Deck 7: HR

Question 1

A hospital or medical center with which accreditation best attracts, and retains, qualified nurses according to current research?

A)Joint Commission on the Accreditation of Healthcare Organizations (JCAHO) accreditation
B)U.S. News and World Report's Top 100 American Hospitals accreditation
C)Premier Healthcare's Leading Benchmark Hospitals accreditation
D)The American Nurses Credentialing Center's (ANCC) Magnet Hospital accreditation

Answer 1

The American Nurses Credentialing Center's (ANCC) Magnet Hospital accreditation

Question 2

Which statement regarding recruitment is accurate?

A)The recruitment process begins when a job vacancy occurs or is anticipated.
B)Employee referral programs are effective recruitment tools.
C)Using professional recruitment companies is a failsafe recruitment method.
D)Recruitment efforts have little effect on retention rates over time.

Answer 2

Employee referral programs are effective recruitment tools.

Question 3

What kinds of data are minimally analyzed during the screening phase of the recruitment process?

A)Time in motion studies and outsourcing possibilities
B)EEO requirements and other legal requirements
C)Job applications and literacy testing
D)Curriculum vitae and job applications

Answer 3

Curriculum vitae and job applications

Question 4

Which kinds of interview questions elicit the most beneficial information during the screening and selection process?

A)Personal preference questions
B)Close ended questions
C)Open ended questions
D)Philosophic questions

Question 5

Which interview question is beneficial, legal and ethical?

A)Do you have a reliable car that will get you to work on time?
B)Tell me about your greatest weaknesses.
C)Does your spouse take time off from work when the children are ill?
D)What are your religious preferences and practices?

Question 6

A successful interviewer observes and assesses which of the following?

A)The quality and price range of the person's attire
B)Behaviors and the substance of the person's responses to questions
C)Only the substance of the person's responses to questions
D)Social status and esthetic competency

Question 7

You are interviewing a registered nurse to manage the ICU within your department. The registered nurse asks a lot of questions during the interview. These questions revolve around the medical center's philosophy, staffing and performance improvement activities. How should these questions, and this questioning, affect your selection of this registered nurse?

A)These questions and this questioning should be considered desirable traits.
B)These questions and this questioning are not considered desirable traits.
C)These questions and this questioning are disruptive to the interview process.
D)These questions and this questioning are close ended and not helpful to you.

Question 8

Which of the following describes "onboarding"?

A)Hiring people from within the organization for new jobs
B)Socialization to the organization and the department
C)Upward mobility career ladders
D)Selecting staff from within the immediate geographic area

Question 9

Which is a good source of diverse and pertinent information that should be used during the screening process?

A)The subjective comments of professional references
B)Prior community service records
C)A resume or curriculum vitae
D)A credit report and a bank account statement

Question 10

Criminal background checks:

A)Are done by states and the FBI.
B)Are only done by the FBI.
C)Should not guide the selection process.
D)Are not legal except in health care.

Question 11

License verification is the responsibility of:

A)Both the employee and the employer.
B)The employee.
C)The employer.
D)The state where the nurse lives.

Question 12

Your state maintains a license verification system that the public can view online. Among other things that can be seen online is a history of any professional disciplinary action. When you are deciding on whether or not to hire a nurse, you go to the website and see that the candidate has a history of disciplinary actions, all of which have been resolved by the state and the nurse. You should:

A)Not take these disciplinary actions into consideration because they have been resolved.
B)Not take these disciplinary actions into consideration because it is illegal to do so.
C)Take these disciplinary actions into consideration because they are pertinent and important.
D)Take these disciplinary actions into consideration because it is legal to do so.

Question 13

After you have interviewed a number of candidates to fill a nursing assistant vacancy, you have eliminated all but 2 candidates for this job. One is a male and the other is a female. You should select:

A)The most qualified regardless of gender.
B)The male because males are stronger than females.
C)The female because most CNAs are females.
D)The youngest candidate regardless of gender.

Question 14

The primary goal of new employee orientation for nursing staff is to:

A)Ensure that all new employees are fully competent in all aspects of their job.
B)Teach and evaluate all basic and advanced nursing care skills and abilities.
C)Meet Joint Commission on the Accreditation of Healthcare Organizations standards.
D)Provide new employees with the necessary knowledge and skills to begin their new role.

