Deck 2: Problems

Question 1

A child with aortic stenosis has aortic regurgitation, and the physician has recommended valve replacement surgery. His parents want to know which aortic valve prosthesis is best for their child. What type of valve would be best in this case?

A)Mechanical valve
B)Bioprosthetic valve
C)Pulmonary autograft
D)Aortic homograft

Answer 1

Pulmonary autograft

Question 2

Which surgical procedure is used as a bridge to aortic valve replacement surgery in critically ill patient with end-stage aortic stenosis?

A)Commissurotomy
B)Balloon valvuloplasty
C)Aortotomy
D)Debridement

Answer 2

Balloon valvuloplasty

Question 3

A pregnant patient is diagnosed with mitral stenosis. An echocardiogram shows that the valve cusps are pliable, there is minimal chordal thickening, and no subvalvular thickening or calcification. Which treatment option is suitable for her?

A)Open mitral commissurotomy
B)Percutaneous balloon valvuloplasty
C)Medical management
D)Valve replacement

Answer 3

Percutaneous balloon valvuloplasty

Question 4

An 80-year-old male who has diabetes is scheduled for CABG surgery. There is a 70 % obstruction in the left main coronary artery, a 60% obstruction in the right coronary artery, and depressed ventricular function. Which of the following is not a factor that increases this patient's risk for mortality associated with CABG surgery?

A)Older age
B)Left main disease
C)Diabetes
D)Male gender

Question 5

Why is cardioplegia used during cardiac surgery?

A)It provides a bloodless field for surgery
B)Stopping the heart facilitates precise surgical technique
C)It reduces the oxygen demand of the heart by almost 90%
D)It allows the anesthetic medications to work on heart

Question 6

What are the contraindications of percutaneous transluminal angioplasty of the lower extremity?

A)Hypertensive patients who have poor ventricular function
B)Dyslipidemia
C)Patients who are medically unstable or have diabetes, an arterial occlusion that has been present for a long time, poor distal run off
D)Status post coronary angioplasty

Question 7

Which of the following is the correct follow-up protocol for a patient who has had PCTA of the carotid artery?

A)Doppler ultrasound and magnetic resonance imaging every 6 months
B)Examination 1-week post-procedure to check neurological status, Doppler ultrasound every 3 to 6 months then every year, magnetic resonance imaging 3 months post-procedure
C)Echocardiography, Doppler ultrasound 1 week post-procedure and then every 6 months
D)Echocardiography, Doppler ultrasound and magnetic resonance imaging at 1 week post-procedure and then every year

Question 8

Which of the following is not true about aneurysms?

A)Aneurysms are blood-filled dilation of blood vessels caused by heart disease or weakening of blood vessel wall
B)Aneurysms occur only in elderly patients and can never be present in young patients
C)Risk of developing aneurysm increases with age
D)Aneurysms are most common in the intracranial vessels

Question 9

Which of the following statements is correct about aneurysms?

A)Aneurysms affect all ethnic groups equally
B)Aneurysms are most common in aorta
C)Aneurysms are common in younger age groups
D)Abdominal aneurysms are more common in men, and uncommon in African Americans.

Question 10

Which of these drugs may be used to treat aneurysms?

A)Anti-hypertensives, anti-coagulants, anti-arrhythmic agents
B)Anti-hypertensives, anti-diabetics, anti-platelet agents
C)Anti-hypertensives, anti-anginals, vasodilators
D)Anti-hypertensives, diuretics, antibiotics

Question 11

Which of the following options can be used to prevent the development of aneurysm?

A)Regular use of aspirin, taking proper rest and ensuring enough sleep
B)Proper control of blood pressure, avoid smoking, avoid straining, maintain proper cholesterol level, exercise regularly
C)Regular anticoagulation and maintain proper cholesterol level
D)Proper control of blood pressure and use of stimulant drugs

Question 12

Which of the following risk factors of aneurysm cannot be prevented?

A)Young age, uncontrolled diabetes mellitus
B)Hypertension, hypercoagulable state,
C)Atherosclerotic disease, dyslipidemia
D)Family history of aneurysm, age over 50

Question 13

Which of the following factors puts an individual at increased risk of atherosclerotic disease?

