question 58

What biological repair function will naturally limit activity level in an injured client?

A)Inflammation
B)Scarring
C)Remodeling
D)Sarcopenia

Question 59

What type of tissue injury is an actual tear to the muscle fibers?

A)Tendonitis
B)Strain
C)Sprain
D)Contusion

Question 60

The spinal twist is a contraindicated exercise for which type of spinal injury?

A)Muscle strain
B)Disc injury
C)Spondylolysis
D)Sciatica

Question 61

Which of the following commonly causes common knee pains described by personal training clients?

A)Chondromalacia
B)Spondylolysis
C)Tendinopathy
D)Patellar macrotrauma

Question 62

What disease or condition may be indicated by muscle atrophy, periarticular nodules and joint ankylosis?

A)Lupus
B)Rheumatoid arthritis
C)Osteoarthritis
D)Myofibril degeneration

Question 63

Which of the following is an immune disorder that manifests as inflammation and degeneration of the myelin sheath of nerves?

A)Lupus
B)Multiple Sclerosis
C)Crohn's disease
D)Muscular dystrophy

Question 64

Which type of multiple sclerosis involves frequent flare-ups with long periods of stability in between?

A)Benign
B)Classical relapse-remitting
C)Chronic-relapsing
D)Chronic progressive

Question 65

What type of seizure results in no loss of consciousness and has motor, cognitive and sensory effects?

A)Petit mal
B)Grand mal
C)Simple
D)Myoclonic

Question 66

What can be accomplished by altering the volume and intensity variables of well-chosen exercises?

A)Periodization
B)Hypertrophy
C)Strength improvement
D)Specificity overload

Question 67

Which of the following facilitates greater gains in a muscle group, taking into account adaptation?

A)Sticking to sport-specific exercises
B)Choosing exercises that will moderately challenge the client
C)Varying the exercises within a muscle group
D)Using the same exercises consistently for long term benefit

Question 68

In a non-linear periodization program, what training variables are altered?

A)Intensity and volume
B)Intensity
C)Volume
D)Duration

Question 69

Which of the following is not a significant consideration when placing equipment in an exercise facility?

A)Enough space to safely perform the exercise
B)Full visual access to a mirror so participants can monitor their form
C)Maximizing traffic flow
D)Enough space for personal trainers to interact with clients using equipment

Question 70

Which of the following is not a contract likely to be used by a personal trainer?

A)Releases
B)Waivers
C)Informed consent
D)Description of classes

Question 71

What legal doctrine allows a personal trainer's facility or manager to also be held liable for negligence?

A)Habeus corpus
B)Respondeat superior
C)Responsitory negligence
D)Respondeat proxy

Question 72

Which of the following is not included in the six standards published by the American College of Sports Medicine?

A)Pre-activity screening
B)Compliance with laws, regulations and published standards
C)Facility signage
D)Records and record-keeping

Question 73

What statement regarding a first aid kit is true?

A)The kit should be reviewed monthly in order to ascertain completeness and compliance with the list of contents.
B)Kits may be kept behind the counter where a staff member is always available to produce it if necessary.
C)CDC and OSHA guidelines are only recommendation for disease prevention.
D)A facility needs to have one complete and fully stocked kit available at a central location.

Question 74

Which form of business for a personal trainer provides some protection from personal liability for business expenses and possible litigation?

A)Corporation
B)Sole proprietorship
C)Partnership
D)Independent contractor

Question 75

What is a very effective way of marketing personal training services, no matter the location?

A)Newspaper advertising
B)Hiring a marketing agency
C)Targeting effective advertising words to the desired market population
D)Direct mailing