Question 15

The domains of learning that are utilized during orientation include the:

A)Organizational, departmental and job specific domains.
B)Equipment, soft skills and technical specific domains.
C)Psychomotor, affective and cognitive domains.
D)Assessment, planning, implementation and evaluation domains.

Question 16

The best method(s) to teach a cognitive skills during orientation is (are) using:

A)Independent reading material and a lecture.
B)A video tape showing the use of defibrillator.
C)Discussions and demonstrations.
D)A computer program that tests CPR knowledge and skills.

Question 17

What teaching/learning principles are used in orientation?

A)Interdisciplinary
B)Multidisciplinary
C)Pedagogy
D)Andragogy

Question 18

The best way to evaluate a nurse's psychomotor skill is to:

A)Use a competency checklist that contains the skill.
B)Ask the nurse if they feel competent to perform the skill.
C)Test the nurse with a well written multiple choice exam.
D)Observe the nurse's return demonstration of the skill.

Question 19

Which of the following people do NOT need an orientation?

A)Volunteers in the coffee shop
B)Student nurses
C)Agency staff
D)None. All of the above must be oriented

Question 20

The general, or organization wide, portion of the orientation should cover what content and competency assessment?

A)A tour of the intensive care areas
B)The correct performance of CPR
C)The proper use of a fire extinguisher
D)All performance improvement studies

Question 21

Preceptorships:

A)Are best suited for experienced nurses only.
B)Are highly effective for new graduate nurses.
C)Are not acceptable in critical care areas.
D)Have little effect on competency and retention.

Question 22

The most effective and accurate way to evaluate an orientation is to analyze data that is obtained:

A)From orientee feedback relating to the content, manner of presentation and satisfaction.
B)By comparing the structure of the orientation to established JCAHO standards.
C)By comparing the orientation processes to established JCAHO standards.
D)By measuring the outcomes of the orientation in terms of competency and retained competency.

Question 23

Which fact about orientation is valid?

A)The duration of orientation must be at least one month.
B)Computer based, self-paced orientation content is not acceptable.
C)Initial competency can be evaluated using simulation.
D)Independent study, self-paced orientation content is not acceptable.

Question 24

You have hired a person for your nursing department who will be doing project management. The person that you selected for this job was the administrative assistant in the pharmacy department. What type of orientation will this new hire need?

A)The same orientation that others, new to the facility, get
B)A complete orientation to their new department and their new job
C)An abbreviated orientation to their new department new job
D)Only an orientation to their new job

Question 25

When does the orientation process end?

A)When the orientee is competent
B)Within one month
C)Within one week
D)Within 3 months

Question 26

Which of the following statements about conflict is true?

A)Conflict is a detrimental occurrence that should be avoided.
B)Conflicts occur as the result of intrapersonal forces,
C)Conflicts can always be resolved with appropriate strategies.
D)Change is always accompanied with conflict.

Question 27

What are the phases of conflict and the conflict resolution processes?

A)Anger, denial, depression and acceptance
B)Anger, denial, conceptualization and acceptance
C)Frustration, conceptualization, action and outcomes
D)Frustration, denial, anger and outcomes

Question 28

The members of your department are having conflicts regarding the best way to care for a particular patient, or patient population. What type of conflict is impacting your department?

A)Interpersonal conflict
B)Organizational conflict
C)Intrapersonal conflict
D)Originating conflict

Question 29

What emotion arises when a group or individual perceives that their values, beliefs, goals and priorities are blocked?

A)Anger
B)Apathy
C)Resignation
D)Frustration

Question 30

Which of the following statements about conflict resolution is accurate?

A)Few nurse managers avoid conflict and even fewer choose inaction.
B)The best way to avoid conflict and its deleterious effects is to follow policies and procedures
C)Hostility and anger increase as a function of time when effective resolution strategies are not undertaken
D)Hostility, frustration and anger decrease as a function of time even when effective resolution strategies are not undertaken

Question 31

Which of these conflict resolution modes, or methods, is both assertive and cooperative?