A)Increased physical activity, low body mass index, decreased low-density lipoprotein (LDL) cholesterol
B)Increased low-density lipoprotein (LDL) cholesterol, decreased high-density lipoprotein (HDL) cholesterol, obesity, lack of physical activity
C)Family history of atherosclerotic disease, increased high-density lipoprotein (HDL) cholesterol
D)Obesity, low triglyceride levels

Question 14

Which of the following conditions are not manifestations of atherosclerotic disease?

A)Coronary heart disease, myocardial ischemia and myocardial infarction
B)Cerebrovascular insufficiency, stroke
C)Peripheral vascular disease, limb ischemia
D)Deep vein thrombosis, pulmonary embolism

Question 15

Which of the following pharmacological agents are used for treatment of atherosclerotic disease?

A)Statins, , aspirin, clopidogrel
B)Beta-blockers, aspirin, warfarin
C)Calcium channel blockers, warfarin, clopidogrel
D)Angiotensin converting enzyme inhibitors, statins, aspirin

Question 16

The 3 domains of adult learning include which of the following?

A)Cognitive learning, sensory learning, motor learning,
B)Cognitive learning, psychomotor learning, affective learning
C)Psychomotor learning, psychosocial learning, behavioral learning
D)Cognitive learning, psychosocial learning, motor learning

Question 17

Which educational tool is most appropriate for a patient with reduced visual acuity?

A)Computerized instruction
B)Video
C)Audio tape/CDs
D)Pamphlets

Question 18

A 70-year-old male patient is undergoing carotid endarterectomy. The surgeon wants to assess the patient's cerebral blood flow during the procedure. Which modalities may be used for this purpose?

A)Echocardiogram and electroencephalogram
B)Doppler study and electroencephalogram
C)Ultrasonography and electroencephalogram
D)Magnetic resonance imaging and electroencephalogram

Question 19

Which of these investigations should be used to assess for restenosis after carotid endarterectomy?

A)Carotid angiogram
B)Carotid ultrasound
C)Carotid Doppler
D)Any of the above can be used

Question 20

Which complications are associated with peripheral thrombectomy?

A)Vasospasm, bleeding, hematoma formation, congestive heart failure
B)Renal failure, rhabdomyolysis, vasospasm, hepatic damage
C)Edema, hyperkalemia, cardiac arrhythmia, renal failure, rhabdomyolysis
D)Vasospasm, thrombus formation, artery dissection, claudication

Question 21

Which of the following tests should be part of the pre-operative examination of patients who will be undergoing cardiac surgery?

A)Serum urea and creatinine levels, electrocardiogram, echocardiogram
B)Electrocardiogram, echocardiogram, chest x-ray, serum electrolytes
C)Serum potassium level, prothrombin time, hematocrit, and serum creatinine level
D)Serum potassium level, prothrombin time, hematocrit, serum creatinine level, electrocardiogram, echocardiogram and a chest x-ray

Question 22

Cardiac transplantation was performed in a patient who had end-stage cardiovascular disease. What is the 10-year life expectancy of this patient?

A)More than five years
B)Less than 1 year
C)More than 1 year
D)Two years

Question 23

Pharmacologic agents used to prevent long-term complications in a patient after cardiac transplantation include the following:

A)Immunosuppressive agents, antihypertensives, and lipid lowering agents
B)Immunosuppressive agents, anticoagulants, and antibiotics
C)Immunosuppressive agents, anticoagulants, and diuretics
D)Immunosuppressive agents, anticoagulants, and antihypertensives

Question 24

What are the long-term complications associated with cardiac transplantation?

A)Hyperlipidemia, hypertension, valvular heart disease, renal failure
B)Infection, rejection, thromboembolic disease
C)Rejection, infection, hepatic damage
D)Transplant coronary artery disease, valvular heart disease, hypertension,

Question 25

A 65-year old male was diagnosed with a small aneurysm in an artery of his left lower limb. His father died of a ruptured of abdominal aneurysm. What are the treatments of choice for this patient?