A)Negotiating
B)Avoiding
C)Accommodating
D)Apathy

Question 32

Which outcome can be expected when a nurse manager employs the competing or coercing mode of conflict resolution to address a conflict that is affecting the department?

A)Department members become willing to self sacrifice for the good of the group.
B)Department members will assume win -lose stances and stalemates may result.
C)Assertive and cooperative behaviors emerge among the department members.
D)Long standing apathy and resignation will occur among department members.

Question 33

Which theory, or model, is useful to the understanding of the factors that impact on a challenging conflict?

A)The Polarity Management model
B)Lewin's field theory
C)Spradley's change theory
D)Carl Rogers' humanistic model

Question 34

What force impacts upon the conceptualization phase of the conflict process?

A)Blocked goals
B)Lack of clarity about differences
C)Degrees of frustration
D)Organizational interference

Question 35

A conflict about scheduling and staffing has been resolved effectively in your department. Can you expect any benefits relating to this conflict other than resolving the staffing and scheduling challenge?

A)No, conflict has no beneficial outcomes because staff has had unnecessary frustration.
B)No, the only benefit of conflict resolution is resolving the conflict and reducing stress.
C)Yes, conflict resolution gives us the opportunity to more fully understand different points of view.
D)Yes, conflict resolution gives us an opportunity to more fully support the department's mission.

Question 36

Which mode of conflict resolution is appropriate when an immediate and decisive action must be initiated?

A)Accommodating
B)Competing
C)Collaborating
D)Confronting

Question 37

Which conflict related theory is credited to Fisher and Ury?

A)Getting to Yes
B)Saying No to No
C)Field theory
D)Humanistic Management theory

Question 38

The continuous process of obtaining the qualifications, skills and experiences to advance and progress in one's career is:

A)Staff development.
B)Professional development.
C)Empowerment.
D)Continuing education.

Question 39

A staff nurse in your department has recently obtained ANCC Certification in Nursing Case Management. What process is this nurse engaging in?

A)Self development
B)Continuing education
C)Multifunctional development
D)Professional development

Question 40

Which of the following is a valid professional development activity?

A)Personal reflection
B)Learning about a new piece of equipment
C)Orientation to emergency patient care
D)A review of AHA CPR procedures

Question 41

Magnet hospitals, and the ANCC Magnet certification processes, recognize the importance of professional development. What evidence could be viewed as an organizational commitment to professional development?

A)Merit awards
B)A career ladder
C)Longevity awards
D)Performance based competency

Question 42

Your hospital has RN levels from #1 to #4 that reflect increasing complexities of RN roles. What kind of human resources program is this?

A)A longevity based career ladder
B)A Six Sigma system career ladder
C)A staff retention career ladder
D)A professional development career ladder

Question 43

What is the definition of empowerment?

A)Empowerment is sharing information, power and decision making.
B)Empowerment is the process that nursing supervisors use to negotiate.
C)Empowerment is the process that nurses use to plan patient teaching.
D)Empowerment is flattening the hierarchical organizational structures.

Question 44

Which fact relating to professional development is the most accurate and true?

A)Professional development is a multidisciplinary responsibility.
B)Professional development is a personal responsibility.
C)Professional development is an organizational responsibility.
D)Professional development is a personal and organizational responsibility.

Question 45

You are planning to begin a career ladder program for your department. One of the things that you must decide is how nurses will apply for upward mobility and what kinds of information is necessary for your review of the submitted applications. What information is the most important to you during this application review process?

A)Length of employment in your department
B)Seniority and attitudes toward advancement
C)Research and community group memberships
D)A résumé and any special project completion

Question 46

Which criteria reflects the highest level of personal development?

A)The nurse actively collaborates with patients and families.
B)The nurse participates in the Nursing Safety Committee.
C)The nurse participates in the medical center's Safety Committee.
D)The nurse initiates the formation of a falls prevention work group.

Question 47

Which professional development strategy is best defined as an ongoing relationship with a particular person who is more knowledgeable than yourself to develop your whole person?

A)Preceptorship
B)Mentorship
C)Community networks
D)ANCC certification

Question 48

Which of the following statements relating to mentorships is accurate?