A)Immediate surgical correction of the aneurysm
B)Risk factor modification and regular screening
C)No treatment is needed
D)Regular screening only

Question 26

A 40-year-old male smoker complains of pain in his feet when walking, and weakness, swelling, discoloration, and ulcers on the digits. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A)Raynaud's disease
B)Buerger's disease
C)Vasculitis
D)Deep vein thrombosis

Question 27

A male smoker presents with pain in his extremities after exercise. Which of the following diseases need to be ruled out before considering a diagnosis of Buerger's disease?

A)Systemic lupus erythematosus, diabetes, hypercoagulable conditions, scleroderma
B)Bleeding disorders, dyslipidemia, systemic lupus erythematosus
C)Bleeding disorders, diabetes, hypertension, vasculitis
D)Hypercoagulable states, disorders of lipid metabolism, polyarteritis nodosa

Question 28

Which of the following criteria is most commonly used for diagnosis of Buerger's disease?

A)Age less than 45 years, history of smoking, ischemia in distal part of limb, consistent angiographic finding
B)Age more than 60 years, diabetic, smoker, ischemic symptoms and normal angiogram
C)Age less than 45 years, diabetic, non-smoker, symptoms of ischemia
D)Age more than 60 years, hypertensive, smoker, intermittent claudication

Question 29

Which of these medications is used to treat Raynaud's disease?

A)Calcium channel blockers, alpha blockers, vasodilators
B)Beta blockers, vasodilators, lipid lowering agents
C)Alpha blockers, lipid lowering agents, antioxidants
D)Calcium channel blockers, alpha and beta agonists

Question 30

Which of the following combinations of pharmacologic agents are used for treatment of dilated cardiomyopathy?

A)Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors, beta agonists, alpha blockers
B)Angiotensin-receptor blockers, antibiotics, immunosuppressants
C)Angiotensin-receptor blockers, alpha agonists, beta agonists
D)ACE inhibitors, angiotensin-receptor blockers, beta-blockers

Question 31

A patient presenting with features of renal failure has amyloidosis. He is at risk of developing which type of cardiomyopathy?

A)Restrictive cardiomyopathy
B)Dilated cardiomyopathy
C)Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy
D)Ischemic cardiomyopathy

Question 32

Which of the following pharmacologic agents will be useful in treatment of a patient who presents with symptoms of fatigue, shortness of breath, swelling of legs, rapid weight gain over several days, and signs of fluid overload?

A)Anti-diuretics, beta agonist, antihypertensives
B)Beta-blockers, lipid lowering agents, anticoagulants
C)Diuretics, ACE inhibitors, digoxin, beta-blockers
D)Diuretics, antianginals, heparin

Question 33

A patient presenting with symptoms of shortness of breath on exertion, swelling of the abdomen and extremities, decreased appetite, and nausea was diagnosed to have congestive heart failure. What should be the goal of treatment in this patient?

A)Controlling excess fluid accumulation, improving cardiac function, reducing cardiac workload
B)Control of symptoms, preventing complications, monitor for malignancies
C)Control of symptoms, monitoring renal and hepatic function
D)Increasing cardiac workload, lifestyle modification, reduce the risk of arrhythmias

Question 34

Which of the following mechanisms are not associated with development of cor pulmonale?

A)Pulmonary vasoconstriction
B)Pulmonary plethora
C)Primary pulmonary hypertension
D)Increased blood viscosity

Question 35

Which of the following is synonymous with metabolic syndrome?

A)Syndrome X
B)Familial hypercholesterolemia
C)Dysmetabolic syndrome
D)Hypertriglyceridemic waist

Question 36

A patient presenting with high blood glucose and high triglyceride level was diagnosed as having metabolic syndrome. Which of the following are risk factors for the development of metabolic syndrome?

A)Large waistline, high triglyceride levels, low high density lipoprotein level, hypertension, and hyperglycinemia
B)High triglyceride levels, low high density lipoprotein cholesterol
C)Hypertension, coronary artery disease and hyperglycemia
D)Hypertension, sedentary lifestyle, smoking

Question 37

A 45-year-old male patient has waist circumference of 105 cm. His blood examination shows fasting plasma glucose of 120mg/dL, triglyceride level of 180 mg/dL, and high-density lipid cholesterol 30 of mg/dL. He has been diagnosed as having metabolic syndrome. He is at risk of developing which of the following set of conditions?