A)Nurses should always seek a mentor that is external to the work environment.
B)The best mentors are those who remain with a protégée regardless of their level of development.
C)Mentorships, like preceptorships, are effective for technical skills acquisition during orientation.
D)Accompanying, sowing and showing are recognized as useful mentorship techniques.

Question 49

Mentorship models include:

A)The Accompanying, Sowing and Showing models
B)Callista Roy's and Orem's models.
C)The Cloning and Nurturing models
D)The ANCC Magnet Mentorship model.

Question 50

Which type of coaching is integral to professional development?

A)Career coaching
B)Life coaching
C)Directive coaching
D)Nondirective coaching

Question 51

You feel that you will greatly benefit from a mentor. You should select a mentor who:

A)Meets your developmental needs.
B)Works within your own facility.
C)Has at least a master's degree.
D)Has a PhD in nursing.

Question 52

Which style of leadership and decision making is indicated during an emergency or severe crisis?

A)Autocratic
B)Democratic
C)Participative
D)Laissez - faire

Question 53

Which is a disadvantage of democratic leadership?

A)It is often filled with conflict.
B)It leads to indecision.
C)It is often not beneficial.
D)It is time consuming.

Question 54

When is laissez -faire leadership indicated?

A)When time constraints prohibit democratic
B)Only when possible decisions have no consequences
C)When team members are able to function independently
D)Never.

Question 55

What are the phases of group process?

A)Problem identification, analysis and synthesis
B)Problem identification, analysis and resolution
C)Forming, storming, challenging and performing
D)Forming, storming, norming and performing

Question 56

You are the chairperson for the medical center's Falls Prevention Committee. This Committee was formed a month ago. You notice that the committee members are pleasantly engaging others and there are no signs of conflict. What should you do as the chair of this Committee?

A)Know that groups must be conflict free in order to be productive
B)Know that groups must always be pleasant in order to be productive
C)Lead the group through this forming stage because it is expected in newly forming groups
D)Lead the group through this norming stage because it is expected in newly forming groups

Question 57

You are observing a work group and you notice that the team is able to come to a mutually agreed upon plan when some people in the group give up their own ideas and agree with other members in order to ensure the success of the group in terms of its goals. What should you conclude regarding this?

A)This plan results from desirable behaviors during the norming phase
B)Groups must have high degrees of conflict in order to be productive
C)People should never be forced to give up their own ideas
D)Know that groups must be conflict free in order to be productive

Question 58

Most external regulatory bodies require that some functions, like patient education, are multidisciplinary. What theory supports the advantages of multidisciplinary collaboration, cooperation, and functioning?

A)Collective subconsciousness
B)Collective bargaining
C)Synergy
D)Opposition theory

Question 59

Which phase of group development is characterized with autonomy, competency and high levels of motivation?

A)Forming
B)Norming
C)Peaking
D)Performing

Question 60

Which theory of planned change includes unfreezing, experiencing change and refreezing?

A)Lewin's Change theory
B)Havelock's Seven Phases of Change theory
C)Lippit's Six Phases of Change theory
D)Rogers' Innovative -Decision theory

Question 61

Which communication pitfall is best described as one that places a value, like good or bad, on group member's thoughts or beliefs?

A)Patronizing
B)False reassurance
C)Judging
D)Offensing

Question 62

The stages of the problem solving process in correct sequence are:

A)Problem definition, benchmark review, data analysis, gathering data, generating possible solutions, selecting the best possible solution, implementing the solution and evaluating the result of the implemented.
B)Problem definition, benchmark review, data analysis, gathering data, generating possible solutions, selecting the best possible solution, implementing the solution and evaluating the result of the implemented solution.
C)Problem definition, data analysis, gathering data, generating possible solutions, selecting the best possible solution, implementing the solution and evaluating the result of the implemented solution.
D)Problem definition, gathering data, data analysis, generating possible solutions, selecting the best possible solution, implementing the solution and evaluating the result of the implemented solution.

Question 63

A major role of a nursing leader is the motivation of staff. Which of the following is the MOST powerful motivator?

A)Salary
B)Employment benefits
C)Recognition
D)Staffing ratios

Question 64

Which of the following human resources policies has the potential to reflect and address the needs of nurses for esteem?