A)Fatty liver, hepatitis, anxiety disorder
B)Liver cirrhosis, insomnia, cor pulmonale
C)Cardiomyopathy, hepatitis, pancreatitis
D)Fatty liver, gallstones and sleep apnea

Question 38

A hypertensive patient who has elevated serum cholesterol wants to get screened for endothelial dysfunction. Which of the following methods can be used for diagnostic screening of endothelial dysfunction?

A)Iontophoresis with acetylcholine, intra-arterial administration of vasoactive agents, localized heating of the skin, and temporary arterial occlusion using a blood pressure cuff
B)Iontophoresis with acetylcholine, intra-venous administration of vasoactive agents
C)Iontophoresis with acetylcholine, intra-venous administration of vasoactive agents, exposing the skin to cold
D)Iontophoresis with adrenaline, intra-arterial administration of vasoactive agents

Question 39

An obese adult female presents to the outpatient clinic. The attending nurse records her blood pressure as 136/ 86 mm Hg. According to The 2003 National Heart, Lung, and Blood Institute (NHLBI) guidelines, this patient will fall into which of the following categories?

A)Normal blood pressure
B)Prehypertension
C)Hypertension stage 1
D)Hypertension stage 2

Question 40

A patient suffers an acute myocardial infarction. Which of the following cells are not expected to be present in pathological examination of the myocardial tissue 7 days after the infarction?

A)Neutrophils
B)Macrophages
C)Monocytes
D)Fibroblasts

Question 41

An adolescent boy presents with complaints of chest pain that is exacerbated by coughing and deep breathing. During auscultation, the nurse finds that the patient's heart sounds are muffled. What is the most likely cause of his symptoms and the muffled heart sounds?

A)Dressler's syndrome
B)Aortic dissection
C)Myocardial infarction
D)Pericarditis

Question 42

Which of the following complications of pericarditis causes permanent thickening of the pericardium and interferes with the function of heart muscle?

A)Pericardial effusion
B)Constrictive pericarditis
C)Arrhythmia
D)Cardiac tamponade

Question 43

Which of the following set of conditions is not associated with vasculitis?

A)Behçet's syndrome, Buerger's syndrome, Churg-Strauss syndrome
B)Tuberculosis, amyloidosis, idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura
C)Henoch-Schönlein purpura, Kawasaki disease, microscopic polyangiitis
D)Polymyalgia rheumatica, Sjögren's syndrome, Takayasu's arteritis

Question 44

Which of the following pharmacologic agents are used in treatment of vasculitis?

A)Heparin, morphine, beta-blockers
B)Corticosteroids, azathioprine, heparin, aspirin
C)Corticosteroids, methotrexate, clopidogrel
D)Warfarin, morphine, enoxaparin

Question 45

An adult male complains of oliguria and red colored urine. His CT angiogram shows thrombosis of the renal vein. What should be the immediate goals of treatment for this patient?

A)Decrease the risk of clot formation, prevent progression of current clots, prevent embolization of formed clots
B)Prevent renal damage, dissolve the clots by thrombolytic medications
C)Prevent renal failure, use of anticoagulants
D)Control of hypertension, control of blood cholesterol

Question 46

A two-year-old child has frequent respiratory tract infections, poor weight gain, and lack of appetite. During auscultation the nurse hears a quiet ejection murmur at the left sternal border and a split second heart sound. Which of the following procedures would be useful in making a diagnosis?

A)Electrocardiogram, PET scan, ventilation-perfusion scan
B)Chest x-ray, echocardiography, magnetic resonance imaging
C)Electrocardiogram, CT scan, ultrasonography
D)Doppler flow study, thallium scan, ventriculography

Question 47

A patient who has swelling, pain, and warmth in his left leg is suspected to have deep vein thrombosis. Which of the following diagnostic modalities are helpful in establishing the presence of deep vein thrombosis (DVT)?

A)Pulse oximetry, CT angiogram, thallium scan
B)Ventilation perfusion scan, PET scan
C)Venography, arteriography, radionuclide study
D)Nuclear medicine imaging, magnetic resonance imaging, impedance plethysmography of leg, D-dimer blood test

Question 48

A patient is complaining of throbbing pain in, and discoloration of the skin of her legs and varicose veins. What are the possible complications if this patient is not treated?

A)Intermittent claudication, Raynaud's disease
B)Deep venous thrombosis, pulmonary embolism, venous ulcers
C)Vasculitis, thrombophlebitis, Raynaud's disease
D)Lymphangitis, skin cancer, gangrene

Question 49

Which of the following adverse effects do not match the treatment modalities used for venous insufficiency?

A)Sclerotherapy - allergic reaction, cutaneous necrosis
B)Surgical ablation - infection, peripheral nerve damage, and arterial injury
C)Radiofrequency ablation - skin burns, injury to adjacent tissues, and injury to deep veins
D)Endovenous laser therapy - allergic reaction, injury to deep arteries

Question 50

A girl whose mother has valvular heart disease is anxious to know if she has the disease. The diagnostic exam should look for:

A)Abnormal heart sounds such as murmur, evidence of heart failure, fluid accumulation in peripheral organs
B)Abnormal heart sounds such as murmur, evidence of heart enlargement, fluid buildup in the lungs
C)Abnormal heart sounds such as murmur, evidence of heart failure, evidence of calcification
D)Abnormal heart sounds such as murmur, evidence of infection, signs of volume overload

Question 51

The diagnostic work up for a patient who wants to be screened for presence of valvular heart disease should include which of the following diagnostic tools?

A)Electrocardiogram, echocardiography, chest x-ray
B)Electrocardiogram, stress echocardiography, chest CT
C)Electrocardiogram, treadmill test, Holter monitoring
D)Electrocardiogram, ambulatory blood pressure monitoring

Question 52

A nurse is caring for a patient who has mitral stenosis. The patient is being released after diagnostic work up and will be receiving medications. What is the role of medications in the treatment of mitral stenosis?

A)Medications are not used to treat mitral stenosis
B)Medications will not cure the condition, but relieve the symptoms and may prevent complications
C)Medications are used only in the first few weeks after the condition has been diagnosed.
D)Medications are used only several months after the condition has been diagnosed.

Question 53

What are the surgical treatments available for a patient who has mitral stenosis associated with mild mitral regurgitation?

A)Percutaneous balloon valvuloplasty
B)Valvotomy
C)Valve replacement
D)All of the above

Question 54

A patient complains of palpitations. The nurse records an EKG which shows varying and /or absent P waves, a varying R-R interval, fibrillatory waves, and a ventricular rate of 140/minute. What are the goals of treatment for this patient?

A)Controlling heart rate and ventricular response, restoring sinus rhythm, preventing complications such as thromboembolism
B)Controlling heart rate and ventricular rate, improving cardiac output
C)Controlling heart rate and ventricular rate, improving perfusion to vital organs
D)Controlling heart rate and ventricular rate, preventing end organ damage

Question 55

A patient who has mitral stenosis complains of dizziness, light headedness, and palpitations. The nurse record an EKG which shows an absence of P waves and an irregular R-R interval. Which of these drugs may be used in the treatment of this patient?

A)Beta agonist, clopidogrel, nitrates
B)Beta agonist, nitrates, nicorandil
C)Beta blockers, clopidogrel, ranolazine
D)Beta blockers, warfarin, digitalis

Question 56

The EKG of a patient complaining of dizziness, light headedness, and palpitations shows absent P waves and fibrillatory waves. Which of the following invasive approaches are not beneficial in treating this patient's arrhythmia?

A)Radiofrequency catheter ablation
B)Implantable cardioverter defibrillator
C)AV node ablation
D)Surgical maze procedure

Question 57

Which of the following statements is not true regarding cardiac arrhythmias?