A)Vacation and personal time off
B)Fire and environmental safety
C)Longevity salary increases
D)ANCC certifications

Question 65

Which of David McClelland's motivational needs is most similar to Maslow's need for love and belonging?

A)Need for affiliation
B)Need for power
C)Need for success
D)Need for financial security

Question 66

Which type of team allows members to learn about the roles and responsibilities of others within the organization?

A)A marketing team
B)A silo based team
C)An informal work group
D)A cross functional team

Question 67

You are the nurse manager for the medical and surgical areas of your medical center. You have been characterized by superiors as an X theory manager. What does this mean in terms of your beliefs?

A)Staff welcome empowerment
B)Staff welcome strong leaders
C)Staff have an inherent dislike for work
D)Staff have an inherent belief that work is natural

Question 68

You believe that your staff are self motivated and able to accept responsibility and accountability. What kind of manager are you?

A)A " Y" manager
B)A " X" manager
C)An autocratic manager
D)A democratic manager

Question 69

A performance management plan is best defined as a:

A)Formal framework underlying all human resources functions.
B)Formal framework underlying all performance improvement functions.
C)Formal process that enables organizations to empower employees and to improve their behaviors to improvement their effectiveness and efficiency.
D)Formal process that enables organizations to align resources, including human resources, or employees, to the strategic plan, goals and priorities.

Question 70

What statement about performance appraisal is accurate in healthcare environments?

A)Performance appraisal is typically informal and consisting of subjective comments about an individual's attitudes.
B)Performance appraisal is typically formal and consisting of subjective, narrative comments about an individual's attitudes.
C)It can be formal or informal and it should be done on a continuous basis.
D)It is a formal, systematic process that should be done on an annual basis.

Question 71

What of the following is a structured performance appraisal tool?

A)Peer review anecdotal records
B)A forced distribution scale
C)A Management by Objectives tool
D)A behaviorally anchored rating scales

Question 72

What is a potential disadvantage of the forced distribution method of performance appraisal?

A)Loss of group cohesiveness
B)It is a very time consuming method
C)Ineffectiveness, as based on research
D)All employees are rated about the same

Question 73

One advantage of structured performance appraisal tools over flexible performance appraisal tools is that structured performance tools are:

A)More collaborative and participative.
B)Less costly and less time consuming to construct.
C)The only methods that are endorsed by JCAHO.
D)The only tools that can be effective in terms of performance.

Question 74

You are considering using peer review performance evaluation in your department. Some of the things that you must consider during this decision making process includes:

A)Aggregated performance improvement data
B)Negative budgetary variances
C)Positive budgetary variances
D)Unit stability

Question 75

Which of the following measurement methods is considered a flexible performance appraisal, or management, method?

A)Behaviorally anchored rating scales
B)Graphic rating scales
C)Flexible rating scales
D)A Likert-type rating scale

Question 76

You will be having a performance management session with a high performing member of your staff. What skill should you use during this session?

A)Behavior management
B)Reprimand
C)Unilateral communication
D)Coaching

Question 77

Performance appraisal should be:

A)Subjective and fair.
B)Objective and fair,
C)Both subjective and objective.
D)Time limited.

Question 78

One of the best ways to evaluate performance is to:

A)Use the components of the job description. or position description, for measurable criteria.
B)Use the staff members' self appraisals of performance as the only source of data for the evaluation.
C)Provide an environment that is comfortable, relaxed and filled with close ended questions.
D)Is to do it on an annual basis and then to do it every two years after initial employment.

Question 79

Which competency skill must be, most likely, assessed and documented annually for all the registered nurses in a medical or surgical area using direct supervisory observation?

A)The use of a defibrillator
B)Nursing assessment
C)Discharge planning
D)Patient education

Question 80

You have valid performance improvement (PI) data that supports the fact that central lines are being properly cared for in your special care areas. How would you assess RN competency in terms of the care of central lines?

A)Set up a simulation and assess each RN's competency in terms of central line care.
B)Arrange for all staff to call you before their central line care so you can directly observe them.
C)You can deem the RN staff as competent because your PI data indicates competency in this frequently used skill.
D)You can deem the RN staff as competent because your PI data indicates competency in this rarely used skill.