A)Arrhythmias can cause a slow, rapid, or irregular heartbeat
B)Ventricular arrhythmias are never life-threatening
C)Supraventricular arrhythmias originate in the atria
D)Sick sinus syndrome can cause an arrhythmia

Question 58

Which of the following statements is not true for atrial fibrillation vs. atrial flutter?

A)Atrial flutter presents with a more organized and less chaotic abnormal heartbeat, compared to atrial fibrillation
B)In atrial flutter, the atrial rhythm is regular while in atrial fibrillation, the atrial rhythm is irregular
C)Atrial fibrillation cannot be treated with catheter ablation
D)Atrial flutter is not as life threatening as atrial fibrillation

Question 59

The nurse is caring for a patient who has had cardiac surgery, and the nurse notes that the chest tube drainage has decreased, and the patient has muffled heart sounds and pulsus paradoxus. Which of the following echocardiographic findings suggest a diagnosis of cardiac tamponade?

A)Exaggerated increase in left ventricular outflow tract velocity during inspiration
B)Exaggerated increase in mitral flow velocity during inspiration
C)Collapse of right ventricular outflow tract during early diastole
D)Exaggerated decrease in mitral flow velocity during inspiration

Question 60

Which of the following statements is true about Wolff-Parkinson-White syndrome?

A)Wolff-Parkinson-White syndrome occurs due to formation of abnormal conducting tissue in the heart
B)Wolff-Parkinson-White syndrome is common in elderly patients
C)Wolff-Parkinson-White syndrome occurs more commonly in women
D)Incidence of Wolff-Parkinson-White syndrome is highest in people of aged 60 to 70

Question 61

A young male presents with palpitations, shortness of breath, dizziness, and diaphoresis. His EKG shows a delta wave. Which other diagnostic tools are helpful in confirming the diagnosis of Wolff-Parkinson-White syndrome?

A)Holter monitor, event recorder, electrophysiological testing
B)Cardiac catheterization, CT angiography, echocardiography
C)Holter monitor, radionuclide study, echocardiography
D)Event recorder, echocardiography, thallium scan

Question 62

What is the most effective and curative approach for treatment for symptomatic Wolff-Parkinson-White syndrome?

A)Pharmacologic treatment with adenosine and procainamide
B)Radiofrequency catheter ablation
C)Surgical destruction of the accessory pathway
D)Alcohol ablation of accessory pathway

Question 63

Which of the following cardiac arrhythmias is most serious and needs immediate medical attention and emergency treatment to prevent sudden death?

A)Atrial flutter
B)Atrial fibrillation
C)Wolff-Parkinson-White syndrome
D)Ventricular fibrillation

Question 64

Which of the following statements is not true about ventricular fibrillation?

A)Ventricular fibrillation is a serious condition that may lead to sudden death
B)Individuals with an acute ventricular fibrillation episode become unconscious suddenly
C)Patients having acute ventricular fibrillation present with rapid and undetectable heart rate
D)Post hospital survival rate of patient with ventricular fibrillation is very high

Question 65

A patient was admitted in intensive care unit after suffering from myocardial infarction. The nurse observes that the patient is pulseless and the monitor shows ventricular tachycardia. What emergency management is most appropriate for this patient?

A)Defibrillation
B)Radiofrequency ablation
C)Temporary pacemaker implantation
D)Endotracheal intubation

Question 66

Which of the following drugs are used to treat ventricular fibrillation?

A)Lidocaine, disopyramide, digitalis, adenosine
B)Epinephrine, vasopressin, amiodarone, and lidocaine
C)Metoprolol, atenolol, diltiazem, verapamil, hydralazine
D)Metoprolol, atenolol, diltiazem, moricizine

Question 67

Choose the statement that defines intermittent claudication.

A)The condition is defined as muscle cramp during physical activity which resolves once activity is stopped
B)Intermittent claudication arises from occlusion of peripheral arteries
C)It consists of muscle cramps during night which is severe enough to awake the patient
D)It consists of joint pain which resolves when the patient starts walking

Question 68

The prevalence of intermittent claudication is estimated to be about 4.5 million. How many of these individuals need surgical intervention?

A)A.50%
B)30%
C)10%
D)70%

Question 69

Which of the following sets of conditions may lead to intermittent claudication?

A)Blood clots, varicose veins, thrombophlebitis
B)Raynaud's disease, thrombophlebitis, compartment syndrome
C)Deep vein thrombosis, vasculitis, injury to limbs
D)Peripheral arterial disease, blood clots, abnormal anatomy of muscle/ligaments

Question 70

A patient complains of pain in his calf, buttocks, and thighs after brisk walking or strenuous activity; the pain is relieved when activity is stopped. Pentoxifylline was prescribed to treat this patient's condition. What is the mechanism of action of this drug?

A)Block pain receptor in extremities, increases venous drainage
B)Increases blood flow to the extremities by decreasing blood viscosity.
C)Decreases muscle metabolism, opens more sodium channel, dissolves clots
D)Block pain receptors, blocks nerve conduction in pain fibres

Question 71

Which of the following statements is true about the prognosis of intermittent claudication?

A)Prognosis of individuals diagnosed with intermittent claudication is good because the condition typically stabilizes or improves over time
B)The condition remains stable for years with intermittent exacerbations
C)The condition takes years to improve as it takes long to form new blood vessels
D)New smaller blood vessels can never compensate for larger blood vessels in the legs

Question 72

Which of the following statements is not true about the prognosis of patients suffering from intermittent claudication?

A)Approximately 1/3rd of patients with intermittent claudication tend to improve over time
B)Approximately 1/3rd of patients remain stable
C)Approximately 1/3rd deteriorate, mainly due to continued smoking
D)Smoking has no relation to the prognosis of intermittent claudication

Question 73

Which of the following symptoms is characteristic of Shy-Drager syndrome?

A)Severe uncontrolled hypertension
B)Severe hypotension when standing and severe hypertension when lying down
C)Problems with coordination and speech
D)Severe hypotension and muscle tremor

Question 74

Which of the following statements is not true about neurally-mediated hypotension?

A)Use of graduated compression stocking makes the symptoms worse
B)It happens due to pooling of blood in the legs and feet leading to sudden blood pressure drops
C)It is caused by a malfunction between the brain and cardiovascular system
D)A drop in blood pressure after standing for long periods

Question 75

Which of the following endocrine diseases may cause hypotension?

A)Hypothyroidism, Addison's disease
B)Cushing syndrome, syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone secretion (SIADH)
C)Hyperpituitarism, hypoparathyroidism, diabetes insipidus
D)Hypothyroidism, hypopituitarism, diabetes insipidus

Question 76

Choose the sentence which correctly defines orthostatic hypotension.

A)Blood pressure drops after micturition
B)Blood pressure drops when changing positions
C)Blood pressure drops after taking meals
D)None of the above

Question 77

Which of these drugs is liable to cause orthostatic hypotension?

A)Angiotensin receptor blocker, anxiolytics, alpha blockers
B)Potassium channel openers, nitrates, antihistamines
C)Angiotensin receptor blockers, antipsychotics, beta agonists
D)Diuretics, beta-blockers, calcium channel blockers, ACE inhibitors, antidepressants

Question 78

What is the pathophysiologic mechanism behind pulmonary edema?

A)Increased blood pressure in the blood vessels of the lungs forces fluid into the air sacs; this prevents the absorption of oxygen
B)Increased blood flow in the blood vessels of the lungs; this prevents gaseous exchange
C)Decreased blood flow in the blood vessels of the lungs; this prevents gaseous exchange
D)Decreased blood flow in the blood vessels of the lungs; this prevents air entry

Question 79

What tests should be performed to evaluate a patient after PCTA?

A)Electrocardiogram, echocardiogram, hematocrit, serum creatinine
B)Electrocardiogram, echocardiogram, cardiac enzymes
C)Electrocardiogram, echocardiogram, physical assessment, monitoring of peripheral blood flow
D)Physical assessment and evaluation of cardiac pain

Question 80

The nurse receives the blood test reports of a patient who was admitted to hospital with complaints of chest pain. The report shows an elevated level of CK-MB. What does this report signify?

A)Damage to myocardium
B)Damage to intercostals muscles
C)Liver damage
D)None